Lean Six Sigma Green Belt test exam 120 q+a

1. Specifically within Six Sigma change in performance comes from identifying and controlling: A. Transparent variables B. Dependent variables C. Controlled variables d. Independent variables 2. SIPOC process map is a tool best used for: A. Identifying requirements between customers and suppliers B. Drilling down the Y=f(x) C. Determining what is currently being provided D. Assists in determining a project’s timeline 3. Type of bar graph used to help prioritize processes: A. Process behavior chart B. Process alignment graph C. Pareto analysis D. Process elimination chart 4. What is the main difference between FTY and RTY: A. There is no difference B. RTY reveals losses from C. RTY captures resource consumption D. FTY captures amount of 5. ABC corporation produces shampoo. Which of the following is not considered an internal customer: A. Retail store B. Distribution C. Marketing d. Packaging 6. What item below best describes variation in a process: A. Points not centrally located outside the mean B. A cluster of outcomes located at one central point C. How tightly all the various outcomes are clustered around the average. D. The overall calculated point cluster to the right of the mean 7. Which element of waste is it if we produce more than is needed by the next step in the process or more than the customer needs? A. Overproduction B. Overprocessing

C. Inventory D. Speed 8. The following are all examples of hard savings except: A. Hidden factory costs B. Regaining lost sales C. Lowered inventory carrying costs D. Cycle time improvements lowering overtime hours paid 9. Corporation ABC operates at a yield of 99.9937%. Therefore this corporation is operating at what sigma level: A. 3 sigma B. 5 sigma C. 2 sigma D. 4 sigma 10. Corporation ABC operates at a yield of 68.27%. Therefore this corporation is operating at what sigma level: A. 3 sigma B. 5 sigma C. 1 sigma D. 4 sigma 11. Corporation ABC operates at a yield of 99.73%. Therefore this corporation is operating at what sigma level: A. 3 sigma B. 5 sigma C. 2 sigma D. 4 sigma 12. The Japanese word for waste is: A. Hudat B. Muda C. Nioibukuro D. Keikaku 13. A small distribution warehouse moves a single crate of product six times before it is loaded for shipment. This is an example of which element of waste: A. Defects B. Inventory C. Motion D. Conveyance

14. When using the estimated RTY equation the DPU has to be less than the following percentage: A. 10 B. 20 C. 25 D. 15 15. A green belt is running a project on a specific processor. Since the green belt is focusing on a processor, he should build a list of CTQ’s based off of: A. Service B. Size C. Price D. Product 16. Appraisal costs refer to: A. Resources spent on re-work and returns B. Resources spent on prevention C. Resources planned for enhancements D. Resources spent on inspection 17. Two data type exist known as _______ and variable: A. Attribute B. Real C. Mathematical D. Algebra 18. A project team uses three primary sources of X identification, process mapping, ___________diagram and basic data analysis: A. Fishbone B. Phishing C. Scatter D. Checklist 19. John discovered a correlation between an individual’s monthly income and discretionary spending. The data types used for this analysis are best described as: A. Discrete data B. Continuous data C. Attribute data D. Qualitative data 20. When constructing a fishbone diagram, the typical classic arrangement in a six sigma project is: A. 6M’s approach

B. The Motorola approach C. The 3M approach D. Ask a black belt 21. The independent variables that should be included in the FMEA tool are: A. Procedural or noise B. Controllable C. Mandatory D. Unknown 22. The difference between the largest observation and the smallest observation in the data set is known as: A. Mean B. Range C. Median D. Mode 23. The purpose of using Ppk is to: A. Estimate observation B. How well the process is actually running C. Capture voice of the employee D. Evaluate process without special causes 24. The average squared deviation of each individual data point from the mean is: A. Range B. Average C. Variance D. Nominal 25. A green belt is working on a project with rework performed. If the status is described as accept or reject, this measurement system is best described as: A. Discrete data B. Continuous data C. Quantitative data D. Numerical data 26. Stability of a gauge is defined as error being a function of time and is measured in terms of: A. Standard deviation B. Statistical process control C. Mode D. Muda 27. Attribute data is considered to be:

A. Quantitative B. Qualitative C. Nonbinary D. Continuous 28. A population is a collection of all the individuals of interest and the population has its own statistics: A. True B. False C. Not always the case D. Unknown 29. Interquartile range is the difference between: A. 25th percentile and the 50th percentile B. 25th percentile and the 75th percentile C. All the quarters D. The lowest and the largest value 30. Gage R&R tries to determine if the measurement system has good: A. Repeatability B. Research and repeatability C. Control D. Forecasting 31. What is the estimated probability of a process to give a result within +/-2 standard deviations from the mean for a normally distributed process: A. 68.27% B. 99.73% C. 100% D. 95.45% 32. For crossed gage R&R study, if 8 parts are being analyzed by 4 quality techs and each tech tests each 3 times, how many times is each part being measured: A. 4 B. 12 C. 24 D. 96 33. What information does Cp provide? A. What is possible if you hire a green belt B. Process potential C. Process performance D. Lowest value in range

34. What information does Cp provide? A. What is possible if you hire a green belt B. Process potential C. Process performance D. Lowest value in range 35. The variation in measurements obtained with one instrument used several times by one appraiser on a single part’s one characteristic is: A. Repeatability B. Bias C. Linearity D. Reproducibility 36. Hypothesis testing A. Can help establish a statistical difference among factors from different distributions B. Is not a recommended six sigma tool C. Is largely the product of dr. Juran’s work D. Is typically done in the improve phase 37. The purpose of hypothesis testing is: A. To make some inference or educated guess about the population B. To form a conclusion by analogous estimating C. To calculate identifiable D. To identify new problems 38. T-tests in its various forms are used to: A. Compare sample distribution types B. Compare means from 2 different samples C. Compare sample variances D. Compare medians of different samples 39. A plant manager noticed the majority of variation occurred during the night-shift as opposed to the day-shift. This is a significant: A. Temporal variation B. Between variation C. Outside variation D. Uncommon cause variation 40. After testing, the conclusion was drawn that the cost of fixing a process would be greater than the revenue increase. Should the belt suggest this change? A. Yes, because there is a significant difference B. Yes, because there is a practical difference

C. No, because testing was not D. No, because there is not a practical difference 41. After testing, the conclusion was drawn that the cost of fixing a process would be greater than the revenue increase. Should the belt suggest this change? A. Yes, because there is a significant difference B. Yes, because there is a practical difference C. No, because testing was not D. No, because there is not a practical difference 42. After running some statistical tests, the belt found that the P-value was greater than 0.05, which means: A. There is a difference or relationship with at least 95% confidence B. There is no difference or relationship with at least 95% confidence C. To reject the null hypothesis with a least 95% confidence D. To run 5 more tests to get 95% confidence 43. From the list below, which is the best example of a Mann-Whitney test: A. Determine if one of a few machines has a different mean cycle time B. Determine if one of a few machines has a different median cycle time C. Determine if document A and document B have different mean cycle times D. Determine if document A and document B have different median cycle times 44. A non-parametric test makes the assumption that the data are from normal populations: A. True B. False C. Not enough information D. It depends 45. Contingency tables are used to: A. Illustrate one tail proportion B. Compare more than 2 sample proportions with each C. Contrast the outliers under the tail D. Analyze the ‘what if’ scenario 46. For a skewed distribution, the appropriate statistic to describe the central tendency is: A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Interquartile range 47. In statistical hypothesis testing, the alternative hypothesis is also known as: A. Unmaintained hypothesis

B. Research hypothesis C. Null Hypothesis D. Invalid hypothesis 48. Multi-vari studies are a graphical tool that displays patterns of data performed ________ where a process is studied in its natural state: A. With an experimental design B. As a passive study C. With active changes by the D. With a histogram analysis 49. Some different types of error that exist in statistics are: A. Error in sampling B. Power validity C. Insufficient sample size D. Inaccurate sample size 50. The use of target versus a proportion test to see: A. If the process proportion equals some desired value B. If the process proportion equals some value range C. If the target is current D. If the proportion of the tail is equal 51. Advanced capability analysis for defects per unit is not possible within Minitab. A. True B. False C. Depends on set up D. Insufficient information 52. Advanced capability analysis for % defective is possible within Minitab A. True B. False C. Depends on set up D. Insufficient information 53. 5S can best be described as a toolkit to ________ a process in the control phase. A. Remove labor for B. Overly lengthen the six sigma project for C. Confuse D. Stabilize 54. What is the best example of a pattern change type of special cause? A. 2 consecutive points above the central line

B. 3 consecutive points increasing in value C. 7 points in a row below the central line D. 1 point outside of the 3 sigma limit from the central line 55. Which statement below is an undesirable situation when implementing SPC? A. The lower control limit for the R chart is equal to zero B. The control limits are wider than the customer specification C. A process in statistical control before implementation of SPC D. Attempt to use SPC for tracking transaction times at a 56. Advanced capability analysis for defects per unit is not possible within Minitab. A. True B. False C. Depends on set up D. Insufficient information 57. Advanced capability analysis for % defective is possible within Minitab A. True B. False C. Depends on set up D. Insufficient information 58. The most basic of all lean tools that support the other lean tools is best known as: A. Kanbans B. Kaizens C. Kaikaku D. 5S 59. The foundation of a visual factory is: A. Technically skilled workers B. Work space with active 5S C. Inventory control D. Breakthrough projects 60. Which tool listed below should be the last tool attempted at a process step that has variation causing special causes in a six sigma project? A. Kanban B. Kaizen C. SPC D. Poka Yoke 61. Which are examples of defect prevention to consider in your execution of the control phase of your project?

A. Poka yoke or mistake proofing B. Monte Carlo simulation C. FMEA D. Monitoring 62. Which SPC chart should be selected for the following: attribute output with no poka yoke and the tracking of % defective desired with a sample size of 25? A. NP chart B. P chart C. U chart D. C chart 63. Every process has causes of variation commonly known as: A. Common B. Insignificant C. Considerable D. Uneducated 64. Every process has causes of variation commonly known as: A. Common B. Insignificant C. Special D. Uneducated 65. SPC charts typically incorporate control limits indicating special causes of what width from the central line? A. +/- 2 sigma B. +/- 3 sigma C. +/- 4.5 sigma D. +/- 6 sigma 66. Subgroups are used in which types of SPC charts? A. Bar charts B. R charts C. MR charts D. nU charts 67. Subgroups are used in which types of SPC charts? A. Xbar charts B. Z charts C. MR charts D. nU charts 68. Variance is:

A. Equivalent of the average deviation of values from the mean for a distribution of data B. Average squared deviation of each individual data point from the mean C. Compromise between the mean and median D. Difference between the largest value and the smallest value in a data set 69. Range is: A. Equivalent of the average deviation of values from the mean for a distribution of data B. Average squared deviation of each individual data point from the mean C. Compromise between the mean and median D. Difference between the largest value and the smallest value in a data set 70. Interquartile range is: A. Equivalent of the average deviation of values from the mean for a distribution of data B. Difference between the 25th percentile and 75th percentile C. Compromise between the mean and median D. Difference between the largest value and the smallest value in a data set 71. Mode is: A. The arithmetic balance point of a distribution of data B. Commonly referred to as the average C. The mid-point of a distribution of data D. The most frequently occurring value in a distribution of data 72. Median is: A. The arithmetic balance point of a distribution of data B. Commonly referred to as the average C. The mid-point of a distribution of data D. The most frequently occurring value in a distribution of data 73. Mean is: A. A measure of dispersion B. Commonly referred to as the average C. The mid-point of a distribution of data D. The most frequently occurring value in a distribution of data 74. Mode is: A. A measure of location B. A measure of dispersion C. The mid-point of a distribution of data D. The most frequently occurring value in a distribution of data 75. The following is measure of variation:

A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Range 76. The following is measure of dispersion: A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Range 77. The following is measure of location: A. Standard deviation B. Median C. Variance D. Range 78. The following is measure of central tendency: A. Standard deviation B. Median C. Variance D. Range 79. The following is measure of location: A. Standard deviation B. Median C. Variance D. Range 80. The following is measure of central tendency: A. Standard deviation B. Median C. Variance D. Range 81. The following is measure of location: A. Standard deviation B. Mode C. Variance D. Range 82. The following is measure of central tendency: A. Standard deviation

B. Mode C. Variance D. Range 83. The following is measure of variation: A. Mean B. Median C. Interquartile range D. Mode 84. The following is measure of dispersion: A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Interquartile range 85. The following is measure of variation: A. Mean B. Median C. Range D. Mode 86. The following is measure of dispersion: A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Standard deviation 87. The following is measure of variation: A. Mean B. Median C. Variance D. Mode 88. The following is measure of dispersion: A. Mean B. Median C. Mode D. Variance 89. A tool for assessing normality is: A. The hypothesis test B. ANOVA test

C. Anderson Darling test D. Minitab test 90. A tool for assessing normality is: A. The hypothesis test B. ANOVA test C. Normal probability test D. Minitab test 91. 5 elements of a control plan include: A. Documentation, monitoring, response, training and aligning B. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling and closing C. SIPOC D. Muda 92. Which of the following measures is used to show the ratio of defects to units? A. DPU B. DPO C. DPMO D. PPM 93. Which of the following tools is used in quality function deployment (QFD)? A. Affinity diagram B. Matrix diagram C. Cause and effect diagram D. Activity network diagram 94. Which of the following measures is increased when process performance is improved? A. Variability range B. Capability index C. Repeatability index D. Specification limits 95. Which of the following shapes is used to present a termination point in a flowchart? A. Rectangle B. Diamond C. Arrow D. Oval 96. Which of the following tools is used to translate broad requirements into specific requirements? A. A quality control plan B. The theory of constraints

C. A critical to quality tree D. A process flowchart 97. When the sampling method used creates a difference between the result obtained from the sample and the actual population value, the difference is known as: A. Correlation B. Causation C. Bias D. Precision 98. An organized and disciplined approach to problem solving in most six sigma environments is known as: A. SIPOC B. PDCA C. DMAIC D. DPMO 99. The concept behind PDCA is: A. The Deming-Shewhart B. Continuous improvement C. Satisfying customers D. Process flow 100. A process FMEA is generally performed: A. Just after the design FMEA B. As soon as manufacturing defects are discovered. C. Right after the design drawings are signed off on D. Just before the production tooling is authorized 101. What is takt time? A. The application of Kaizen to continuous flow manufacturing B. The heartline of a lean system C. A calculated time element that equals customer demand D. The speed at which parts must be manufactured in order to satisfy demand 102. The best way to error proof activities is: A. By preventive actions B. By corrective actions C. By containment actions D. By temporary actions 103. The most effective way to communicate information is: A. Written

B. Oral C. Non-verbal D. A combination of methods 104. Which of the following is NOT a potential risk area? A. Schedule risks B. Cost risks C. Mitigation risks D. Environmental risks 105. If events cannot occur simultaneously they are: A. Mutually exclusive B. Randomly selected C. Independent D. Statistically stable 106. When the sampling method used creates a difference between the result obtained from the sample and the actual population value, the difference is known as: A. Correlation B. Causation C. Precision D. Bias 107. Quality Function Deployment is used in the design process. Its primary benefit is: A. The team is aligned and thinks together B. Customers list their requirements on paper C. Objective competitive analysis is conducted D. Designers obtain access to proper technical specifications 108. Gantt chart advantages include all of the following except: A. The charts are easy to understand B. Alterations can be made easily C. Each bar represents a single activity D. Estimates of optimistic and pessimistic times can be included 109. Six sigma projects should begin with what initial step? A. Project charter B. Initiation C. Define D. Champion approval 110. What initial step should Six sigma projects begin with? A. Project charter

B. Initiation C. Define D. Champion approval 111. Poka-yoke uses a number of tools to mistake proof a process. Which of the following should not be included? A. Electric rays B. Fixture templates C. Buzzer or light signals D. Self-check inspections 112. Poka-yoke utilizes several tools to mistake proof a process. Which of the following should not be included? A. Electric rays B. Fixture templates C. Buzzer or light signals D. Self-check inspections 113. Which technique is most effective in collecting requirements in the earliest stages of product design? A. QFD B. FTA C. SIPOC D. FMEA 114. Which technique is most effective in collecting requirements in the earliest stages of product design? A. QFD B. FTA C. Muda D. FMEA 115. If there is no correlation between two variables, then: A. The correlation coefficient is positive B. Both variables increase simultaneously C. As one variable changes, there can be no prediction for the other variable D. The correlation coefficient is negative 116. If there is no correlation between two variables, then: A. The correlation coefficient is positive B. Both variables increase simultaneously C. As one variable changes, there can be no prediction for the other variable D. This indicates causation 117. The following statistical distribution can be used to compare sample means:

A. Normal distribution B. T distribution C. Ch-square distribution D. Static distribution 118. The following statistical distribution can be used to compare sample means: A. Normal distribution B. T distribution C. Ch-square distribution D. Inverse distribution 119. What use does the F distribution have? A. To review errors B. To analyse data C. To study the equality of two means D. To study the equality of two variances 120. What value does the F distribution provide? A. To review errors B. To analyse data C. To study the equality of two means D. To study the equality of two variances

1 D 2 A 3 C 4 B 5 A 6 C 7 ? 8 B 9 D 10 C 11 A 12 B 13 D 14 A 15 D 16 D 17 A 18 A 19 B 20 A 21 A 22 B 23 B 24 C 25 A 26 A 27 B 28 A 29 B 30 A 31 D 32 B 33 B 34 B 35 A 36 A 37 A 38 B 39 A 40 D 41 D 42 B 43 D 44 B 45 B 46 B 47 B 48 B 49 A

50 A 51 B 52 A 53 D 54 C 55 B 56 B 57 A 58 D 59 B 60 A 61 A 62 A 63 A 64 C 65 B 66 B 67 A 68 B 69 D 70 B 71 D 72 C 73 B 74 A 75 D 76 D 77 B 78 B 79 B 80 B 81 B 82 B 83 C 84 D 85 C 86 D 87 C 88 D 89 C 90 C 91 A 92 A 93 B 94 B 95 D 96 C 97 C 98 C 99 B

100 D 101 C 102 A 103 B 104 C 105 C 106 D 107 A 108 D 109 C 110 C 111 D 112 D 113 A 114 A 115 C 116 C 117 B 118 B 119 D 120 D