Part 66 Materials

MODULE SIX

AIRCRAFT MATERIALS -FERROUS

1. When metal is heated slightly above its critical temperature, then cooled rapidly, it iscommon that the metal will increase in;a brittlenessb hardness

*c both of the above answers are correct

2. There is a type of heat treatment that produces a hard wear-resistant surface, or case, overa strong, tough core:a normalizing

b heat tempering* c case hardening

3. Steel is tempered:* a after hardening

b before hardeningc to increase hardening

4. After a product has been manufactured and all heat treatment is carried out, the stressremaining, if any is termed;a working stress

* b residual stressc applied stress.

5. To harden steel it is:a heated and quenched

* b heated above its upper critical temperature and quenchedc applied stress

6. Annealing is to;* a soften steel for shaping by hand or machine

b avoid age hardeningc give a smooth finish

7. Strength is defined as;* a the ability to resist tensile and shear forces

b the ability to resist corrosionc the ability to resist penetration

1 Revised 26 Feb 2002

8. Cast iron is;* a heavy and brittle

b very malleablec tough

9. The critical process in heat treatment is;a method of heating onlyb temperature and method of heating only

* c temperature and rate of cooling.

10. Case hardening can be carried out on;a duralumin

* b titaniumc any non-ferrous metal

11. Normalising steels;a increases the hardness

* b relieves the stressesc increases toughness

12. Annealing steels;a hardens the metalb makes the metal brittle

* c makes the metal malleable

13. In a muffler type furnace,;* a combustion takes place outside the furnace chamber

b combustion takes place inside the furnace chamber

c metal becomes more malleable.

14. What is annealinga hardening of metal

* b softening of metal

c artificial age hardening

15. What is ‘Nitriding’* a case hardening of alloy steels

b case hardening of non ferrous metalsc softening of alloy steel

16. Chromium added to straight carbon steel;a turns it into a non-ferrous alloy

b makes the metal softer* c increases the resistance to corrosion.


17. The object of case hardening is to;*a produce a hard case over a tough core

b introduce carbon into the steelc reduce carbon in the steel.

18. The colour code on sheet metal indicates* a. only the specification of the material

b. the specification and gauge of the materialc. that the material is from an approved source

19. Stress relieving by heat treatment:a. restores the full fatigue life to 'life limited' structural components

* b. reduces residual stresses due to manufacturing processesc. reduces the hardness of heat treated materials

23. The addition of chromium to steel will produce;*aextra strength in the metal

b qualities of ductilityc great hardness.

24. When steel has a high carbon content it is:

a more elastic.

b tougher than low carbon steel.

* c more brittle than low carbon steel.

25. A material described as tough will:

* a withstand repeated blows.

b shatter after a blow.

c have a low melting temperature.

26. Steel has:

a more carbon than cast iron.

* b less carbon than cast iron.

c the same amount of carbon as cast iron.

27. An advantage of nitriding is:

* a less distortion.

b takes less time to produce a hard skin.

c produces a uniform depth of case.


28. Carbon added to steel increases its:

* a hardness

b ductility

c malleability

29. Ferrous metal is defined as:

a being non-metallic.

b metal containing little or no iron.

* c metal containing a great deal of iron.

30. Strength is defined as:

* a the ability to resist tensile and shear forces.

b the ability to resist corrosion.

c the ability to resist penetration.

32. The hardness achieved in the hardening process will depend on :

a the method of heating .

b the carbon content of the steel.

* c the carbon content and rate of cooling.

33. Normalising steels:

a increases the hardness.

* b relieves the stresses.

c increases toughness.

34. The fastest way to cool metal when heat treating is quenching it in:

* a water

b oil

c ashes

35. When tempering metal, the cooling method used is normally:

* a allowing the metal to cool in still air.

b quenching in acid.

c quenching in brine.

36. When hardening metal, the cooling method used is normally:

* a cooling rapidly.

b cooling slowly.

c not critical.


37. Steel is tempered:

* a after hardening.

b before hardening.

c to increase hardness.

38. The object of case hardening is to:

* a produce a hard case over a tough core.

b introduce Nitrogen into the steel.

c reduce carbon in the steel.

39 What gas is used in nitriding case hardening?

a oxygen.

b carbon Dioxide.

* c ammonia.

40. A magnet will:

a be attracted to aluminium.

* b not be attracted to aluminium.

c not be attracted to steel.

41. Copper sulphate will leave a red deposit when in contact with:

a stainless steel.

* b steel.

c magnesium.

42. A tensile test on a metal will:

* a pull the metal apart.

b squash the metal.

c cut the metal.

43. The Brinell test will:

a polish the metal.

b shear load the metal.

* c penetrate the metal.

44 The hardness of steel at room temperature is determined by:

a number of iron particles

b number of carbon particles

* c ratio of iron to carbon particles


AIRCRAFT MATERIALS - NON-FERROUS

1. Age hardening of aluminium is;a never carried outb not necessary

* c gradual hardening over a period of time

2. Aluminium is;* a highly resistant to corrosion

b not resistant to corrosion

c reasonably resistant to corrosion

3. Alclad is:a aluminium with duralumin cladding

b duralumin with magnesium cladding* c duralumin with aluminium coating

4. The oxide film formed on the surface of aluminium is;a porous

* b non-porousc hard and porous

5. Duralumin is;a a metallic element

* b an aluminium alloyc a ferrous alloy

6. The metal w hich must not be heated in a salt bath is;a duralumin

* b magnesium alloyc rivets made of duralumin.

7. Caustic soda applied to a metal turns black; this would indicate that the metal was:a aluminium

* b duraluminc an aluminium alloy

8. When drilling light alloy which lubricant should be useda oil

* b kerosine/paraffinc no lubricant is required


9. The British identification of the heat treatment to which an aluminium alloy item has beensubjected is shown by:a. a letter and number codeb. a number

* c. a letter

10. After solution treatment of aluminium alloy, the effect of immediate refrigeration at atemperature within the range of -15 EC to -20 EC is:

* a. to suspend natural ageing for a limited periodb. to increase the rate of artificial ageing

c. to permanently soften the metal to retard the onset of fatigue

11. Alclad materials can be heat treated:a. as many times as required

* b. 3 times onlyc. once only

12. Aluminium clad alloy sheet should not be polished with mechanical buffing w heels:a. as this will cause large static charges to build up

* b. as this may remove the aluminium coatingc. as this may remove the alloy coating

13. 3L72 indicates:a. specification and gauge

* b. specification and year of manufacturec. specification, heat treatment and year of manufacture

14. The identification marking, L72W on a sheet of aluminium alloy indicates:* a. material specification and heat treatment

b. material thickness and specificationc. material specification and fatigue strength

15. What chemical is used to identify aluminium alloys;*acaustic soda

b copper sulphatec nitric acid.

16 Pure Aluminium is;*ahighly resistant to corrosion

b not resistant to corrosionc reasonably resistant to corrosion.


17. Alclad can be identified by using;a nitric acid

*b caustic sodac selenious acid.

18. Aluminium is:a a ferrous alloy.b a non-ferrous alloy.

*c a non-ferrous element.

19. Aluminium ore is called:a ferrous oxide.b malachite.

*c bauxite.

20. The electrodes in an aluminium furnace are made from:*a carbon.

b alumina.c copper.

21. Duralumin is an aluminium alloy that has:a more carbon than steel.

*b similar tensile properties to steel.c is softer than raw aluminium.

22. Why is raw aluminium seldom used?a It is too brittle.b It is too expensive.

*c It is too soft.

23. Where is heat treatment of aluminium carried out?*a In a salt bath.

b In a furnace.

c In an oven.

24. A heated solution of potassium and sodium nitrates are used to:a identify aluminium.

*b heat treat aluminium.c cold work aluminium.

25. Why is it necessary to remove any salt deposits on aluminium?a To prevent further hardening.

*b To prevent corrosion.c To recycle the salt deposits.


26. What temperature does pure aluminium melt at? *a 660EC

b 1200ECc 660EF

27. What process softens aluminium after cold working? *a Annealing.

b Quenching.c Precipitation treatment.

28. Precipitation treatment:a softens aluminium after working.

*b speeds up age hardening.c cleans salt from aluminum.

29. Solution treatment is carried out:a before annealing.b after annealing.

*c instead of annealing

30. Caustic soda on duralumin will:a turn white.

*b turn black.c turn red.

31. Caustic soda on aluminum w ill: *a turn white.

b turn black.

c turn red.

AIRCRAFT MATERIALS - COMPOSITE AND NON-METALLIC

1. Aircraft fabrics are woven from spun yarns or threads known as warp and weft threads,the warp threads:a run crosswise from left to right

*b run lengthwise

c run diagonally from corner to corner

2. When inspecting metal bonded honeycomb structure, delamination damage can bedetected:a by use of straightforward radiography (x-ray)

*b by bouncing or tapping a medium weight coin on the surfacec by electrical conductivity measurements


3. When carrying out a fibreglass repair, if a backing support is used, it should be faced w ith:a paper

*b cellophanec glass fibre cloth

4. To prevent the repair sticking to the support plate, when carrying out a fibre glass repair: *a cellophane sheet is used

b paper sheet is usedc fibre glass is used

5. Nylon is used for bagging because:* a it has high tensile strength

b it is porousc it is resistant to temperature

6. Nomex is:a aluminium foilb glass fibre honeycomb

* c aramid honeycomb

7. In an epoxy resin mix, the ratio of resin to hardener is 100:45 How much hardener wouldbe required to cure a resin of 60g?a 133g

*b 27g

c 186g

8. When repairing damaged honeycomb structure the core is removed using:a a wood chisel

b an abrasive wheel *c a router

9. Micro-balloons as used in composite repairs are:a cheaper than normal agents

*b lighter than normal agentsc used to give better bonding with the resin than normal agents

10. How is the air extracted from between the laminates when using an autoclave?a by pressure

* b by vacuumc by rolling

11. When applied to aircraft structures, a hot bond is the name given to:a a blind rivetted jointb a machined rivetted joint

*c a resin sealed joint


12. When carrying out a fibre glass repair, the direction of the fibres in each layer must belayed:a in the same direction layer upon layerb outer layer facing one way and the inner layer the same way

*c each layer is layed in a different direction to the next layer

13. Why are micro-balloons mixed with the resin when carrying out composite repairs? *a to keep the repair as light as possible

b because they are cheaper than other additivesc because they interlock with the fibres of the composite

14. Before inspecting damage to an aramid composite panel, how is the surface finishremoved?a with paint stripper

*b with wet and dry in a circular motionc mechanically by vacuum sandblasting

15. After using an epoxy resin compound, what is used to put oil back into your skin?a acetone/lanolin mixture

*b refatting creamc resin removing compound

16. What do you refer to when carrying out repairs to a composite panel?a aircraft maintenance manual

b CAIP *c aircraft structural repair manual

17. What is separation of the layers in an aramid panel called? *a delamination

b debondingc detachment

18. When applying flame spray treatment of Kevlar, how is the depth and thicknessmeasured?

*a by ultrasonicb by X-rayc by eddy current

19. Which composite material must be shielded from sunlight?a glass fibreb carbon fibre

*c Kevlar


20. Thermosetting plastics: *a harden with temperature and cannot be reworked

b can be reworked with temperaturec can be reworked provided the original mould is used

21. When mixing resins: *a do not add resin to accelerator

b do not add catalyst to resinc do not add accelerator to catalyst

22. How can you measure the thickness of flame spraying? *a ultra-sonic

b x-rayc dye penetrant

23. If you add a catalyst to a cold cure poly-ester resina it would cause a weak composite structureb it would cause a strong composite structure

*c it would decrease the pot life

24. Defusion bonding of dissimilar metallic materials is particularly suited for joints needinga low strength with low toughnessb high strength with high toughness

*c high strength with stiffness

25. Carbon fibre composite panels are bonded bya inter woven cables /wires within the composite

*b flame spraying

c bonding leads

26. Adding too much accelerator to a composite mix willa have no effect on its strengthb increase the mix strength

*c decrease the mix strength

27. What material is used for cargo bay linersa Nomex

*b resin reinforced fibre glassc Kevlar

28. What are the two common types of fiberglass used in aircraft construction *a ‘E’ glass & ‘S’ glass

b ‘E’ glass & ‘P’ glassc ‘M’ glass & ‘S’ glass


29. What characteristics does ‘Kevlar’ possessa excellent compression strength and flexibilityb excellent shear strength and flexibility

* c excellent tensile strength and flexibility

30. Which statement is correct *a carbon/graphite is stronger in compressive strength than ‘Kevlar’, however, it is more

brittleb carbon/graphite is weaker in compressive strength than ‘Kevlar’, but it is not as brittlec carbon/graphite is stronger in tensile strength than ‘K evlar’, however, it is more brittle

31. When carbon/graphite panels are in contact with aluminium structurea it must be attached with corrosion resistance boltsb it must be attached with two part epoxy corrosion resistance resin

*c there must be a layer of fibreglass between carbon and aluminium

32. With regard to composite fibre fabric the ‘bias’ is *a at 45° to the angle of the warp

b the edge of the material

c the force which apposes the bending moment of the weft

33. Unidirectional fabrica has both warp and weft threads

*b warp threads only

c weft threads only

34. Fibreglass mats area chopped fibres that are compressed together and are ideal for repairs

*b chopped fibres that are compressed together and are unsuitable for repairsc chopped fibres that are compressed together and because of the random sequence of the

fibres are ideal for load carrying structure

35. The main advantages of composite materials area they are lighter than alloys

*b they have a good weight to strength ratioc they are stronger and weigh considerably less than alloys and are inexpensive, available

and easy to mould

36. Thermoplastic resins *a can be re-moulded after heating

b cannot be re-moulded after heatingc are always used in the wet lay up process


37. It is important to mix the resin system correctly this should be done bya volume by weight and as quickly as possible

*b volume by weight and the mixing process should take between 3 to 5 minutesc volume by quantity and mixing should be as slow as possible

38. If a resin is removed from a refrigerator *a It should be allowed to warm up before mixing, as cold resin will be heavier than the

same amount at room temperatureb it should be allowed to warm up before mixing, as cold resin will be lighter than the

same amount at room temperature

c it can be mixed straight from the refrigerator as temperature does not matter

39. What type of container should the resin system be mixed ina a wax coated container

*b a wax free containerc the special container supplied by the resin manufacture

40. What does the term ‘pot life’ refer toa the amount of time the resin can be stared in the pot

*b the amount of time you have to work with the resinc the amount of time it takes for the resin to cure

41. With advance composites ‘Resin Rich’ refers to*a a weak structure which is brittle and has extra weight

b the extra resin that is required when using pre-preg materialc any fabric material which has been coated in resin

42. With advance composites ‘Resin Starved’ refers to*a where not enough resin was used, causing the part to be weak because the matrix cannot

transfer the stresses to the fibresb where not enough resin was used, causing the part to be weak because the matrix

transfers sheer loads onto the fibres materialc this is the desired state of the fibre material during lay-up as all excess resin must be

removed

43. The correct amount of resin ratio is important to get the desired strength In advance

composite 50/50 ratio is good, however,*a a 60/40 fibre to resin ratio is better as the fibres gives you the strength not the resin

b a 40/60 resin to fibre is better as the resin gives you the strength not the fibrec a 60/40 fibre to resin ratio is better as the resin gives you the strength not the fibre


44. When a filler agent is added to a resin system as a thixotropic agenta it must be added to the resin systems as a percentage of the hardenerb it must be added to the resin systems as a percentage of the catalyst

*c it must be added to the resin systems that have already been properly weighed and mixedtogether

45. Microballoons are added to a resin system toa add strength to matrix and reduce weightb act as a thixotropic agent and increase strength

*c act as a thixotropic agent

46. If a hole is accidentally drilled in the wrong placea the component must be discardedb the hole should be filled with resin

*c the hole may be filled with flox and resin

47. How could you find the ribbon direction in a honeycomb core material*a by tearing along one side of the honeycomb, the direction of tear is parallel to the

direction of the ribbon

b it is marked with a thin dotted linec by making a direct reference to the manufactures specifications

48. When carrying out a repair to honeycomb structure the core material should*a be joined to the repair with a foam adhesive and the ribbon direction aligned with the

original lay patternb cut 15 mm undersize of the cutout, and secured in place with a two part epoxy resin and

the ribbon direction aligned with the original lay patternc trimmed to the correct size with a sharp kraft knife, joined to the original structure with

potting compound and the ribbon direction 90° to the original lay

49. What is the correct adhesive to use with ‘Styrofoam’a polyester resin

*b epoxy resin

c bostick 328

50. What is ‘Tedlar’*a a plastic coating which acts serves as an additional moisture barrier

b the trade name for a special paint which contains aluminium partialsc honeycomb core material

51. What type of paint is used to protect composite structurea only paint with an anti-pigmentation agent

*b same paint as used on aluminium structurec the manufactures of the composite material always provide a paint product to suit their

material


52. How is composite structure electrically bondeda electrical bonding is not required as all composites are conductorsb ferrous based paint is flame sprayed onto composite components

*c aluminium wires or a fine aluminium screen is woven under the top layer somecompanies just paint structure with aluminised paint

53. How are graphite/carbon components electrically bondeda same method as aramid components

*b a barrier agent must be used between conductive material and the carbon structurec aluminium wires or a fine aluminium screen is woven under the top layer some

companies just paint structure with aluminised paint

54. What is a Gel Coat*a an outer coat of polyester resin which provides a smooth finish

b an outer coat of epoxy resin which provides a smooth finishc this method is never used in the construction of aircraft components as it does not

provide any structural strength

55. During an inspection of composite components the ‘gel coat’ is found to be cracked whataction is requireda it must be filled with epoxy resin and sanded to aerodynamic smoothness

*b no action is required providing the fibre themselves are not crackedc the crack must be injected with polyester resin to restored the structural strength

56. Where can you find the information with regards to personal safety for working withcomposite materialsa safety precautions are always printed on resin container and must be followed implicitlyb COSHH will give all relevant information regarding personal safety

*c Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for the material you are working with, containsinformation on health precautions, flammability, and ventilation etc

57. What is a caul plate*a used on flat composite repairs to ensure a smooth finish

b used on contoured composite repairs to ensure the correct shapec used as a backing plate to ensure the repair stays in position

58. During a composite repair how are the outer plies removed*a with mechanical sanding to scarf an angle to reveal ½ inch on each lower ply

b with a sharp skin knife to reveal one inch of lower pliesc with a router making vertical sides to the cutout

59. What is the maximum acceptable pressure drop from a vacuum bag during a repair*a 5 inches of mercury 2·5 psi or 0·2 bar in five minutes

b 75 inches of mercury 4 psi or 0·4 bar in ten minutesc 75 inches of mercury 4 psi or 0·4 bar in five minutes


60. When drilling aramid composites the hole may appear to be ‘fuzzy’:a extending fibres should be removed with a rotary file

*b quick curing epoxy resin should be applied to the fuzzy area and filed smooth aftercuring

c if a fastener is being fitted through the hole the fuzziness can be left untreated as the

fastener will seal it

61. Nomex and other aramid honeycombs should :a cut to size and used immediately after they have been removed from storage as they are

hygroscopic and may absorb moisture

*b be dried out at a temperature 40°c (104°F) for sixteen hours prior to usec there is no prerequisite requirement prior to us

62. How much should a heat mat overlap surrounding structure when carrying out acomposite repair requiring heat to allow matrix to cure?

* a 2 inchesb 3 inchesc 4 inches

63. Where should the vacuum gauge be placed in a vacuum baga next to the vacuum hoseb next to the repair material

*c at the opposite side to the vacuum hose

64. What grade of ‘Kevlar’ is use on aircrafta 129

*b 49c 29

65. The accelerator in a matrix resin should*a be added to the resin

b be added to the catalystc be added to the accelerator

66. When drilling aramid composites fuzzy holes can be avoided bya using a high speed and high feed rate

*b using a brad point drill

c using a pilot drill

67. When drilling aramid composites fuzzy holes can be avoided bya using a high speed and high feed rate

*b using a high speed and low feed rate

c using a pilot drill


68. The ‘time out’ of the pre-preg material isa exposure time required during the curing process

*b the time for which the pre-preg can safely be kept at room temperaturec the maximum storage time prior to use

69. A ring test is used ina sheet metal work

*b composite material workc on precision measuring equipment

70. If a composite material is found to be damaged, with no apparent damage to the core, itcan be repaired by:a plug patch

*b surface plate

c rivetting

71. Dis-bonding of a composite material can be detected by*a an acoustic test

b X-rays

c eddy currents

72. Sandwich material of composite structures are mainly used for :a non-critical surfacesb load bearing members

*c flight control surfaces

73. Improved strength characteristics of composite materials as a result of adding micro

spheres is due to:*a the thixotropic nature of the microsphere

b density of microspherec uniform shrinkage during the curing process

74. When drilling a composite material it should be carried out ata low speedb medium speed

*c high speed

75. How can water be detected in composite material*a with use of a ohmmeter which would indicate continuity if water was present

b if moisture is present the gel coat will be dis-colouredc composite materials are impervious to moisture


76. Between what temperature range should polyester resins be used*a 65° f to 85° f

b 42° f to 87° fc 56° f to 85° f

77. Where should the vacuum gauge be placed in a vacuum baga next to the vacuum hoseb next to the repair material

*c at the opposite side to the vacuum hose

78. The accelerator in a matrix resin should*a be added to the resin

b be added to the catalystc be added to the accelerator

79 What type of resin is use in conjunction w ith Styrofoama polyester resin

*b epoxy resinc double bond

80 What is the normal method of cutting Styrofoama with a sharp Stanley Knifeb with a fine hack saw

*c with a hot wire cutter

81 What is the normal method of cutting Urethane*a with a sharp Stanley Knife, than sanded to shape

b with a fine hack saw

c with a hot wire cutter

82 Why can’t Urethane be cut with a hot wire cuttera it is inflammable, and would ignite

*b hazardous gas is created when urethane is subjected to heat

c the edges would bubble which would make it unsuitable for aircraft work

83 During vacuum bagging what would be regarded as a good vacuum pressure*a 28 Hg at sea level

b 32 Hg at sea levelc 14.7 Hg at seal level

84 A vacuum bagging repair is being carried out in a repair facility with a field elevation of

6000 ft* a the pressure on the repair will be less than a repair carried out at sea level

b the pressure on the repair will be more than a repair carried out at sea levelc the pressure on the repair will be the same as a repair carried out at sea level


85 A repair is being carried out on penetration damage and both surfaces are damaged:a both surfaces are vacuum bagged at the same time

*b while carrying out the first repair, the opposite side must be sealed with baggingmaterial before commencing the vacuum bagging operation

c a coat of double bond is applied to one side of the penetration before commencing the

vacuum bagging operation, this will prevent air being drawn through the repair

86 The sealant tape used to seal the bagging material should be:a applied in a circle

*b applied in straight lines overlapping at the corners

c applied in straight lines curved at the corners

87 If a heat blanket is used during the bagging process, the thermocouple wires should placeda to one side of the heat blanket

b on top of the heat blanket*c under the heat blanket

88 Bagging film is*a hydrophilic

b hydroponicc hygroscopic

89 Bagging film is stored enclosed in a plastic wrap this is to:*a stop the water content escaping (which would make the bagging material brittle)

b stop the bagging film from absorbing moisture in humid conditionsc stop it sticking together, which would make if difficult to unroll.

90 On completion of a repair the lower layer (peel ply) is removed, the top surface of therepair is slightly rough in appearance, this should be:a sanded with 400 grit to leave a smooth finishb sanded with 250 grit to leave a smooth finish

*c it is permitted to leave in the rough condition as this allows the paint to adhere

91 What is the purpose of the bleeder layer as used during the bagging process:*a to absorb excess resin

b to allow excess moisture to escapec to allow vacuum pressure to bear down on the repair

92 Insulation plies are sometime used during the bagging process*a over the heat blanket to minimise heat loss during the curing process

b under the heat blanket to minimise heat loss during the curing processc to encapsulate the whole repair to minimise heat loss


93. To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be:*a sprayed with aluminium paint

b sprayed with ferrous paintc sprayed with polyurethane paint

94. What type of resin is use in conjunction w ith Styrofoama polyester resin

*b epoxy resinc double bond

95. What is the normal method of cutting Styrofoama with a sharp Stanley Knifeb with a fine hack saw

*c with a hot wire cutter

96. What is the normal method of cutting Urethane*a with a sharp Stanley Knife, then sanded to shape

b with a fine hack sawc with a hot wire cutter

97. Why can’t Urethane be cut with a hot wire cuttera it is inflammable, and would ignite

*b hazardous gas is created when urethane is subjected to heatc the edges would bubble which would make it unsuitable for aircraft work

98. During vacuum bagging what would be regarded as a good vacuum pressure*a 28 Hg at sea level

b 32 Hg at sea level

c 14.7 Hg at seal level

99. A natural material with good heat resisting properties is:

a wood.

* b asbestos.

c wool.

100. Asbestos must be handled using special safety precautions because:

* a the fibres are dangerous if breathed in.

b the asbestos is poison if swallowed.

c asbestos can be very hot.

101. A Cermet is:

a a low melting point metal.

b a type of jet engine part.

* c a high melting point ceramic.


102. A thermosetting material is a material that:

a once set can return to its former state using heat.

* b once set can not return to its former state.

c once set resists corrosion.

103. An example of a thermosetting material is:

* a ceramics.

b metals.

c perspex.

104. A plastic that can be re-moulded is called:

* a thermo plastic.

b thermo setting.

c thermo rigid

105. A material that can withstand temperatures in excess of 2000 EC is:

a thermo setting plastic.

b P.T.F.E.

* c ceramic.

106. A disadvantage of a ceramic is:

a a high melting point.

b hardness.

* c brittleness.

107. Expanded honeycomb structure:*a bends with the web

b

c

108. Which composite material has the greater stiffness?a Kevlar

*b carbon fibre

c G.F.R.P.

109. On a Kevlar structure, electrical charge is dissipated using:a aluminium wire woven into the fabric

*b a layer of aluminium or copper sprayed onto the surfacec


110. Resin and hardener are mixed to a ratio of 3:1 respectively, therefore 9 grams of hardenerwould require:a 3 grams of resinb 6 grams of resin

*c 27 grams of resin

111 A composite solid joint is:a cement and mechanicalb specific and mechanicalc

112 Thermo-plastic resins are usually supplied:a alkaline etchedb solvent wiped

c

113 The vacuum bag on a composite repair should:a overlap the breather fabricb overlap the release film

c

114 When carrying out a composite repair the order of mixing is:a Accelerator, catalyst, resinb catalyst, resin, accelerator

*c resin, catalyst, accelerator

CORROSION

1. Corrosion is;*a electro-chemical action

b electro-mechanical actionc hydro-electro action.

2. Corrosion on copper alloy can be recognised by a;a white depositb black deposit

*c blue/green colour.

3. Exfoliation corrosion is sometimes referred to as;*a layer corrosion

b sub-surface corrosionc filiform corrosion.


4. After welding, stainless steel is susceptible to corrosion known as;*a weld decay

b weld rotc weld deterioration.

5. Anodising is a form of;*a artificial passivation

b sacrificial protectionc metallic coating.

6. When dissimilar metals are brought together or the same metal in different stages, onemetal forms the anode and the other the cathode. Which one will suffer from corrosion?a the cathodeb both will corrode equally

*c the anode.

7. What would oily deposits around a fastener indicatea galvanic corrosionb intergranular corrosion

*c fretting corrosion

8. A small black oily stain originating from under the head of a rivet in light alloy structure,

may be indicative of:a. dissimilar metal corrosion

* b. fretting corrosionc. hydraulic oil leakage

9. Corrosion may be identified on a magnesium alloy component:a. by a red powder, accompanied by blisteringb. by a green powder, accompanied by pitting

* c. by a grey powder, accompanied by pitting

10. Mercury attack on aluminium alloys can be recognised visually by:* a. a greyish powder, fuzzy deposits, or whiskery growth

b. a yellowish stain or coatingc. a black stain turning to a reddish powder

11. Fretting corrosion of steel parts may be detected:a. by rust on the surface of the componentb. by cracking of the component due to expansion of the corrosion

* c. by a deposit of dark coloured powder in the vicinity of a join


12. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralising is carried out:* a. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate

b. by washing with distilled waterc. by applying a coating of Vaseline

13 A smoke black substance found on a metal component may be:a inter-crystalline corrosionb galvanic action

*c fretting corrosion

14. What is the indication of fretting corrosion on aluminium alloy;*a black powder

b brown powderc white powder.

15. How does filiform corrosion appear on aluminium alloy;*a worm casts

b flakinessc cocoa.

16. Which is the following correct statement;a all corrosion is a chemical actionb selenious acid is used for the re-protection of aluminium alloy

*c the chemical test for bronze is nitric acid which produces a white precipitate.

17. Which type of atmospheres will encourage the highest rates of corrosion?a temperate, Suburban.

* b tropical, Industrial, Marine.

c arctic, Rural, Inland.

18. What happens when corrosion occurs?a the metal returns to its original state.

b the metal changes to another metal.c the material goes red.

19. Surface corrosion on steel will appear as:a blue green deposit.b white deposit.

* c red brown deposit.

20. Fine hair line cracks on a piece of metal may indicate:*a intergranular corrosion.

b filiform corrosion.c exfoliation corrosion.


21. What is corrosion between tw o different types of metals called?a filiform Corrosion.

*b electrolytic Corrosion.c steel Corrosion.

22. How can fretting corrosion be detected on the surface of an aluminium alloy?*a by a black powder deposit.

b by a red deposit.c by a microscope.

23. How can fretting corrosion be prevented?*a components should be correctly mounted.

b all components should be dry.c components should never touch.

24. Where would stress corrosion take place?*a in minute cracks at stress points.

b on the surface of stressed parts.c intergranular stress relief.

25. Sulphur can corrode metal very quickly and can be found in:*a exhaust gasses.

b brake components.c toilet areas.

26. What is the cause of Micro Biological Corrosion?*a fungal growth in fuel tanks.

b biological contamination of the skin.

c bacterial growth in water tanks.

27. Corrosion that spreads in thin layers and lifts the surface of the metal is called:a filiform Corrosion.b laminated Corrosion.

*c exfoliation Corrosion.

28. White lines that appear like worm casts is evidence of which type of corrosion?a dissimilar metal corrosion.

*b filiform corrosion.c crevice corrosion.


FASTENERS1. How is a 5% magnesium alloy rivet identified

a green in colour and the letter M on the head or shank*b green in colour and the letter X on the head or shank

c natural in colour with the letter M on head or shank

2. What is the tangential approach when wire locking*a 90°

b 45°c 120°

3. A tandard taper on a taper pin is*a 1 in 48

b 1 in 20

c 1 in 600

4. What is the pitch of a screw thread*a the distance between the centre of one crests to the centre of the next

b the distance between the roots of adjacent threads

c the distance travelled by a nut during one revolution

5. How many times can a rivet be heat treateda2b4

* c3

6. Hi-loc fasteners are in safety when:a the hexagonal head has sheared off

*b there are at least one thread protruding from the top of the locking collarc the collar is free to rotate

7. The major diameter of a screw thread is;a the diameter taken across the roots

b the diameter taken across the crests of an internal thread*c the diameter taken across the crests of an external thread.

8. When comparing a 3/8 in. BSW and a 3/8 in. BSF thread;a the BSW will have a larger minor diameter than the BSFb the BSF will have a smaller minor diameter than the BSW

*c the BSW will have a smaller minor diameter than the BSF.

9. Multi start threads;*a increase the lead without increasing the pitch

b increase the lead and pitchc increase the pitch without increasing the lead.


10. B.A. threads are used in;a heavy engineeringb american aero engines

*c instruments and electrical equipment.

11. The thread angle of a BSW and BSF thread is;a 47.5º

*b 55ºc 60º

12. UNF means;*a Unified Fine

b United Nations Finec Union National Fine.

13. Shouldered studs are used;a to provide a strong anchorage in soft metalb to save weight without loss of strength

*c where maximum rigidity is required.

14. Studs which have a size larger thread at one end are called;a shouldered studsb plain studs

*c stepped studs.

15. The tools used to restore a damaged thread are;a plain nut with spanner

*b die nut with spanner

c cap nut with ½ in. tap wrench.

16. To aid marking out, the surface of steel components may be treated with:a. sal ammoniac

* b. copper sulphate solution

c. graphite grease

17. Apart from length, how is a taper pin classified:* a. diameter of the small end

b. diameter of the middle portionc. diameter of the large end

18. The standard taper as used for a taper pin is:a. 1 in 20b. 1 in 38

* c. 1 in 48


19. When fitting a hi-lock fastener, the lubrication used would be:a. as specified in the maintenance manual

* b. none as it is pre-lubricatingc. as specified on the repair drawing

20. 31J on the head of a bolt indicates:a. 3/8 dia. bolt 3.1" overall lengthb. 5/16 dia. bolt 3.7/8" overall length

* c. 3/8 dia. bolt 3.1 plain portion

21. A UNJF thread is a unified thread:* a. of high fatigue resisting properties

b. for joint application (Military and Civil)c. for jet engine use only

22. How is a close tolerance bolt identified:* a. by a raised disc ring

b. by "SS" on the headc. by a machined ring under the head

23. The word "MOD" after the designation of a unified thread would specify a thread which:* a. is for use in high temperature zones

b. is a fatigue resisting threadc. is for use in shear applications only

24. A self locking nut provides its locking by:a. different rates of expansion of the bolt and nutb. needing more torque loading than a plain nut

* c. deformation of the "out of pitch" of the nut

25. Cap nuts:* a. seal the threads on which they are fitted against leakage

b prevent over-tightening of the nut by restricting the amount of thread which may

protrude through the nutc. indicate correct torque loading of the nut by movement of the cap

26. Stiffnuts incorporating non-metallic friction elements should not be used:a. where torque loading is to be applied to the nut

* b. on structure exposed to excessive heatc. unless stainless steel split pins are called for

27. Stiff nuts w hich secure control system adjusters:* a. should have at least one thread projecting through the nut

b. should always be fitted so that the male threaded part is flush with the top of the nutc. should be fitted with the locking device adjacent to the component


28. Peening:a. should be used with stiffnuts to give positive locking

* b. should only be used when specified on a drawingc. should be used whenever a thread projects through a nut

29. A spring washer can be used:* a. repeatedly provided there is sufficient springiness

b. only oncec. repeatedly provided the torque loading is correct

30. The correct size spanner for use on a 5/16" unified threaded hexagon headed bolt is:a 5/16" A/Fb 1/4" A/Fc 1/2" A/F

31 When inserting ‘HELICOIL’ insert, which w ay does the TANG face*atowards the hole

b away from the holec towards the mandril

32. What tap do you use when fitting a Helicoil inserta a tap of the original thread sizeb a tap the next size up of the original thread size

*c the tap supplied with the Helicoil kit

33. When a torque loading is specified for a castellated or slotted nut on an undrilled bolt:a. the bolt should be pre-drilled, and the torque increased if necessary to allow the split pin

to be fitted

*b the torque should be applied and the bolt suitably drilled for the split pinc the bolt should be pre-drilled, the torque applied and the nut eased back, if necessary,

to allow the split pin to be fitted

34 The angle between starts on a double start thread is:a 120Eb 90E

*c 180E

35 A steel stud which has broken off below the surface should be removed:a using a stud box

*b by selecting a stud extractor for the task, and drilling a suitable size hole in the centreof the stud

c by cutting a slot across the broken stud and using a screwdriver to extract the stud


36 The threads on a stud:a are of opposite hand at each end of the plain portionb are continuous throughout its length and there is no

plain portion*c are of the same hand at each end of the plain portion

37 On the drawing shown the bolts used area both left hand threads

*b both right hand threadsc one left hand and one right hand thread

39. Buttress threads are used;a to transmit power in both directions

*b to transmit power in one directionc on nuts and bolts.

40. Studs which have a size larger thread at one end are called;*a stepped studs

b plain studsc shouldered studs.

41. A spring washer when used on an aluminium component must be used;a by itselfb with a tab washer

*c with a plain washer.

42. Nickel alloy steel split pins can be used;a repeatedly provided they remain a good fit

*b only once, because the legs are spread and bent

c with a spring washer and stiff nut.

43 How are UNF bolts identified;a UNF stamped on the headb Nicks around the edge of the head

*c A series of rings on the head.

44 What does an embossed ring on the head of a bolt indicate;a low tensile steel

*b high tensile steel, cold forgedc high tensile steel, machined.

45 What is the lead on a multi start thread;a pitch x lead

*b pitch x startsc pitch x thread angle.


46 What does 18N and contiguous circles on the head of a bolt indicate;a 1.8 nominal length ½ BSF.

*b 1.8 plain shank, ½ UNFc 1.8 threaded portion and plain shank, ½ UNF.

47 The crest of a thread is;a the tip of an external thread and the bottom of an internal threadb the bottom of an external thread and the tip of an internal thread

*c the tip of the thread whether it is internal or external.

48 The lead of a thread is;a the same as the pitch

*b the linear distance moved by a nut when turned through one revolution on a boltc the same as the start.

49 A coarse thread will have;a more threads per inch than a fine thread

*b less threads per inch than a fine threadc the same number of threads per inch as a fine thread.

50 Taper taps are used first to cut a screw thread because;*a it is easier to start cutting the thread

b it has a smaller thread anglec it is stronger than a plug tap.

51 It is necessary to cut the internal thread of a threaded pair first because;a the tap is adjustable

*b the die can be adjusted to cut the external thread to the correct depth

c the die cannot be adjusted.

52 The abbreviation A/F means; aluminiuma American Fineb Associated Fine

*c Across Flats.

53 When is a locking plate used as a locking device in preference to a tab washer;*a When the nut is removed frequently

b When the nut is removed infrequentlyc When the nut is removed from an inaccessible place.

54 On the drawing shown the bolts used are*a both left hand threads

b both right hand threadsc one left hand and one right hand thread


55 An AN -12bolt is:a 1 inch longb 1¼ inches longc 1½ inches long

RIVETS

1. The heat treatment carried out to light alloy rivets, before fitment, is known as:a. annealing

b. precipitation* c. solution treatment

2. How is a 5% magnesium alloy rivet identified:

a. by a green anodic coating and a letter "M"* b. by a green anodic coating and a letter "X"

c. by a violet anodic coating and a letter "S"

3. A dural rivet is identified by:a. natural colour and a letter "S"

* b. natural colour and a letter "D"c. anodic coating and a letter "X"

4 An aluminium alloy, snap head rivet, violet anodic finish with the identification “O” hasa material specification;a L37b L16

*c L86.

5 The anodized coating on a rivet:a allows better paint adhesionb reduces case hardening stressc

6 A joggle in a rivet indicatesa shear failureb torsion failure

c compression failure

7. The rivet allow ance to form a snap tail w ould be:a 3xD

b 1.5Dc .75D


PIPES AND UNIONS

1. A marker number on a pipe indicates:a. the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipeb. the thickness of the wall of the pipe

* c. the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run

2 Pipe damage on the heel of a bend is:a not allowedb **** 5%

c **** 10%

SPRINGS

1. Springs are manufactured from:a high carbon alloy steel with low strength requirementsb low carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements

*c high carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements

2. Springs are usually*a made from high carbon steel and have high working stresses

b made from high carbon steel and have low working stressesc made from low carbon steel and have high working stresses

4 Springs are usually made from*a made from high carbon steel

b made from alloy sprung steelc made from copper based sprung steel

BEARINGS

1. What loads can spherical bearings takea thrust only

b radial only*c high radial and small angular

2. What is brinnelling on a bearinga pitting

*b shallow spherical depressionsc scoring

3 A tapered roller bearing takes:a thrust loadsb journal loads

*c thrust and journal loads


4 A spherical roller bearing will accept:a loadings in an axial direction only

*b a minor degree of misalignment between opposite bearingsc loadings in a radial direction only

5 When inspecting an installed one dot ball bearing for rust spots and ingress of foreignmatter, the bearing should be:

*a oscillated and turned slowly to determine roughnessb spun at operational speed to determine roughnessc ultrasonic techniques must always be used

6 A needle roller bearing is used where the loading is:a a combination of axial and radialb axial only

*c radial only

7 Tufnol bearings used in various systems, are normally:a lightly lubricatedb not lubricated

c pre-packed

8 What type of bearings does a hardy-spicer connector have:

a roller bearingsb needle roller bearingsc

TRANSMISSIONS

1. A small cog has 20 teeth the adjoining cog has 120 teeth, for one revolution of the small cog

what degree w ill the large one turn:a. 45°

* b. 60°c. 90°

2 On a bevel geara the small gear is the heelb the small gear is the toec the small gear is the foot

3 Gear teeth are:*acase hardened

b hardened all the way throughc


4 Gear pattern is the:a shape of the gearb pattern left by the engineer’s blue

*c layout of the gear assembly

5 With intermeshing gears the correct contact area is:a the tipb the mid sectionc bottom of the gear

6 Epicyclic gears are used to:*a increase or reduce the rpm on a common shaft

bc

7 What type of gear would normally be used to reduce the rpm of a propellor drive shaft?*a bevel or spur epicyclic

bc

CONTROL CABLES1. How would you inspect a chain for articulation

a proof loading*b passing over one finger

c measuring

2. When should you proof load a cablea Every time the cable is inspected

*b Only on manufacturec Only required if a portion on an assembly has been replaced

3. When should you proof load a control cablea every time the cable is inspected

*b only after swaging or splicingc every 4 years

4. An endless chain can be identified by*a odd numbered links

b even numbered linksc could be both as above

5 American type flying control cables are designated:a by their minimum breaking load in hundred weights

*b by their diameter and minimum breaking load in poundsc by the number of strands and minimum breaking load in hundred weights


6 The formula used w hen checking the elongation of a chain, where:M= Measured length under loads in inchesX= Number of pitches measuredP= Pitch of chain in inches is:

a M + (X x P) x 100X x P

b M - (X - P) x 100X x P

*c M - (X x P) x 100

X x P

7 Pulleys employed in a control cable system would be manufactured froma stainless steel

*b composite materialc high tensile steel

ELECTRICAL CABLES AND CONNECTORS

1. On an electrical plug type connector the pin numbering when viewed end ona rotates clockwise from the centre out

*b rotates anti-clockwise from the centre outc rotates clockwise from the centre in

2. What temperature can ‘Nyvin’ cable stand*a up to 140°c

b up to 200°cc up to 400

3. A thermo-couple can bea cut to length as requiredb can not be cut as it has a set capacitance

*c should not be cut

4. The pins in a front release connector area released from behind

*b released from the front

c released from the side

5. What temperature range should tinned copper cable connectors be used in*a up to 135°C

b up to 200°C

c up to 400°C


6. What is a HT cablea multi core single strandb multi strand single core

*c both of above

7. What is w et arc tracking*a when cables are contaminated due to moisture which causes arcing

b water ingress in an electric motorc tracking in a fuel tank

8. How can w et arc tracking be avoideda by not doing up ‘p’ clips too tight

*b avoiding ‘hot stamp printing’ as this could cause insulation damagec by protecting cables with water proof insulation

9. Electronic instrument w ires are:*a not usually insulated

b always insulatedc

10 An ‘X’ on an electrical wire indicates*a a.c. use only

b a.c. and dc usec d.c. use only

11. Has a 14 AWG cable a higher rating than an 18 AWG cable*a yes

b noc they are the same

12. The maximum load carrying capacity of an 18 AWG copper conductor:a 7.5 ampsb 5.0 amps

*c 10 amps

13 During a fire, ‘fire resistant cables’ should maintain electrical insulation for a period of:a 10 mins

*b 5 mins

c 15 mins

14 Conductor ‘knuckling through’ is caused by:*a excessive tension when cables are being pulled through

b excessive flux residue

c hot stamp printing


15. The maximum temperature rating for tin coated copper cable is:a 200°cb 260°c

*c 135°c

16. What is the effect of aluminium oxide on electrical cables?a none

*b increases the resistancec reduces the resistance

17 What is the advantage of co-axial cable over normal cable*a it is shielded from interferance

b no corrosion on the inner corec less internal impedance

18 When is a hydraulic crimping action complete?a when pressure is releasedb when the tool will not close any further

*c when the by-pass valve opens

19 Co-axial cable has:*a a single conductor

b a pair of conductors twisted togetherc two or more conductors

20 An HT lead is:*a single core, screened

b multi-core, screened

c 3 strand screened

21. Equipment wire is:*a flexible and suitable for soldering

b suitable for interconnect cables

c

22 When should a hydraulic crimping tool be checked for fluid level?*a Before use checking it horizontally

bc

23 On an electrical cable, what does the fourth digit in from the left indicate?*a cable segment letter

b cable numberc cable segment letter


24 Interconnect cable has what thickness of insulation?a same as normal cable

*b thinner than normal cablec thicker than normal cable

25 Co-axial cable is preferred to airframe cable in which applications?a high frequency interference

*b less space requiredc

23 On an electrical cable, what does the fifth digit in from the left indicate?a cable segment letter

*b cable numberc cable segment letter

24 On an electrical cable, what does the fourth digit in from the left indicate?a circuit designation letter

*b cable segment letterc cable number

25 What is the maximum value of secondary bondinga 0.05 ohmsb 0.5 ohms

*c 1.0 ohms

26 what is the maximum value of primary bonding?*a 0.05 ohms

b 0.5 ohms

c 1.0 ohms

27 The 6ft / 60ft leads on a bonding tester:*a must stay with the bonding tester and should be sent back to the manufacturer if

damaged

b may be shortened if damagedc new leads may be manufactured locally provided that they are of the same material

28 What is this device*a voltage divider (potentiometer)

b fixed resisterc variable resister (rheostat

29 What is this devicea voltage divider (potentiometer)b fixed resister

*c variable resister (rheostat)


30 On the wire number shown, what does the first number indicate? 1EF6B22NMSV*a Unit number

b

c



Part 66 Materials

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