Key

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GPAT 2010 KEY and Discussion

(Refer : paper code A)

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Q.No. 1 Choose the right combination

(A) Quinine, Antimalarial, isoquinoline alkaloid

(B) Reserpine, antihypertensive, indole alkaloid

(C) Quantitative microscopy, stomatal number, myrrh

(D) Palmitic acid, salicylic acid, fatty acids

Ans: B

Quinine belongs to quinoline group

Salicylic acid is not a fatty acid

Q.No. 2 Tropane alkaloids are not present in

(A) Datura stramonium (B) Erythroxylum coca

(C) Duboisia myoporoides (D) Lobelia inflata

Ans: D

Atropa, coca spp belong to tropane group of alkaloids. Lobelia spp belong to pyridine

type alkaloids

Q.No. 3 Triterpenoids are the active constitutens of

(A) Jaborandi (B) Rhubarb (C) Stramonium (D) Brahmi

Ans: D

Brahmi contains high content of triterpenoids



Q.No. 4 Guggul lipids are active constituents of

(A) Commiphora molmol (B) Boswellia serrata

(C) Commiphora wightii (D) Commiphora Molmol

Ans: C

o Commiphora wightii also called as Guggul is a flowering plant in the family

Burseraceae.

o Myrrh is obtained from Commiphora Molmol

Q.No.5 Alkaloids are NOT precipitated by

(A) Mayer’s reagent (B) Drangendroff’s reagent

(C) Picric acid (D) Millon’s reagent

Ans: D

Test Composition Color of the precipitate

Mayer’s test Pot. Mercuric iodide Cream

Drangendorf test Potassium bismuth iodide Reddish brown

Wagner’s test Pot. Iodide –iodine Reddish brown

Hager’s test Picric acid Yellow

Q.No.6 An example of N-glycoside is

(A) Adenosine (B) Sinigrin

(C) Rhein-8-glucoside (D) Aloin

Ans: A

• Sinigrin is S-glycoside

• Aloin and C-glycosides

• Rhein-8-glucoside is O-glycoside



Q.No. 7 Anisocytic stomata are present in

(A) Senna (B) Digitalis (C) Belladonna (D) Coca

Ans: C

Belladona contains anisocytic and anomocytic

Q.No.8 One mg of Lycopodium spores used in quantitative microscopy

contains an average of

(A) 94,000 spores (B) 92,000 spores

(C) 90,000 spores (D) 91,000 spores

Ans : A

Q.No. 9 Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the family

(A) Scrophulariacea (B) Leguminosae

(C) Polygalaceae (D) Rubiaceae

Ans: A

• Bacopa monnieri (L.) Penn. Family: Scrophulariaceae

Common name : Bramhi

Q.No.10 Cardiac glycosides have the following configuration in the

aglycone part of the steroid nucleus

(A) 5 α, 1 4 α (B) 5 α, 14β (C) 5β, 1 4 α (D) 5β,14β-

Ans: D

• Stereochemistry of cardiac glycosides is very important for activity, and these

compounds have cis fusions for both the A/B and C/D rings, 3β- and 14β-hydroxyl

groups with the glycoside function at C-3, and an α,β-unsaturated lactone grouping

at C-17β.

• The hellebrigenin structure shows two other modifications not found in the basic

steroid skeleton, namely a hydroxyl at the bridgehead carbon C-5β, and a formyl

group at C-10.



Q.No. 11 The vitamin essential in tissue culture medium is

(A) Pyridoxine (B) Thiamine (C) Nicotinic acid (D) Inositol

Ans: B

• The vitamins most frequently used in cell and tissue culture media include thiamin

(B1), nicotinic acid, pyridoxine (B

6), and myo-inositol.

• Thiamin is the one vitamin that is basically required by all cells for growth.

Q.No. 12 Quassia wood is adulterated with

(A) Brucea antidysentrica (B) Cassia angustifoila

(C) Cinnamomum zeylanicum (D) Cephaelis ipecacuanaha

Ans: B

Q.No. 13 Gingkgo biloba is used for its

(A) Expectorant activity (B) Lipid lowering activity

(C) PAF antagonistic activity (D)Antidepressant activity

Ans: C

Standardized ginkgo extract inhibits platelet activity factor (PAF), which is a common

allergen in the body. Physical stress and poor quality food can over stimulate PAF

production leading to blood clotting.

Q.No. 14 Eugenol is present in

(A) Fennel (B) Tulsi (C) Cardamom (D) Coriander

Ans : B

Tulsi mainly contains 70% eugenol

Q.No. 15 The amount of barbaloin present in Aloe vera is

(A) <1% (B) 3.5-4% (c) 1-1.5% (D) 2-2.5%

Ans: B



Q.No. 16 Which one of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of

Philadelphia chromosome positive patients with Chronic myeloid Leukemia?

(A) Pentostatin (B) Methotrexate

(C) Imatinib (D) L-Asparaginase

Ans: C

Imatinib mesylate, an inhibitor of the Bcr-Abl tyrosine kinase, has modest activity in

refractory/relapsed Philadelphia chromosome (Ph)-positive acute lymphocytic

leukemia (ALL).

Q.No. 17 Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following

disorders

(A) Systolic hypertension (B) Unstable angina

(C) Pulmonary hypertension (D) Hypertension due to eclampsia

Ans: C

• Sildenafil and tadalafil are inhibitors of phosphodiesterase type V that are used to

treat erectile dysfunction, because they potentiate NO actions in the corpora

cavernosa of the penis by this mechanism

• They are also indicated for pulmonary hypertension and gastric stasis

Q.No. 18 Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed

for patients with non-Hodgkin's Lymphoma?

(A) Infliximab (B) Abciximab (C) Gemtuzumab (D) Rituximab

Ans: D

• Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is cancer that begins in cells of the immune system. The

immune system fights infections and other diseases.

• Non-Hodgkin lymphoma begins when a lymphocyte becomes abnormal



Q.No. 19 Select the correc: combination of drugs for the treatment of patients

suffering from Hepatitis C

(A) Interferon with Ribavirin (B) Interferon with Zidovudine

(C) Interferon with Stavudine (D) Interferon with Lamivudine

Ans: A

• Alpha interferon is a host protein that is made in response to viral infections and has

natural antiviral activity.

• Ribavirin is an oral antiviral agent that has activity against a broad range of viruses.

By itself, ribavirin has little effect on HCV, but adding it to interferon increases the

sustained response rate by two- to three-fold. For these reasons, combination

therapy is now recommended for hepatitis C, and interferon monotherapy is applied

only when there are specific reasons not to use ribavirin.

• At the present time, the optimal regimen appears to be a 24- or 48-week course of

the combination of pegylated alpha interferon and ribavirin.

Q.No. 20 Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to

torsade de pointes?

(A) Chlorpromazine (B) Astemizole

(C) Haloperidol (D) Domperidone

Ans. C

Q.No. 21 Aliskiren acts by

(A) inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to II

(B) inhibiting the release of rennin

(C) inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to the receptor

(D) inhibiting the action of aldosterone

Ans: B

• Aliskiren is used alone or in combination with other medications to treat high blood

pressure. Aliskiren like enalkiren is a direct renin inhibitors.



Q.No. 22 Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by

(A) Cytomegalovirus (B) Candida albicans

(C) Herpes zoster virus (D) Hepatitis B virus

Ans: A

• Ganciclovir is an acyclic analogue of guanosine is the drug of choice for

cytomegalovirus infection.

• Aciclovir is a guanosine derivative with a high specificity for herpes simplex and

varicella zoster viruses.

• Lamivudine and adefovir are also used in the treatment of hepatitis B

• Hyperimmune globulin, specific against particular viruses, is used against hepatitis B,

varicella zoster and rabies.

Q.No. 23 Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of

(A) Potassium (B) Quinidine (C) Diuretics (D) Antacids

Ans: B

• Quinidine inhibits p-Glycoprotein and ther by inhibits the excretion of digitalis

• An increase in serum digoxin concentration occurs in 90% of patients given quinidine

• Diuretics also interact with digitalis but all diuretics does not interact by similar way

and similar extent.

• Eg: Mannitol may not ineract with digitalis

Q.No. 24 Identify the one rational combination which has clinical benefit :

(A) Norfloxacin - Metronidazole (B) Alprazolam - Paracetamol

(C) Cisapride – Omeprazole (D)Amoxycillin - Clavulanic acid

Ans: D

• The resistance caused by degradation due to β-lactamase is prevented by clavulanic

acid.

• Amoxicillin is therefore combined with β-lactamase inhibitor clavulanic acid as co-

amoxiclav.



Q.No. 25 The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the followings

(A) LDL-receptor concentration (B) VLDL secretion

(C) Mevalonic acid formation (D) Co-enzyme A formation

Ans: C

• Cholesterol is synthesized in the body entirely from acetyl-CoA. Three molecules of

acetyl-CoA form mevalonate via the important regulatory reaction for the pathway,

catalyzed by HMG-CoA reductase.

Q.No. 26 Stevens Johnson sjmdrome is the most common adverse effect

associated with one of the following category of drugs :

(A) Sulphonamides (B) Macrolides

(C) Penicillins (D) Tetracyclines

Ans: A

• The most common cause of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome and Toxic Epidermal

Necrolysis is through an allergic drug reaction. The drugs that are usually responsible

for these reactions include: some NSAIDS (non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs),

Allopurinol, Phenytoin, Carbamazepine, barbiturates, anticonvulsants, and sulfa

antibiotics.

Q.No. 27 Identify the drug which is NOT used in the treatment of malaria caused

by Plasmodium falciparum

(A.) Artemisinin (B) Primaquine (C) Quinine (D) Mefloquine

Ans: B

• Quinine is the main drug for p.falciparum

• Mefloquine is used in chloroquine resistant malaria

• Artemisinin is a fast acting tissue schizonticide

• Primaquine does not affect sporozoites and has little if any action against the

erythrocytic stage of the parasite and hence used in preventing transmission of the

disease in all four species of plasmodia



Q.No. 28 Which one of the following drugs is NOT a typical anti-psychotic agent?

(A) Chlorpromazine (B) Haloperidol

(C) Risperidone (D) Flupentixol

Ans: C

Chlorpromazine, haloperidol and flupentixol are typical antipsychotics

Q.No. 29 Which one of the following drugs does NOT act through G-Protein

coupled receptors?

(A) Epinephrine (B) Insulin (C) Dopamine (D) TSH

Ans: B

Insulin acts by kinase-linked receptors

Q.No. 30 Which one of the followings is a plasminogen activator?

(A) Tranexamic acid (B) Streptokinase

(C) Aminocaproic acid (D) None of the above

Ans: B

• Various agents promote the formation of plasmin from its precursor plasminogen, for

example streptokinase , and tissue plasminogen activators (tPAs) such as alteplase,

duteplase and reteplase .

Q.No. 31 Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing

transmission of HIV virus from the mother to the foetus?

(A) Lamivudine (B) Zidovudine (C) Indinavir (D) Ribavirin

Ans: B

• Zidovudine is an analogue of thymidine. It can prolong life in HIV-infected

individuals and diminish HIV-associated dementia. Given to the parturient mother

and then to the newborn infant, it can reduce mother-to-baby transmission by more

than 20%



• Nevirapine can prevent mother-to-baby transmission of HIV if given to the

parturient mother and the neonate

Q.No. 32 Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by

using

(A) Donepezil (B) Edrophonium (C) Atropine (D) Pancuronium

Ans: B

• Edrophonium a quaternary ammonium and a short-acting anticholinesterases

compound that binds to the anionic site of the enzyme only. The ionic bond formed is

readily reversible, and the action of the drug is very brief. It is used mainly for

diagnostic purposes.

Q.No. 33 Improvement of memory in Alzheimer's disease is brought about by

drugs which increase transmission in

(A) cholinergic receptors (B) dopaminergic receptors

(C) GABAergic receptors (D) adrenergic receptors

Ans: A

• Alzheimer's disease (AD) is a common age-related dementia distinct from vascular

dementia associated with brain infarction.

• The main pathological features of AD comprise amyloid plaques, neurofibrillary

tangles and a loss of neurons like cholinergic neurons of the basal forebrain

• Drugs like tacrine , donepezil, rivastigmine and galantamine are

anticholineesterases and improved cognitive function in AD patients

Q.No. 34 Which one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the

activated T lymphocytes?

(A) Daclizumab (B) Prednisone (C) Sirolimus (D) Tacrolimus

Ans: D

• Tacrolimus is a macrolide antibiotic of fungal origin interacts with FKBP (FK-binding

protein). The tacrolimus-FKBP complex inhibits calcineurin.



Q.No. 35 Which of the following non-opioid analgesics is a prodrug?

(A) Piroxicam (B) Celecoxib (C)Nabumetone (D) Ketorolac

Ans: C

• Nabumetone is a prodrug

Q.No. 36 The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is

(A) acidic (B)Basic (C) neutral (D) amphoteric

Ans: B

Because of phenolic hydroxyl group at 3rd position

Q.No. 37 Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material :

(A) Phthalic anhydride (B) Terephthalic acid

(C) Phthalamic acid (D) Phthalimide

Ans: A

Q.No. 38 Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess

acceptable hypnotic activity :

(A) 1,3-Disubstitution (B) 5,5-Disubstitution

(C) 1,5-Disubstitution (D) 3,3-Disubstitution

Ans: B

• At 5th position both of the hydrogens should be replaced

Q.No. 39 The common structural feature amongst the three categories of

anticonvulsant drugs barbiturates, succinimides and hydantoins is

(A) ureide (B) imidazolidinone

(C) dihydropyrimidine (D) tetrahydropyrimidine



Ans: A

• Hydantoins – cyclic mono acyl oureas

• Barbiturates – cyclic diacyl ureas

Q.No. 40 Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is

(A) Imipramine (B) Iproniazide (C) Fluoxetin (D)Naphazoline

Ans: C

Q.NO. 41 Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug

(A) Atropine (B) Carvedilol

(C) Neostigmine ( D ) d-Tubocurarine

Ans: D

• d-Tubocurarine blocks nicotinc Ach receptors and hence used as muscle relaxant

Q.NO. 42 Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the

following ring system

(A) Pyrimidine (B)Benzimidazole (C) Benzothiazole (D) Oxindole

Ans: B

Benzimidazole sulfoxides are irreversible proton pump inhibitors

Q.No. 43 Chemical nomenclature of procaine is

(A) 2-Diethylaminoethyl 4-aminobenzoate

(B) N,N-Diethyl 4-aminobenzoate

(C) 4-Aminobenzamidoethyl amine

(D) 4-Amino-2-diethylaminoethyl benzoate

Ans: A

• Only A option is correct. Because procaine is benzoic acid ester formed by

diethylamino ethyl alcohol. Option D gives a structure with diethylamino group at the

2nd position on the benzene ring structure which is not procaine



Q.No. 44 A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly

to HMG CoA reductase enzyme is

(A) Fluvastatin (B) Cerivastatin (C) Lovastatin (D) Somatostatin

Ans: C

• Lovastatin is a fungal metabolite isolated from cultures of Aspergillus terreus. The

compound is a potent anticholesteremic agent. It inhibits 3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl

coenzyme A reductase

Q.No. 45 At physiological pH the following compound would be MOSTLY in the

(A) cationic form (B) unionized form

(C)zwitterionic form (D) anionic form

Ans: D

Q.No. 46 For glyburide, all of the following metabolic reactions are logical EXCEPT

(A) O-demethylation (B) aromatic oxidation

(C) benzylic hydroxylation (D) amide hydrolysis

Ans: B

Q.No 47 Which one of the followings is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar

disorder and also in certain epileptic convulsions?

(A) Phenytoin (B) Lithium

(C) Sodium valproate (D) Fluoxetine

Ans: C

valproate has fewer side effects than lithium , have also an antiepileptic



Q.No. 48 The effects observed following systemic administration of levodopa in the

treatment of Parkinsonism have been attributed to its catabolism to

dopamine. Carbidopa, can markedly increase the proportion of levodopa

that crosses the blood-brain barrier by

(A) increasing penetration of levodopa through BBB by complexation with it

(B) decreasing peripheral metabolism of levodopa

(C) decreasing metabolism of levodopa in the CNS

(D) decreasing clearance of levodopa from the CNS

Ans: B

• Levodopa is the first-line treatment for PD and is combined with a peripheral dopa

decarboxylase inhibitor, either carbidopa or benserazide, which reduces the dose

needed by about 10-fold and diminishes the peripheral side effects.

Q.No. 49 An isosteric replacement for carboxylic acid group is

(A) pyrrole (B) isoxazole (C) phenol (D) tetrazole

Ans: D

o Tetrazole is an acidic ring which can be isosterically replaced for carboxylic

acid group

Q.no. 50 Ethambutol molecule has

(A) two chiral centers and 3 stereoisomers

( B) two chiral centers and 4 stereoisomers

(C) two chiral centers and 2 stereoisomers

(D) one chiral center and 2 stereoisomers

Ans: A

• Ethambutol contains two chiral centers and exists in three stereoisomers viz. dextro,

levo and meso. Dextro isomer is 16 times active than meso isomer



Q.No. 51 The given antibiotic is an example of ansamycins :

(A) Roxythromycin (B) Adriamycin (C) Aureomycin (D) Rifamycin

Ans: D

• Rifamycins like rifampin, rifabutin belong to a chemical class of anasamycins

containing a macrocyclic ring bridged across two nonadjacent positions of an

aromatic nucleus

Q.No 52 In thiazides following substituent is essential for diuretic activity :

(A) Chloro group at position 6 (B) Methyl group at position 2

(C) Sulphamoyl group at position 7 (D) Hydrophobic group at position 3

Ans: C

Q.No. 53 Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as

(A) alkylating agent before metabolism (B)alkylating agent after metabolism

(C) phosphorylating agent after metabolism (D) DNA intercalating agent

Ans: B

• Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent. It is inactive until metabolised in the

liver by the P450 mixed function oxidases

Q.No. 54 Streptomycin can NOT be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis

because

(A) it gets degraded in the GIT (B) it causes severe diarrhoea

(C) it causes metallic taste in the mouth (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT

Ans. D

• The aminoglycosides are polycations and therefore highly polar. They are not

absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract and are usually given intramuscularly or

intravenously



Q.No. 55 Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure :

(A) an endoperoxide (B) an exoperoxide

(C) an epoxide (D) an acid hydrazide

Ans: A

• Artemisinin contains trioxane ring system consisting of endoperoxide and doxepin

oxygens

Q.No. 56 In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV

radiation of wavelengths lower than

(A) 350 nm (B) 200 nm (C) 300 nm (D) 250 nm

Ans: B

Q.No. 57 Indicate the HPLC detector that is most sensitive to change in

temperature

(A) PDA detector (B) Refractive Index detector

(C) Electrochemical detector (D) Fluorescence detector

Ans: B

• The refractive index detector is one of the least sensitive LC detectors. It is very

affected by changes in ambient temperature, in pressure and in flow-rate. The

temperature of the detector must be regulated with precision and the column

thermostatically controlled.

Q.No. 58 Glass transition temperature is detected through

(A) X-Ray diffractometery (B) Solution calorimetery

(C) Differential scanning calorimetery (D) Thermogravimetric analysis

Ans: C

• The DSC trace of a polymeric material will show a step in the recorded signal by the

polymer undergoing a second-order heat-capacity change at the glass transition

temperature (Tg). As the temperature continues to increase, viscosity drops, and the

polymer becomes mobile enough to realign into a crystalline structure.



• The heat released from the so-called “cold crystallization” produces an exothermic

peak on the DSC curve. The area under the peak is proportional to the heat of

crystallization.

Q.No. 59 One of the following statements is NOT true :

(A) Accuracy expresses the correctness of measurement

(B) Precision represents reproducibility of measurement

(C) High degree of precision implies high degree of accuracy also

(D) High degree of accuracy implies high degree of precesion also

Ans: C

Q.No. 60 In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be

derivatized in order to increase their

(A) volatility (B) solubility

(C)thermal conductivity (D) polarizability

Ans: A

Q.No. 61 A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the

following properties undergo transition on

(A) Polarizability (B) Dielectric constant

(C) Dipole moment (D) Refractivity

Ans: C

A change in the dipole moment is the pre-requisite for IR absorption

Q.No 62 Purity of water can be assessed by determining one of its following

properties instrumentally

(A) pH (B) Refractivity (C) Viscosity (D) Conductivity

Ans: D



Q.No 63 X-ray crystallographic analysis of an optically active compound

determines its

(A) Optical rotatory dispersive power (B) Absolute configuration

(C) Relative configuration (D) Optical purity

Ans: B

• Absolute configuration can be determined by using a relative configuration of

reference compound

Q.No. 64 Which one of the following statements is WRONG?

(A) Carbon NMR is less sensitive than proton NMR

(B) 12C nucleus is not magnetically active

(C) Both 13C and 1H have same spin quantum numbers

(D) The gyromagnetic ratio of 1H is lesser than that of 13C

Ans: D

• The magnetogyric ratio of 13C is 0.25 times that of proton and hence less sensitive

Q.No. 65 Which one of the following statements is WRONG?

(A) A singlet or triplet state may result when one of the electrons from the HOMO is

excited to higher energy levels

(B) In an excited singlet state, the spin of the electron in the higher energy orbital is

paired with the electron in the ground state orbital

(C) Triplet excited state is more stable than the singlet excited state

(D) When the electron from the singlet excited state returns to ground state, the

molecule always shows fluorescence phenomenon

Ans: D

• When an electron returns from singlet excited state to singlet ground state the

energy may be released as radiation in the form of fluorescence or by internal and

external conversion due to vibrations.



Q.No. 66 In the TCA cycle, at which of the following enzyme-catalyzed steps,

incorporation of elements of water into an intermediate of the cycle takes place :

(A) Citrate synthase (B) Aconitase

(C) Maleate dehydrogenase (D) Succinyl Co-A synthase

Ans: B

• At aconitase and fumarase enzyme steps only water is completely incorporated. In

the remaining water acts as source of hydroxyl or hydrogen atom

Q.No. 67 Aminotransferases usually require the following for their activity

(A) Niacinamide (B)Vitamin B12

(C) Pyridoxal phosphate (D) Thiamine

Ans: C

Q.No. 68 Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to

(A) increase their biological activity

(B) increase their disposition in lipophilic compartments of the body

(C) increase their aqueous solubility

(D) all of the above

Ans: C

• A xenobiotic is a compound that is foreign to the body. The principal classes of

xenobiotics of medical relevance are drugs, chemical carcinogens.

• The overall purpose of the metabolism of xenobiotics is to increase their water

solubility (polarity) and thus excretion from the body

Q.No. 69 Oxidative phosphorylation involves

(A) Electron transport system

(B) Substrate level phosphorylation

(C) Reaction catalyzed by succinic thiokinase in TCA cycle

(D) None of the above



Ans: A

• In citric acid cycle phosphorylations occur at the substrate level.

Q.No. 70 The following protein/polypeptide has a quaternary structure :

(A) cc-Chymotrypsin (B) Hemoglobin

(C) Insulin (D) Myoglobin

Ans: B

• Hemoglobin exhibits characteristics of both the tertiary and quaternary structures of

proteins

Q.No. 71 Coulter counter is used in determination of

(A) particle surface area (B) particle size

(C) particle volume (D)all of A, B, C

Ans: D

Q. No. 72 Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by

(A) first order kinetics (B)second order kinetics

(C) zero order kinetics (D) non-linear kinetics

Ans: C

• Drug degradation form suspension mainly follows zero order kinetics where the rate

depends on the drug solubility

Q.No. 73 Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics

eliminate

(A) bi-exponentially (B) tri-exponentially

(C) non-exponentially (D) mono-exponentially

Ans: D

• These follow first order kinetics



Q.No. 74 In nail polish, following polymer is used as a film-former :

(A) Nitrocellulose (B) Polylactic acid

(C) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (D) Cellulose acetate phthalate

Ans: A

• Nitro cellulose

• Cellulose acetate

• Cellulose aceto buterat

• Ethyl cellulose

• Methacrylate and venyl resins

Q.No. 75 The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold

temperature is given as

(A) temperature between 8°C and 25°C (B) temperature below 20C

(C) temperature at 0°C (D) temperature between 2cC and S:C

Ans: D

• Cold - Any temperature not exceeding 8o and usually between 2o and 8o. A

refrigerator is a cold place in which the temperature is maintained thermostatically

between 2o and 8o.

• Cool - Any temperature between 8 o and 25 o. An article for which storage in a cool

place is directed may, alternately, be stored in a refrigerator, unless otherwise

specified in the individual monograph.

Q.No. 76 Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using

(A) Sheep blood (B) Mice lymph

(C) Horse plasma (D) Fertile eggs

Ans: D

• A method for preparing a rabies vaccine wherein rabies viruses are multiplied in

poultry embryos, the heads of the embryos are harvested and the cell extract

containing the rabies antigens is separated therefrom for differential centrifugation

and density gradient centrifugation, the separated antigen is further processed using

conventional methods. This process results in a highly selective concentration of



antigens and the production of viruses having a very high activity and freedom from

contaminating proteins.

Q.No. 77 Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by

(A) hydrogen bond formation (B) covalent bond formation

(C) complex formation (D) the action of London forces

Ans: A

� Glycerols

� Sorbitol

� Propylene glycol

Q.No. 78 Thioglycolic acid-like compounds have applications in following type of

cosmetic formulations :

(A) Depilatory preparations (B) Epilatory preparations

(C) Vanishing creams (D) Skin tan preparations

Ans: A

• Thioglycolic Acid is an organic compound that contains a thiol group (-SH) and

carboxylic acid. It is a colorless liquid. Thioglycolic Acid and some salts are used in

hair coloring products, permanent wave products, hair straightening products and

depilatory products

Q.No. 79 In the mixing of thymol and menthol the following type of incompatibility

occurs :

(A) Chemical incompatibility (B) Therapeutic incompatibility

(C) Physical incompatibility (D) Tolerance incompatibility

Ans: C



Q.No. 80 Which one of the following is a flocculating agent for a negatively

charged drug?

(A) Aluminium chloride (B) Bentonite

(C) Tragacanth (D) Sodium biphosphate

Ans: A

Q.No. 81 Bloom strength is used to check the quality of

(A) Lactose (B) Ampoules

(C) Hardness of tablets (D)Gelatin

Ans: D

• Gelatin is used as a material for forming capsule shell. Bloom strength is one of the

parameter that defines the nature of capsule shell whether it is soft or hard.

Q.No. 82 The healing agent used in hand creams is

(A) soft paraffin (B) urea

(C) bees wax (D) stearyl alcohol

Ans: B

• Two healing agents used in hand creams are allantoin and urea

Q.No. 83 The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics include :

(A) Area under the curve is proportional to the dose

(B) Elimination half-life remains constant,

(C) Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose

(D) Amount of drug excreted through remains constant

Ans: C



• Mixed order or non-linear kinetics does not show proportionality of AUC with dose

Q.No. 84 Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for

(A) Effective renal blood flow (B) Renal drug excretion rate

(C) Active renal secretion (D) Glomerular filtration rate

Ans: D

• The GFR can be determined by injecting inulin into the plasma. Since inulin is neither

reabsorbed nor secreted by the kidney after glomerular filtration, its rate of excretion

is directly proportional to the rate of filtration of water and solutes across the

glomerular filter.

Q.No. 85 In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP

is

(A) Schedule M (B) Schedule C (C) Schedule Y (D) Schedule H

Ans: A

Q.No. 86 The Volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg

and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL instantaneous concentration in plasma shall

be

(A)10 L (B) 100 L (C) 1.0 L (D) 0.10 L

Ans: A

Q.No. 87 A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous

injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram hr/mL,

respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration

is

(A) 125% (B) 250 % (C) 12.5% (D) 1.25%



Ans: C

Q.No. 88 It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10

microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L.

The dose required in a sustained release product will be

(A) 600 mg (B) 300 mg (C) 30 mg (D) 60 mg

Ans: A

Q.No. 89 Geriatric population should be included in the following Phase of clinical

trials

(A) Phase I (B) Phase II (C) Phase III (D) Phase IV

Ans: C

Q.No. 90 Which one of the following is NOT an ex-officio member of Pharmacy

Council of India?

(A) The Director General of Health Services

(B) The Director of Central Drugs Laboratory

(C) The Drugs Controller General of India

(D) The Director of Pharmacopoeia Laboratory

Ans: D

Q.No. 91 Class 100 area is referred to

(A) Manufacturing area (B) Aseptic area

(C) Clean room (D) Ware house



Ans: B

Q.No. 92 In which of the following techniques the sample is kept below triple

point?

(A) Lyophilization (B) Spray drying

(C) Spray congealing (D) Centrifugation

Ans: A

Q.No. 93 How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5

liters of 1:2000 w/v solution?

(A) 750 mL (B) 1000 mL (c) 1250 mL (D) 1500 mL

Ans: C

Q.No. 94 Which filler can NOT be used for the preparation of tablets for amine

containing basic drugs to avoid discoloration of the tablets?

(A) Dicalcium phosphate (B) Microcrystalline cellulose

(C) Starch (D) Lactose

Ans: D

• It leads to maillard reaction

Q.No. 95 Highly branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled

structures with all bonds originating from a central core are known as

(A) cyclodextrins (B) dextrans (C)dendrimers (D) liposomes

Ans: C



Q.No. 96 The ability of human eye using illuminated area to detect a particle is

limited to

(A) 0.4 micron (B) 25 micron (C) 50 micron (D) 10 micron

Ans: C

Q.No. 97 Which one of the following is the commonly used bulking agent in the

formulation of freeze dried low dose drug products?

(A) Sodium chloride (B) Mannitol

(C) Starch (D) HPMC

Ans: B

• Mannitol

• Glycine

• Mannitol can crystallize during slow warming or during primary drying resulting in

vial breakage

• Provides mechanical strength in presence of amorphous stabilizer

• Typically recommend at least a 3:1 ratio of bulking agent:stabilizer

• Good for low dose drug with stabilizer

Q.No. 98 What quantities of 95 % v/v and 45 % v/v alcohols are to be mixed to

make 800 mL of 65 % v/v alcohol?

(A) 480 mL of 95 % and 320 mL of 45 % alcohol 4

(B) 320 mL of 95 % and 480 mL of 45 % alcohol

(C) 440 mL of 95 % and 360 mL of 45 % alcohol

(D) 360 mL of 95 % and 440 mL of 45 % alcohol



Ans: B

• The ratio of 95% and 45% alcohols to be mixed is 2:3

Q.No. 99 The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to describe

(A) First order kinetics (B) Zero order kinetics

(C) Mixed order kinetics (D)Dissolution rate

Ans: D

Q.No. 100 The role of borax in cold creams is

(A) anti-microbial agent

(B) to provide fine particles to polish skin

(C) in-situ emulsifier

(D) antioxidant

Ans: C

• Borax acts as in-situ emulsifier when used along with bees-wax. It assists the

emulsification. It also has weak antiseptic property.

Key

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