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UMAT

Full Length Test Paper

- Preparatory Tool from Prepgenie





CONTENTS

1 FULL LENGTH UMAT PAPER ...................................................................................................................................... 3

1.1 INSTRUCTIONS FOR WRITING THE TEST ..................................................................................................... 3

SECTION 1 .......................................................................................................................................................................... 4

SECTION 2 ..................................................................................................................................................................... 17

SECTION 3 ...................................................................................................................................................................... 27

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS ................................................................................................................................... 39

2 ABOUT PREPGENIE ........................................................................................................................................................ 40

2.1 FREE RESOURCES ................................................................................................................................................. 40

2.1.1 ONLINE QUIZ ...................................................................................................................................................... 40

2.1.2 HELPGENIE .......................................................................................................................................................... 40

2.1.3 DISCUSSION FORUM ....................................................................................................................................... 40

2.2 PAID RESOURCES.................................................................................................................................................. 40

2.2.1 FULL LENGTH TEST PAPER MODULE...................................................................................................... 41

3 CONTACT US ..................................................................................................................................................................... 42





1 FULL LENGTH UMAT PAPER

1.1 INSTRUCTIONS FOR WRITING THE TEST

Read Carefully

1 This is a mock UMAT Full Length Test comprising 122 questions from the three different sections, Logical

Reasoning and Problem Solving, Understanding People and Non-Verbal Reasoning.

2 Total Test duration is 165 minutes i.e. 2 hours 45 minutes.

You must follow the follow timing pattern for each section –

Section 1 44 questions 65 minutes



Please stick to the time.

3 No marks are deducted for wrong answers. So students are advised to move on quickly without wasting too

much time on one question.





SECTION 1 Logical Reasoning and Problem Solving Questions 1 – 44

For each question, decide which answer is correct based only on the information given.

Question 1

In the aftermath of a worldwide stock-market crash, Country T claimed that the severity of the stock-market crash it

experienced resulted from the accelerated process of denationalisation of many of its industries which occured

shortly before the crash.

1 Which of the following, if it could be carried out, would be most useful for the evaluation of Country T ‟s

assessment of the causes of the severity of its stock-market crash?

A Calculating the average loss experienced by individual traders in Country T during the crash.

B Using economic theory for predicting the next possible date of crash in Country T.

C Comparing the total number of shares sold during the worst days of the crash in Country T to the total

number of shares sold in Country T just prior to the crash.

D Comparing the severity of the crash in Country T with those countries that are economically similar to

Country T and have not experienced recent denationalisation.

Question 2

Kale has more nutritional value than spinach. But since collard greens have more nutritional value than lettuce, it

follows that kale has more nutrit ional value than lettuce.

2 Any of the following, if introduced into the argument as an additional premise, makes the above argument

logically correct EXCEPT

A collard greens have more nutritional value than kale.

B spinach has more nutrit ional value than lettuce.

C spinach has more nutrit ional value than collard greens.

D spinach and collard greens have the same nutrit ional value.

Question 3

Although custom prosthetic bone replacements produced through a new computer-aided design process will cost

more than twice as much as ordinary replacements, custom replacements should still be cost -effective. Not only will

surgery and recovery time be reduced, but cus tom replacements should last longer, thereby, reducing the need for

further hospital stays.

3 Which of the following must be studied in order to evaluate the argument presented above?

A The amount of time a patient spends in surgery versus the amount of time spent recovering from

surgery.

B The amount by which the cost of producing custom replacements has declined with the introduction

of the new technique for producing them.

C The degree to which the use of custom replacements is likely to reduce the need for repeat surgery

when compared with the use of ordinary rep lacements.

D The degree to which custom replacements are produced with the help of new technique is more

carefully manufactured than the ordinary replacements.





Question 4

Correct ly measuring the productivity of service workers is complex. Consider, for example, postal workers: they are

often said to be more productive if more letters are delivered per postal worker. But is this really true? What if more

letters are lost or delayed per worker at the same t ime that more are delivered?

4 The objection implied above to the productivity measure described is based on doubts about the truth of

which of the fo llowing statements?

A Postal workers are representative of service workers in general.

B The delivery of letters is the primary activ ity of the postal service.

C Productivity should be ascribed to the categories of workers, not to individuals.

D The quality of services rendered can appropriately be ignored in computing produ ctivity.

Question 5

In the following diagram the rectangle stands for illiterate, the square stands for employed, the triangle stands for

farmers and the circle stands for the rich people.

5 What does the shaded region indicate?

A Illiterate and unemployed farmers

B Some unemployed farmers are rich and illiterate

C Some rich farmers who are employed

D All the rich who are not illiterate and are farmers

Question 6

Sales of telephones have increased dramatically over the last year. In order to take advantage of this increase,

Mammoth Industries plans to expand production of its own model of telephone, while continuing its already

extensive advertising of this product.





6 Which of the following, if true, provides most support to the view that Mammoth Industries cannot increase

its sales of telephones by adopting the plan outlined above?

A Although it sells all the telephones that it produces, Mammoth Industries ‟ share of all telephone sales

has declined over the last year.

B Mammoth Industries‟ average inventory of telephones awaiting shipment to retailers has declined

slightly over the last year.

C Advertising has made the brand name of Mammoth Industries ‟ telephones widely known, but few

consumers know that Mammoth Industries owns this brand.

D Despite a slight decline in the retail price, sale of Mammoth Industries ‟ telephones have fallen in the

last year.

Question 7

In tests for pironoma, a serious disease, a false positive result indicates that people have pironoma when, in fact,

they do not; a false negative result indicates that people do not have pironoma when, in fact, they do. To detect

pironoma most accurately, physicians should use the laboratory test that has the lowest proportion of fals e positive

results.

7 Which of the following, if true, g ives the most support to the above recommendation?

A The accepted treatment for pironoma does not have damaging side effects.

B All laboratory tests undertaken to detect pironoma have the same proportion of false negative results.

C In treating pironoma patients, it is essential to begin treatment as early as possible, as even a week of

delay can result in loss of life.

D The proportion of inconclusive test results is equal for all laboratory tests used to detect pironoma.

Question 8

The difficulty with the proposed high-speed train line is that a used plane can be bought for one-third the price of the

train line, and the plane, which is just as fast, can fly anywhere. The train would be a fi xed linear system, and we

live in a world that is spreading out in all directions and in which consumers choose the free -wheel systems (cars,

buses, aircraft), which do not have fixed routes. Thus, a sufficient market for the train will not exist.

8 Which of the following, if true, most severely weakens the argument presented above?

A Cars, buses, and planes require the efforts of drivers and pilots to guide them, whereas the train will

be guided mechanically.

B Cars and buses are not as fast as the high-speed trains.

C Planes are not a free-wheel system because they can fly only between airports, which are less

convenient for consumers than the high-speed train‟s stations.

D The high-speed train line cannot use the underutilised train stations in big cit ies.

Questions 9 and 10

According to the Tristate Transportation Authority, making certain improvements to the main commuter rail line

would increase ridership dramat ically. The authority plans to finance these improvements over the course of five

years by raising automobile tolls on the two highway bridges along the route the rail line serves. Although the

proposed improvements are indeed needed, the authority ‟s plan for securing the necessary funds should be rejected

because it would unfairly force drivers to absorb the entire cost of something from which they receive no benefit.





9 Which of the following, if true, would cast the most doubt on the effectiveness of the authority ‟s plan to

finance the proposed improvements by increasing bridge tolls?

A Before the authority increases tolls on any of the area bridges, it is required by law to hold public

hearings where objections to the proposed increase can be raised.

B Whenever bridge tolls are increased, the authority must pay a private contractor to adjust the

automated toll-collecting machines.

C Between the time a proposed toll increase is announced and the time the increase is actually put into

effect; many commuters buy more tokens than usual to postpone the effects of the increase.

D When tolls were last increased on the two bridges in question, almost 20 percent of the regular

commuter t raffic switched to a slightly longer alternative route that has since been improved.

10 Which of the following, if true, would provide the authority with the strongest counter to the objection that

its plan is unfair?

A Even with the proposed toll increase, the average bridge toll in the Tristate region will remain less

than the tolls charged in neighbouring states.

B Any attempt to finance the improvements by raising rail fares will result in a decrease in ridership and

so will be self-defeating.

C The roads along the route served by the rail line are h ighly congested and drivers benefit when

commuters are d iverted from congested roadways to mass transit.

D The only alternative way of funding the proposed improvements now being considered is through a

regional income tax surcharge, which will affect the automobile commuters as well as the rail

commuters.

Question 11

The pharmaceutical industry argues that because new drugs will not be developed unless heavy development costs

can be recouped in later sales, the current 20 years of protection provided by patents should be extended in the case

of newly developed drugs. However, in other industries new-product development continues despite high

development costs, a fact that indicates that the extension is unnecessary.

11 Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the pharmaceutical industry ‟s argument against the

proposed changes?

A No industries other than the pharmaceutical industry have asked for an extension of the 20-year limit

on patent protection.

B Clin ical trials of new drugs, which occur after the patent is granted and before the new drug can be

marketed, often take as long as 10 years to be completed.

C There are several industries in which the ratio of research and development costs to revenues is higher

than that of the pharmaceutical industry.

D An existing patent for a drug does not legally prevent pharmaceutical companies from bring ing

alternative drugs to the market, provided they are sufficiently d issimilar to the patented drug.

Question 12

Caterpillars of all species produce an identical hormone called “juvenile hormone” that maintains feeding behaviour.

Only when a caterpillar has grown to the right size for pupation to take place does a special enzyme halt the

production of juvenile hormone. This enzyme can be synthesised and will, on being ingested by immature

caterpillars, kill them by stopping them from feeding.





12 Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the view that it would NOT be advisable to try to

eradicate agricultural pests that go through a caterpillar stage by spraying croplands with the en zyme

mentioned above?

A Most species of caterpillar are subject to natural predation.

B Many agricultural pests do not go through a caterpillar stage.

C Many agriculturally beneficial insects go through a caterpillar stage.

D Since caterpillars of different species emerge at different times, several sprayings will be necessary.

Question 13

Firms adopting “profit-related-pay” (PRP) contract pay wages at levels that vary with the firm‟s profits. In the

metalworking industry last year, firms with PRP contracts in place showed productivity per worker on average 13

percent higher than that of their competitors who used more tradit ional contracts.

13 If, on the basis of the given evidences, it is argued that PRP contracts increase worker productivity, wh ich of

the following, if true, would most seriously weaken that argument?

A Results similar to those cited for the metalworking industry have been found in other industries where

PRP contracts are used.

B Under PRP contracts costs other than labour costs, such as plant, machinery, and energy, make up an

increased proportion of the total cost of each unit of output.

C Because introducing PRP contracts greatly changes an individual worker ‟s relationship with the firm,

negotiating the introduction of PRP contracts is complex and time -consuming.

D Many firms in the metalworking industry have modernised production equipment in the last five

years, and most of these introduced PRP contracts at the same time.

Question 14

Adult female rats that have never before encountered rat pups will start to show maternal behaviours after being

confined with a pup for about seven days. This period can be considerably shortened by disabling the female ‟s sense

of smell or by removing the scent-producing glands of the pup.

14 Which of the following hypotheses best exp lains the contrast described above?

A The amount of scent produced by rat pups increases when they are in the presence of a female rat that

did not bear them.

B Female rats that have given birth are more affected by olfactory cues than the female rats that have

never given birth.

C A female rat that has given birth shows maternal behaviour towards rat pups, that she did not bear,

more quickly than does a female rat that has never given birth.

D The development of a female rat‟s maternal interest in a rat pup that she did not bear is inhibited by

the odour of the pup.





Question 15 and 16

The ultimate outcome of the battle for dominance between these two competing cellular data transmission

technologies may lie more in their history than their respective merits.

Technology Advantage Disadvantage

CDMA

Increased cellular communications security.

Simultaneous conversations.

Increased efficiency, meaning that the carrier can

serve more subscribers.

Smaller phones.

Low power requirements and little cell-to-cell

coordination needed by operators.

Extended reach - beneficial to rural users situated

far from cells.

Due to its proprietary

nature, all of CDMA's

flaws are not known to the

engineering community.

CDMA is relatively new,

and the network is not as

mature as GSM.

CDMA cannot offer

international roaming, a

large GSM advantage.

GSM

International roaming permits subscribers to use

one phone throughout Western Europe. CDMA

will work in Asia, but not France, Germany, the

U.K. and other popular European destinations.

GSM is mature, having started in the mid -80s.

This maturity means a more stable network with

robust features.

GSM's maturity means engineers cut their teeth

on the technology, creating an unconscious

preference.

The availability of Subscriber Identity Modules,

which are smart cards that provide secure data

encryption give GSM m-commerce advantages.

It‟s costlier than CDMA

technology.

Lack of access to burgeoning

American market.

15 For a security group working on crime-control, which mobile group connection is preferable?

A CDMA

B GSM

C Both the technologies are equally suitable

D CDMA for local and GSM for roaming

16 A farmer, in rural town of Western Australia, wants to buy a mobile for keeping contact with his daughter in

Sydney. Which mobile technology will be more convenient for him?

A GSM

B CDMA

C Both are equally suitable for h im

D Depends on his daughter‟s mobile connection





Question 17

The earliest Mayan pottery found at Colha, in Belize, is about 3,000 years old. Recently, however, 4,500 -year-o ld

stone agricultural implements were unearthed at Colha. These implements resemble Mayan stone implements of a

much later period, also found at Colha. Moreover, the implements ‟ designs are strikingly different from the designs

of stone implements produced by other cultures known to have inhabited the area in prehistoric times. Therefore,

there were surely Mayan settlements in Colha 4,500 years ago.

17 Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

A Ceramic ware is not known to have been used by the Mayan people to make agricultural implements.

B Carbon dating of corn pollen in Colha indicates that agriculture began there around 4,500 years ago.

C Archaeological evidence indicates that some of the oldest stone implements found at Colha were used

to cut away vegetation after controlled burning of trees to open areas of swamp-land for cu ltivation.

D Successor cultures at a given site often adopt the style of agricu ltural implements used by earlier

inhabitants of the same site.

Question 18

Codex Berinensis, a Florentine copy of an ancient Roman medical treatise, is undated but contains clues to when it

was produced. Its first 80 pages are by a single copyist, but the remaining 20 pages are by three different copyists,

which indicate some significant disruption. Since a letter in handwriting identified as that of the fourth copyist

mentions a plague that killed many people in Florence in 1148, Codex Berinensis was probably produced in that

year.

18 Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the hypothesis that Codex Berinensis was produced in

1148?

A Other than Codex Berinensis, there are no known samples of the handwrit ing of the first three

copyists.

B According to the account of the fourth copyist, the plague went on for 10 months.

C A scribe would be able to copy a page of text, the size and the style of Codex Berinensis in a day.

D Plague brokeout only once in Florence in the 1100‟s.

Question 19

The following table shows the sales trend of replacement doors and windows





19 If the trend for French doors continues, how many would be sold in the next quarter?

A 21

B 14

C 28

D 42

Questions 20 – 22

There is much talk of a hydrogen economy and one version of that future is described as based on dissociating water

into hydrogen and oxygen with sunlight in photo-catalyst cells or films. If the rooftops of every house in the United

States were covered in these cells, then every household would have at its disposal the hydrogen equivalent of over

10 litres of gasoline a day. The cells used would have to achieve the US Department of Energy ‟s standard of 10

percent water-splitting efficiency before the investment would be worthwhile and the output would approach the 10-

lit re level. But this kind of efficiency has only been achieved under careful laboratory conditions using ultra -violet

light. Sunlight comprises only 4 percent ultra-violet light and so the search is still on for a photo-catalyst that

reaches the same level of efficiency using the whole sunlight spectrum.

Another technological approach to the dissociation of water relies on microorganisms. Bio logists have lon g known

of the existence of single-celled p lants that can break water molecules apart and release hydrogen and oxygen gas

and the hope is that a microorganism can be found capable of generating hydrogen gas in sufficient quantities. So

far, the search has been disappointing and the levels of gas produced have fallen a long way short of the amount

necessary to satisfy the US Department of Energy‟s standard of efficiency.

20 Which of the following sentences best expresses the general theme made in the passag e?

A The passage optimistically predicts that the hydrogen economy is just around the corner.

B The passage is pessimistic regarding the likelihood of a hydrogen economy based on the dissociation

of water.

C The passage identifies a number of technological challenges that remain before a hydrogen economy

is feasible.

D The passage describes a number of challenges that must still be solved on the path to a hydrogen

economy based on the dissociation of water.

21 Which of the following subjects is not raised in the passage?

A Solar panels that split water for hydrogen

B The dissociation of water with sunlight

C Hydrogen production using ultra-violet light

D Photo-catalysts that generate hydrogen from water

22 Which of the following is the best description of the conclusion in the passage?

A Deductive

B Inductive

C Presumptuous

D Hypothetical

Questions 23 – 25

It is natural to believe that the world‟s leading cities would be found to be in a constant state of change, evolving to

accommodate new waves of immigrants, work/life balance, modes of transport and architectural style. With such a

process of reinvention and renewal, and often sprawl, these places must become almost unrecognisable over long

periods of time, say, for example, 100 years. However, when you get down to it and have a careful look at how these

cities have changed over such a period, you are immediately struck not by the way they have changed but in the





ways they haven‟t. In particular, most of the broad patterns of socio-economic class remain the same, as do many

local socio-economic characteristics. Most of the poorest areas will still be found to be poor. The architectural style

of slum may have changed; low-rise, mult i-occupied hovels may well have been knocked down to be replaced with

high-rise flats on sprawling heartless estates, but the social malaise caused by poverty and unemployment remains.

A road that was notorious 100 years ago as a place frequented by drunks and members of the criminal class may

well be found to suffer the same challenges. Only the language used to describe the nature of the problem will have

changed and perhaps the problems will be attributed to drugs rather than alcohol and gangs of alienated youths

rather than a criminal class.

23 Which of the suggested answers best expresses the key point of the passage?

A The social geography of the world‟s leading cities changes over longer periods than you might expect.

B In the last 100 years, the world‟s lead ing cities have changed beyond recognition architecturally, but

they have hardly changed socially.

C The world‟s leading cit ies are in a constant state of change, evolving to accommodate new waves of

immigrants, work/life balance, modes of transport and architectural style.

D When you get down to it and have a careful look at these cities you are struck not by the way they

have changed, but by the ways, they have not.

24 With which of the fo llowing statements is the author of the passage most likely to disagree?

A The architecture of the world‟s great cit ies is being constantly established.

B The language with which we describe the social geography of our great cit ies is constantly evolving.

C The social geography of our great cities is in a constant state of transformat ion.

D The social geography of our great cities appears invariable.

25 In the context of the passage, the word „sprawl‟ means

A to spread out one‟s limbs.

B disorganised expansion.

C an ungainly movement.

D an industrial area.

Questions 26 – 28

Bio-fuels, blended with ordinary fuel, are beginning to bring these green alternatives from obscurity. Brazil has, for

many years, produced ethanol from sugar and used the high-octane alcohol as a substitute for gasoline. Vegetable o il

derived from soya beans and rapeseed has been used to run tractors in many parts of the world. But these

environmental alternatives to crude oil have until recently not been taken very seriously by the big consumer nations

and their petro-corporations. But new laws requiring gasoline to contain 10 percent ethanol, and diesel to contain 6

percent vegetable oil by volume are changing all that. At the levels imposed, no new infrastructure is required in

order to accommodate these changes as they can be dispensed at existing fuel stations and used to run existing cars,

trucks and tractors. To go further, however, and, for example, run all cars exclusively on ethanol would require a

new generation of engine and perhaps, more significantly, the scaling up of production of ethanol by a fantas tic

margin. A whole-scale switch to bio-diesel seems to carry fewer challenges. Its production is far less capital-

intensive in the start-up phase. Most existing engines can burn the fuel or would be relatively easy to convert and

farmers are very receptive to the idea of a new market (and better prices) for a product they already grow.

26 Which of the following sentences best expresses the key point made in the passage?

A As oil prices rise, policy-makers are turning to alternatives.

B New laws are beginning to lift b io-fuels from obscurity.

C Blending bio-fuels with tradit ional o il products is bringing them into prominence.

D Bio-fuels are about to take off.





27 Which of the following sentences will conclude the passage?

A Any country with the space to grow bio-fuel-producing crops can be independent of imported fuels

and increased agricultural revenue.

B Fear of g lobal warming is partly driv ing this search for off-the-wall alternatives.

C Sceptics argue that ethanol produced from growing crops will consume more gasoline than it will

produce.

D If b io-fuels do take off, environmentalists will raise as many concerns as they do currently.

28 It can be inferred from the passage that

A most cars can run on a fuel blend made up of 85 percent ethanol.

B government policy is lifting bio-fuels from obscurity.

C demand for b io-fuels will soon outstrip supply.

D cars can handle a blend of 10 percent ethanol.

Questions 29 – 31

There are plenty of careers that do not need a university degree. In law enforcement, administration, catering, retail,

construction and transport, there are many highly paid careers to be had without the requirement of going to

university. Take airline pilots, for example. No degree is necessary for this job and most are on salaries of over

$100K. Anyone can achieve qualificat ions equally valued by employers through night school or college for a

fraction of the cost of a degree. Many employers are complaining that they cannot find enough candidates of

sufficient quality when they run graduate recruitment campaigns. So many graduates these days are simply not

leaving university with the basic skills needed by employers. Poor spelling and grammar and weak mathemat ical

ability means many graduate candidates cannot be left unsupervised without the risk of basic mistakes being made

or e-mails or memos being sent out with crass errors. Employers complain that graduates lack experience of the

world of work. Above all else, employers are looking for committed and conscientious sta ff with common sense and

the hunger to succeed, and unfortunately universities do not teach these either. So why go to university?

29 Which of the following statements best sums up the general theme of the passage?

A One does not need a degree in order to get a good job.

B A degree is no longer the route to get a job.

C What is taught in the universities is not particularly relevant to the employers.

D There are many ways to get a top job without a degree.

30 Which of the following statements, if true, will weaken the case made in the passage?

A Twenty percent of employers are dissatisfied with the communication skills of the graduates.

B Apart from a few intellectually demanding jobs, a degree has little significance to your chances of

getting a job.

C Eighty percent of jobs by 2010 will need a degree.

D One-third of employers complain that most of their graduate positions are lying vacant.

31 Which of the following would be the most suitable sentence to follow on from the passage?

A I am not sure of the significance of a degree to the world of work.

B Many young people drift into universities because they do not know what else to do.

C The number of graduates is increasing at a faster rate than the number of jobs.

D It might well turn out to be the best three or four years of your life but it will probably not be the sure-

fire route to a great job.





Questions 32 – 34

Perhaps they are the human equivalent of an endangered species. They certainly are the victims of the same

encroachment on their land that causes the extinction of many animal species. The last few communities of nomadic

people in Asia, Africa and South America have no effective means of defending their traditions and livelihood.

Loggers are perhaps the cause of greatest conflict. They illegally enter the lands of these nomadic people, destroy

their forests and woods, and hunt their animals. Ranchers may follow, to burn great tracts to clear it for their

domesticated animals. Once the land is deprived of trees and plants and the seasonal rains begin, the depleted soil is

washed down into the rivers and permanent environmental damage can fo llow. The loggers and ranchers move on

further into the virg in habitat, displacing more nomadic people.

These are ancient habitats. They have existed for millions of years. But in less than 50 years they, along with the

traditional way of hunting and gathering practiced by the peoples of these lands, have all but been lost. Worldwide,

only a few thousand people are estimated to still live a truly nomadic life. Most have been forced to abandon their

traditional lifestyle practiced fo r millennia and have had to settle down in v illages to a life of hunting combined with

subsistence farming.

32 Which of the following statements is offered to support the theme of the passage?

A Loggers and ranchers are destroying the habitat of the world ‟s few remaining nomadic people.

B Worldwide, only a few thousand people are remaining who lead a nomadic life.

C They are the victims of the same encroach ment on their lands that causes the ext inction of many

animal species.

D Nomadic people take on loggers and ranchers to defend their threatened way of life.

33 The author does which of the following to put forward h is point?

A Corrects a misconception

B Relies on authority

C Uses an analogy

D Gives examples

34 The tone of the passage is

A fatalistic.

B sceptical.

C cynical.

D defeatist.

Questions 35 – 39

Widespread help from parents and family members has generally always cast doubt on the value of examinations in

which home-completed assignments contribute to the grade awarded. The extent of that contribution is significant,

with about 20 to 60 percent of grades coming from such coursework. Most students believe that coursework is a

fairer method of assessment when compared with „all or nothing‟ exams; however they also admit that it is „all too

easy to cheat‟. A review of the extent of cheating found overwhelming evidence of widespread abuse by students,

teachers and parents. Incredibly, 1 in 10 parents admitted to doing assignments for their children. Teachers admitted

to giving students „too much help‟. But greatest concern arises because of the internet. A whole host of sites now

exist, offering for a small fee (or even for free) for model essays and examples of coursework awarded with top

grades. Most of these sites carry requests that the user does not submit the material as their own but there is no





attempt to ensure that this request is adhered to, and there is much evidence of a plagiarism free-for-all of internet-

obtained material. Many educationalists conclude that the internet has made the policing of coursework impossible.

35 In the context of the passage the word plagiarise means

A the infringement of someone else‟s copyright.

B to borrow or crib the work of someone else.

C to take someone else‟s work and pass it off as your own.

D the illegal use of written material authored by someone else.

36 Which of the following will most naturally follows on as the next sentence to the passage?

A Coursework is obviously open to cheating and there should be much more emphasis on and more

marks for proper invigilated assignments or exams.

B They have called for it either to be done under controlled conditions or to be dropped altogether.

C And believe the revelations cast doubt on the continually rising grades.

D Most young people nowadays can get well on the way to a decent pass grade before they even take an

exam.

37 The author relies on which of the following to make his claims?

A Examples or analogies

B Deductive argument

C The drawing of comparative assertions

D The findings of an investigative study

38 Which of the following statements correctly reflects the point made in the passage?

A 20 to 60 percent of the total grades obtained, result from the help of parents and siblings.

B 20 to 60 percent of the total grades available, come from the assignments that are completed at home.

C 20 to 60 percent of the total grades awarded in these qualifications come from the contribution of

parents and family.

D 20 to 60 percent of the grades are allocated to the assignments completed at home.

39 The author will agree that

A widespread help from parents and siblings has led to grade inflation.

B widespread help from parents and siblings has made the policing of home-completed coursework

almost impossible.

C widespread help from parents and siblings has made nonsense of the national exam system.

D widespread help from parents and siblings raises serious questions about the credibility of vocational

qualification.

Questions 40 – 44

A study of the benefits of a family, from cholesterol-lowering drugs used in the treatment of heart attacks, has

shown that while the greatest benefits are enjoyed by those at greatest risk of a vascular event, every person at risk

can gain considerable benefits from the treatment. These findings have led to calls that it should be offered to

anybody at a risk of heart attack or stroke. It has long been known that the treatment, if administered daily to the

group most at risk of an attack, cuts that risk by a third. At present, doctors prescribe the treatment only once they

have considered a number of factors, including cholesterol level, blood pressure, body fat levels and whether the

patient smokes. The new evidence suggests that patients with less than very high levels of cholesterol will also

experience a significant drop in their cholesterol levels and a consequent lower risk of a vascular event. In fact, it

concludes that the benefits of the treatment are directly proportional to the size of the reduction in cholesterol levels

that might be achieved and not the level at which the intervention begins.





40 Which of the following factors gave rise to the call that the treatment should be offered to anybody at risk of

a heart attack or stroke?

A The realisation that the treatment is literally a life saver

B The realisation that not every person at risk can gain considerable benefits from the treatment

C The realisation that benefits from the treatment is seen indifferent types of patients

D The realisation that the risk of a heart attack is much higher in people who smoke, are overweight and

have high cholesterol levels and blood pressure

41 The treatment is

A a single drug.

B administered daily.

C an unspecified intervention.

D a series of painful in jections.

42 The best summary of the conclusion to be drawn from the study is that

A the benefits of the treatment are in d irect proportion to the size of the reduction in cholesterol levels

that might be achieved and not the level at which intervention begins.

B this treatment could cut heart attacks by a third.

C the treatment should be prescribed to anyone assessed to be at risk of a heart attack or stroke.

D there is now a stronger case for the treatment to be prescribed to a much wider group of patients.

43 Given that the benefits of the treatment are directly proportional to the size of the reduction in cholesterol

levels it is correct to say that

A doctors should offer this treatment to everybody whom they believe are at risk of a heart attack

regardless of their cholesterol levels.

B doctors should look more to the relative drop in cholesterol levels that may be achieved, rather than

prioritising patients suffering severely.

C the treatment may not benefit a wide range of patients as thought originally.

D everyone could gain considerable benefits from the treatment.

44 Which of the statements, if true, will weaken the claim that patients with low levels of cholesterol will also

experience a significant drop in their cholesterol levels and consequently a much lower risk of a vascular

event?

A The largest benefits from the treatment are seen among those having greatest risk of a vascular event

than those with lower level of cholesterol.

B Unfortunately, the best results from the treatment are only obtained when the treatment is customised

to individual patient‟s cholesterol levels and requires someone with less than very high choles terol

levels to take a s maller dose on everyday basis.

C Preliminary evidence suggests that the treatment achieves a relatively small reduction in the risk of a

heart attack among people with lower levels of cholesterol.

D Not all the evidences are positive, as people with lower cholesterol levels who take the treatment

have been found to develop an increased risk of some cancers.





SECTION 2 Understanding People Questions 45 – 84

Questions 45 – 47

In the following passage a man relates his experience of visiting the psychologist as a child.

I have a relatively clear memory of my one and only meeting with the psychologist, whose office was in a dark,

musty building, located somewhere downtown. He impressed me as a pleasant and engaging ad ult who made me

feel quite comfortable. However he did have a distracting habit of constantly cracking his knuckles while we talked.

Which, as I think of it now, the knuckle cracking may have been an indicator that he was struggling with some

problem of his own. Anyway, after an hour or so we were through. He told my father that I was an auditory learner,

that I possessed high verbal ability, that I was certainly intelligent and certainly dyslexic. However, they were not to

worry because dyslexia normally disappears around the onset of puberty “He‟ll grow out of it”.

No parent is particularly receptive to the notion that their child is anything but normal. My mother continued to

insist that she knew deep down that I was intelligent and, therefore, normal. My father, a physician embraced the

words “he‟ll grow out of it” and saw the solution in tutoring and athletics to refine coordination.

45 The way the author speaks about the psychologist‟s behaviour suggests that he finds him

A rude despite his reasonableness.

B agonising despite being consoling.

C perturbed despite being understandable.

D rid iculous to the point of being humorous.

46 The psychologist‟s feedback after the examination suggests

A a lack of sensitivity to the patient‟s feelings.

B an acute awareness of the patient‟s feelings.

C a genuine interest in the patient‟s circumstances.

D a natural ability to make the patient feel comfortable.

47 The parents‟ reactions seem to step main ly from their feelings of

A disbelief.

B superiority.

C protectiveness.

D overconfidence.

Question 48

The following passage has been related by a young girl, who has been diagnosed with depression.

I am twenty now but I very nearly didn‟t make it that far. Two years ago around this time I started university, the

best time of your life apparently. I didn‟t agree with that and I know p lenty of people who agree with me on that

point. I know people with depression find it hard to concentrate.

Shortly after starting university I was diagnosed with depression and was put onto medication, shortly after this I

started to cut myself regularly, usually in the evenings. I also burned myself and whenever I cut myself by accident

(I am naturally accident prone anyway!) I was blissfully happy. The morning after the night before came and the

guilt over my cutting made me feel worse so the cutting increased. The people in Hall with me tried to be supportive

but they kept telling me that I could just snap out of it which I couldn ‟t.





48 In finding herself as “blissfully happy”, the girl projects herself as

A joyful.

B sadistic.

C wounded.

D depressed.

Questions 49 – 52

Below is a woman’s perspective of her treatment of depression by two separate psychiatrists.

My first experience with treatment was at the mental health clinic at the local hospital. When I walked into the new

psychiatrist‟s office, I immediately got a bad feeling. It looked like he felt this was a temporary situation, as the

office was completely bare except for the desk and two chairs. The reason for my visit was to ask him to raise my

medication, as I was feeling the familiar signs of depression after being fairly stable for a year. He never even

looked at me, and only asked me one question to determine whether I was depressed again or not, “Do you have

thoughts of harming yourself or others?” I said, “Well, no, but I never have, so that‟s not really an indication for

me.” He ignored all the signs of depression I was recounting and refused to raise my medication. I absolutely hated

him, and wouldn‟t go back until he was gone six months later. This time when I walked into the new psychiatrist ‟s

office I was very wary, but the difference he had made in that cold office was amazing. I ‟m a little fuzzy on the

specifics, but I immediately noticed that the place smelled great. He had air fresheners in the office that made you

want to inhale when you walked in. He had prints on the walls and (I‟m pretty sure) healthy plants. I may be just

remembering the plants because he was such a nurturing person. He also had a photo of himself with a child on his

bulletin board, which I took as a good sign. He was very accessible, listened to me, and ordered a blood test to find

out the level of meds in my blood, which indeed was too low. He stayed longer than six months before moving on,

and I was very sorry to see him go.

49 How d id the first doctor treat his patient?

A Arrogantly

B Indifferently

C Comfort ingly

D Sympathetically

50 The second doctor‟s treatment of his patient can be best described as

A kind.

B cordial.

C routine.

D lenient.

51 From the second doctor‟s chamber, which of the fo llowing can be concluded about his character?

A Kind but rude

B Jovial and loving

C Accessible but strict

D Warm and considerate

52 “Well, no, but I never have, so that‟s not really an indication for me.” This statement reveals that the

author is

A prompt.

B conscious.

C concerned.

D apprehensive.





Questions 53 – 55

The following passage reveals how a gym routine works wonders for a lady suffering from depression.

Bea Thompson, 43, had been suffering from anxiety and depression for several years before being referred to the

Active Lifestyles Exercise Referral Scheme. She credits the programme as the catalyst for her recovery.

When I left the gym that morn ing I felt as if someone had given me a million pounds – it was the sense of

achievement, the fact that I‟d been understood, the fact that I‟d been able to do some work in a gym, and that I now

had somewhere to go every Monday and Wednesday. I also had something to work towards a goal – plus good

support and a nice environment to go into. Mentally, emotionally, psychologically and socially it was the best

(treatment) I‟d been given. It was like a club – the exercise referral people would give each other support and

encouragement.

It changed my world. I started rollerb lading on a Sunday; I found a swimming club, and someone to play tennis

with. And that all enabled me to have the confidence to go forward and find a part -time job. None of that would

have been possible without Active Lifestyles and the emotional support I got there. It was the input from the team

that made such a difference – if one day I was in a bad state they‟d see me and listen to whatever it was I was upset

about. It was always an attitude of „everything can be overcome‟. Earlier, I had stopped believing in myself, and I

had stopped trusting other people. The programme and the support that I got changed everything for me. ‟

53 Which of the following best describes Bea Thomson‟s feeling after his first visit to the gym?

A proud

B elated

C affable

D enthusiastic

54 What does the comment “I now had somewhere to go every Monday and Wednesday,” reveal about Bea?

A She is very happy with the endeavour.

B She is happy that she finally has a goal in life.

C She is glad she has a purpose which she wants to pursue.

D She is happy to mix and socialise with the people at the gym.

55 The extract shows that Bea is _________ by nature.

A a learner

B an optimist

C an introvert

D fore-sighted

Questions 56 – 60

The following passage gives an account of a lady expressing her anguish in a humorous tone.

I am lov ing and intelligent; I care deeply and take responsibility very seriously. I am (when well) daft, sense of

humour is my saviour and it is my yard stick to measure my illness by, I become very serious and withdrawn pre

mania and feel too miserable to have my sense of humour post mania, until well again. I have a wicked sense of

humour and love to laugh and have funny people around me. My priorities are around people‟s welfare, emotional

and physical. Some people say I am deep, I find my pleasures not in material things but in people ‟s happiness.

I love Nature and think the World is a beautiful place and I am only happy when I feel part of it. I paint and draw

what I see as aesthetic natural beauty in portraiture (the light in someone‟s eye) or landscape. I am very down to





earth and like nothing better than to share a rude joke. I get on well with men but cannot maintain a relationship. I

have a lot of interests and can keep myself busy as well as looking after others. I am a happy person.

56 “Sense of humour is my saviour and it is my yard stick to measure my illness.” What does this show

about the author?

A The author‟s disease is related to her humour.

B The author is confident about her sense of humour.

C The author is well aware of the symptoms of her d isease.

D The author is recovering because of her good sense of humour.

57 “I have a wicked sense of humour and love to laugh and have funny people around me.” What can you

perceive about the author from the statement?

A Funny but ill

B Jovial but wicked

C Good natured and light

D Fun loving but criticising

58 “I love Nature and think the World is a beautiful place and I am only happy when I feel part of it.” What

insight does this give about the author‟s nature?

A Optimist

B Extrovert

C Cosmopolitan

D Environmentalist

59 “I get on well with men but cannot maintain a relat ionship.” This means that

A she is an extrovert.

B she is not committed.

C she has a lot of male friends.

D she walks out of relat ionships very swiftly.

60 What is the tone of the passage?

A Defiant

B Cheerfu l

C Sarcastic

D Circumscrib ing

Questions 61 and 62

In the following extract a man relates his experiences of overcoming his depression.

I was a primary school teacher for 10 years before stress at work caused depression, which eventually led to my

resignation. My recovery was slow, and I felt tired all the time. I‟d put on weight and was quite unfit, so when my

wife told me about an advert she‟d seen for the Green Gym I thought I might give it a go. I‟ve always liked

gardening and practical things, and would rather do that than go jogging or to a gym. It was a real effort to go along

for the first time. My illness makes me worry about going to new places and meeting new people, so even getting to

the first session was quite a challenge. However, once I‟d got over that hurdle it all became much easier. Jo, the

leader, has been great, making us all feel welcome and wanted. It‟s increased my confidence, as I‟ve proved to

myself that I can do things, and I‟m also much fitter and have lost weight. We always have a lot of fun, whatever the

weather. It‟s therapeutic being close to nature, and I enjoy the friendship as well as the practical work.





61 For the narrator the issue of going to the Green Gym appears to be

A enticing.

B frustrating.

C challenging.

D provocative.

62 How does the author feel about the experience?

A Beneficial

B Happy and satisfied

C Friendly and surprising

D All of the above

Question 63

The following passage is based on a personal account of a mother who undergoes a sudden realisation.

There were days I so badly wanted to give up. I hated putting in so much effort. It was so much easier to just go to

work, leave the kid with my folks, and just walk away. Eventually, I had to quit my job (actually I was forced out),

because they couldn‟t handle my inflexible schedule anymore. That‟s when I woke up and realised that if Philip is

ever going to get better, I have to stop worrying about my convenience, and start worrying more about my son ‟s

recovery from a frightening disorder. I had to become a researcher, a therapist, and an advocate. And I had no time

to waste.

63 Which option best describes the feeling of the author in the first line?

A Agonised

B Disgusted

C Frustrated

D Tormented

Questions 64 – 67

In the following passage Mr. Parker gives us an account of his visit to a children ’s park and his perception about

people he met there.

Went to the park by my house over the weekend and had an eye opening moment. I was there watching, hold ing,

running and generally playing around with my son. There were a few other families around as well.

Another man came by with his two children, maybe 4 and 5 or 5 and 6 - but no older, and sat down to read the paper

while they played. The park has a rock wall (5‟ h igh) a few slides and walkways on this giant play set; plenty for

them to do. As they were playing his daughter (the younger one) s tarted climbing up a weird ladder where there are

no rungs from one side to the other, only footholds on each side. She made it almost the whole way up before she

lost her nerve and started calling for help from daddy.

His first reaction was to tell her „figure it out‟ which I thought was hilarious, until she didn‟t move for a few

minutes. The other parents started milling about until daddy showed up to help. Here is the thing, when he gets to

her he doesn‟t pick her up, he stands there and tells her how to solve her problem. At first I thought that was pretty

cool and cruel at the same time because you could tell she was crying, but eventually she was able to climb all the

way up without his assistance.





64 Which of the following best reveals the nature of the narrator?

A Happy go lucky man

B Playfu l and observant

C Critique and hypocrite

D Learner and appreciator

65 By asking the daughter to “figure it out” the father is trying to make his daughter

A brave.

B parasitic.

C self-reliant.

D adventurous.

66 Which of the following best describes the initial feeling of the author about the father‟s response to his

daughter?

A Ignorant

B Lethargic

C Indifferent

D Disinterested

67 “...but eventually she was able to climb all the way up without his assistance...” what does this tell about the

father and the daughter?

A The father is rude and daughter is innocent.

B The father is strict and the daughter is timid.

C The father is passive and the daughter is active.

D The father is a teacher and the daughter quick learner.

Questions 68 – 70

The following passage is narrated by a daughter describing the nature of her alcoholic father.

My dad was an alcoholic, and no one in my family has yet to recognise it, and he passed away six years ago. No one

thought so because he was not a fall down drunk, and he went to work every day of his life. I knew, because he

could not go without at least 2 – 4 beers a night; had to have them; would go to another town if all the liquor stores

in our town closed. He never missed those days at work, and he never missed those beers at night.

And if there was an occasion or a holiday or a visit, he would drink more than 2 – 4 beers, and would start his

obnoxious, loud, belligerent arguing with whoever was unfortunate enough to be sitting next to him. He had no

preference. He would argue with any family member, friend, or outsider. I watched and heard all this growing up,

and I still became an alcoholic myself.

68 The statement, “…he was not a fall down drunk, and he went to work every day of his life” means that

A the father was not an alcoholic but a workaholic.

B the father loved to drink and work simultaneously.

C the father was an alcoholic but did not neglect his duty.

D the father did not fall after drinking and had immense self-control.





69 The author‟s words, “...start his obnoxious, loud, belligerent arguing....”are most likely said with

A repulsion.

B arrogance.

C vindictiveness.

D dismissive formality.

70 Where has the narrator reached by the end of the passage?

A She still cannot figure out why she turned out to be an alcoholic.

B She has taken her revenge on her father by becoming an alcoholic herself.

C She has become an alcoholic herself in spite of knowing what it did to her father.

D She is amazed by the fact that her father could behave normally even when he was drunk.

Questions 71 and 72

In the following passage, Kevin, who recently came to know about his serious illness, shares an aspect of the lives of

such sufferers.

It is no wonder that people conceal serious illnesses, whether cancer, heart disease, or mental illness. Once exposed,

these illnesses prove to be unforgettable to others. People never walk with the same dignity again. Their weakness

has been exposed and it is this that others always observe. To some this weakness justifies treatment that shows no

respect to the person as a human being. Somehow the person is seen to be responsible for the weakness and

therefore appropriately blamed. The person has lost the right to be treated with honou r. This honour is accorded only

to those who are strong, healthy, and successful. To others the weakness calls forth much advice to change. The

weakness must become strength again and only then will the person be treated as someone deserving respect.

71 What is Kevin‟s view about healthy people?

A Inhuman

B Boisterous

C Reproachful

D Traumatised

72 What does Kevin say about how people around him react to serious illnesses?

A They stay calm in the face of the illness.

B They prefer not knowing about the illness.

C They are disrespectful towards the patients.

D They are kind and helpful towards the patients.

Questions 73 – 79

In the following passage, an old woman reflects on the passing years of her life and her growing age .

It seems just yesterday that I was a young girl, just married and embarking on my new life with my husband. And

yet in a way, it seems like eons ago, and I wonder where all the years went. I know that I lived them all.

And I have glimpses of how it was back then and of all my hopes and dreams, but, here it is...the winter of my life

and it catches me by surprise.

How did I get here so fast? Where did the years go and where did my babies go and where did my youth go? I

remember well, seeing older people through the years and thinking that those older people were years away from me

and that winter was so far off that I could not fathom it or imagine fu lly what it would be like.

But, here it is, husband retired and he‟s really getting gray, he moves slower and I see an older man now. He‟s in

much better shape than me, but, I see the great change. Not the one I married who was dark and young and strong,





but, like me, his age is beginning to show and we are now those older folks that we used to see and never thought

we‟d be.

Each day now, I find that just getting a shower is a real target for the day! And taking a nap is not a treat anymore,

it‟s mandatory! „Cause if I don‟t on my own free will, I just fall asleep where I sit! And so, now I enter into this new

season of my life unprepared for all the aches and pains and the loss of strength and ability to go and do things.

But, at least I know, that though the winter has come, and I‟m not sure how long it will last. This I know, that when

it‟s over, I will en joy the spring into the arms of my lov ing father and wait for my loved ones to come when their

winter is over too.

So, if you‟re not in your winter yet, let me remind you, that it will be here faster than you think. So, whatever you

would like to accomplish in your life p lease do it quickly!

73 What is author‟s tone in the first two lines of the passage?

A The author is full of hope and lively.

B The author is nostalgic about her youth.

C The author misses the vigour and vitality of her husband.

D The author is surprised at the sudden arrival of the old age.

74 “...winter was so far off....” how is winter associated with the text?

A Winter is symbolic of her waning age and vigour.

B The author is full of hatred for the season of winter.

C Winter is symbolic of lustreless beauty, pale eyes and weak limbs.

D The author talks about the season of winter that has surprised her by its untimely approach.

75 How does author feel about “winter” in the course of the passage?

A The author is filled with remorse at the loss of spring.

B The author is tormented at the thought of her old age.

C The author is taken by surprise at the sudden arrival of winter.

D The author feels nostalgic for the spring that she has spent in the arms of her father.

76 What is the author‟s view about her husband?

A She is truly and madly in love with her husband.

B She is comparing her health with that of her husband.

C She is full o f praise for the “better shape” of her husband.

D She misses her “young and strong” husband now that he is old and frail.

77 When the author says, “...I find that just getting a shower is a real target for the day,” she means that

A Her life is modelled in a way that seeks to achieve targets.

B She finds bathing an astronomical task that is insurmountable.

C To accomplish everyday feats is an ordeal for her, as she is old.

D All of the above

78 What is the crux of the passage?

A Live life to the fullest.

B Be accommodating in life.

C Spend time with your family.

D Fulfil your desires before it‟s late.





79 How does the author plan to spend her spring once the winter is over?

A She will go merry making.

B She will p lay in the arms of her father.

C She will bask in the glory of her youth.

D She will v isit her family after a long time.

Questions 80 – 82

In the following passage, the mother of two-year-old, Christian, relates certain instances from her life as a mother.

He shrieked when we cut his hair or brushed his hair. We knew the speech was in him, but he was too out of control

to let those words out. I remember a doctor‟s visit where the paediatrician needed to look in his ear, and I had to

hold him in my lap. Two doctors had to try to hold him down. Christian whacked me in my face and caused a nose

bleed. Christian wasn‟t the only one who left the office in tears that day. I left with an ice pack to accompany my

crying jag. I guess you see where this is going.

Despite everyone‟s efforts, life spun out of control for us. He made progress, and we could, once in a while, see bits

and pieces of the little boy hidden inside of Christian. Beh ind the autistic wall of anger and discomfort, a smart,

delightful little boy was wait ing to come out. I was desperate to do the right thing for Christian. But... how was I

supposed to do that? Our former wrap agency said “just wait it out.” But, that was NOT satisfactory to me.

80 What is the main reason behind Christian‟s nature?

A He is irritable by nature.

B He is suffering from autism.

C He does not like the doctor who comes to visit him.

D He does not like the way his mother brushes his hair.

81 “... we could ... see bits and pieces of the little boy hidden inside.” By this comment the mother means

that there were times when Christian

A showed signs of normalcy.

B had fun even while he was ill.

C deliberately behaved strangely.

D behaved in a very childish manner.

82 “But, that was NOT satisfactory to me.” Here, the mother‟s response can be best described as

A defiant.

B frustration.

C amazement.

D disrespectful.

Questions 83 and 84

The passage retells an account of a man suffering from anxiety and depression.

Every day that I wake up, I feel weak, especially my legs. I feel nauseous. I‟m shaky. The first thing I th ink of doing

besides feeding my cat is eating and drinking coffee, and taking my an xiety medication. It makes me tired but that‟s

a small price to pay to feel a little less weak physically, and mentally. I feel like I have an illness that is like the

others that people don‟t question. No one understands that I don‟t think I can work. I try to fool myself and try to

feel strong, but I would feel most comfortable doing something very simple where I ‟m not pressured by the public.

I have wished sometimes I had cancer. Because I know how it feels to be sick every day but not to that degree. But





with me and others with anxiety and panic disorder, the body is affected. It most definitely is. The emotions are

sometimes beyond control. Control can be taken but its like grabbing a lifeline in the stormy ocean and pulling

yourself up and up, back to the shore of sanity.

83 The emotion suggested by the author, “I try to fool myself and try to feel strong... I‟m not pressured by the

public.” is predominantly

A disgust for life.

B apprehensive of crit icis m.

C acceptance of his situation.

D guilt over her inability to behave normally.

84 “...it‟s like grabbing a lifeline in the stormy ocean and pulling yourself up” shows that the author struggled

A for survival.

B for ext inction.

C to keep up to his sanity.

D to keep up his reputation in society.





SECTION 3 Non-Verbal Reasoning Questions 85 – 122

Questions 85 – 98 Next in the Series

For each of the following items, select the alternative (A, B, C, D or E) that most logically and simply continues the

series.

85

86

87

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E





88

89

90

91

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E





92

93

94

95

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E





96

97

98

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E





Questions 99 – 110 Missing Segment

For each of the following items, select the alternative (A, B, C, D or E) that most logically and simply completes the

picture.

99

100

A B C D E

A B C D E





101

102

A B C D E

A B C D E





103

104

A B C D E

A B C D E





105

106

A B C D E

A B C D E





107

108

A B C D E

A B C D E





109

110

A B C D E

A B C D E





Questions 111 – 122 Middle of the Sequence

In each of the following items, the five figures can be rearranged to form a logical sequence.

For each item, select the alternative (A, B, C, D or E) that most logically and simply fits in the middle o f the

sequence.

111

112

113

114

115

116

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E





117

118

119

120

121

122

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E

A B C D E





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Building up reasoning skills

Exam practice





2.2.1 FULL LENGTH TEST PAPER MODULE

Package PEGAS US

5 Full Length UMAT test papers – Experience the real UMAT at home

122 Questions in each set

More than 500 UMAT practice questions in all

All the 3 UMAT Sections covered

Answer keys – Know your real scores ahead of time

Explanations – Know how to reach the answer efficiently

5 OMR sheets – Practise the best technique of shading

Test Duration – 2 hours 45 minutes

Package ORION: Section 1

5 sectional UMAT test papers on UMAT section 1






Test Duration – 65 minutes

















N.B. View our products page @ http://prepgenie.com.au/umat/umat-preparat ion/

Why OMR sheets :

Take the help of OMR sheets to set the examination environment within your study room. Just set the time

on a stopwatch and start.

http://prepgenie.com.au/umat/umat-preparation/





3 CONTACT US

Need to know more? We are here to help you always.

For answers to your queries please send us an e-mail:

Technical Queries: [email protected]

Payment related issues: [email protected]

Answer key of the free FLT: [email protected]

Other Contact Information:

Phone #: +913340045925

Postal Address:

CF 30, Sector 1, Salt Lake,

Kolkata-700064,

India.

UMAT Sample Au

Documents

boy hidden inside

fo llowing statements

worlds leading cities

follo wing sentences

real scores ahead

follo wing statements

time exp lanations

speed train line