IBPS Clerk Main Practice Set 03

8/17/2019 IBPS Clerk Main Practice Set 03

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IBPS CLERK MAIN PRACTICE SET-03

Test-I: Reasoning Ability

Directions (Q. 1-5): Read the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.

There is a group of six persons living in a four-storeyed building. The persons are A, B, C, D, E and F.

Each storey of the building has two flats.Thus, there are eight flats in all and two of them are vacant.

(i) C is heavier than B, who in turn is heavier than F.

(ii) The heaviest of the group lives on the top floor while the lightest lives on the ground floor.

(iii) E is lighter than D.

(iv) One of the flats on the first floor is vacant while one on the second floor is also vacant.

(v) A is neither the heaviest nor the lightest.

(vi) There are only two people heavier than C. A is not one of them.

(vii) B shares the floor with the heaviest of the group while C shares it with the lightest.

1. Who among the following is the heaviest in the group?

1) A 2) C 3) D4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

2. On which floor does A live?

1) Ground floor 2) First floor 3) Second floor

4) Top floor 5) Cannot be determined

3. Who among the following shares the floor with C?

1) F 2) E 3) A

4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these

4. E and A live

1) on two adjacent floors 2) on the same floor 3) with one floor between their floors 4) with two floors between their floors

5) Cannot be determined

5. Starting from the heaviest of the group, what is the rank of A in order of weight?

1) Fourth 2) Fifth 3) Sixth

4) Either fourth or fifth 5) Cannot be determined

Directions (Q. 6-10): Study the following arrangement of numbers, letters and symbols carefully

and answer the questions given below:

R @ 2 9 T V A Y 5 © # J 1 P 8 Q $ E 3 H % 6 W 4 I U Z

6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement

and so form a group. Which is the one That does not belong to that group?

1) J P © 2) E Q 3) W I % 4) 9 V @ 5) 1 # 5

7. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the nineteenth element from the right end?

1) J 2) V 3) W 4) 8 5) None of these

8. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded

by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol ?

1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four


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9. If the positions of the last eighteen elements in the above arrangement are reversed, which of the

following will be the seventeenth from the left end ?

1) H 2) P 3) W 4) 6 5) None of these

10. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is either immediately

followed by a symbol or immediately preceded by a symbol ?

1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four

Directions (Q. 11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions givenbelow :

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre not necessarily in the

same order. F is fourth to the left of A and second to the right of C. B is second to the left of A, and

A is to the immediate right of G. E who is not an immediate neighbour of B is fourth to the left of D.

11. Which of the following is correct?

1) F is third to the left of B 2) H is third to the left of D

3) C is third to the left of B 4) E is third to the left of F

5) All are correct

12. What is H’s position with respect to G?

1) Fifth to the right 2) Third to the left

3) Third to the right 4) F ifth to the left

5) Fourth to the left

13. Who is second to the right of E ?

1) C 2) H 3) G 4) A 5) Data inadequate

14. Who is to the immediate right of F?

1) D 2) H 3) B 4) C 5) None of these

15. Which of the following pairs represents the immediate neighbours of A ?

1) EB 2) GC 3) EG 4) ED 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 16-20): In the following questions, the symbols ©, , $, and % are used with the

following meaning as illustrated below:

(i) ‘A d B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’

(ii) ‘A% B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.

(iii) ‘A © B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.

(iv) ‘A $ B’ means ‘A is greater than B’.

(v) ‘A B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two

conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true ?

Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.

Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true.

Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.

Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.

Give answer (5) if both Conclusions I and II are true.

16. Statements: R $ J, J % M, M © K

Conclusions : I.K©J

II.K J

17. Statements: D R, M $ R, M © FConclusions : I.F$ D


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II.F$ R

18. Statements: H © F, F $ R, R K

Conclusions : I.R H

II.K$F

19. Statements: B%D, DT, T R

Conclusions : I.B$TII.R$D

20. Statements. M % N, N A, A $ B

Conclusions : I.B N

II.A$M

Directions (Q. 21-25) : Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements

numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the

statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer

1) if the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II

alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

2) if the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement

I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

4) if the data given in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

21. Village P is towards which direction of village R ?

I.Village R is to the South- East of village T and T is to the North of village P.

II.Village Q is to the South of village P and to the South-West of village R.

22. Who among A, B, C, D and E, each having a different height, is the third tallest?

I.E is shorter than only B.II.C is taller than only A.

23. How many sisters does K have?

I.M is sister of K.

II.K’s mother has three children.

24. In a row of thirty students facing North, what is R’s position from the left end ?

I.There are twelve students between R and Q.

II.T is tenth from the right end and there are sixteen students between T and R.

25. How is ‘go’ written in a code language ?

I.‘go over there’ is written as ‘pa da na’ in that code language,II.‘go and sit’ is written as ‘sa ka pa’ in that code language.

Directions (Q. 26-30) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below :

Following are the conditions for selecting Accounts Officer in an organization.

The candidate must—

(i)be at least 21 years and not more than 26 years as on 01.11.2011.

(ii)be a Commerce graduate (B.Com.) with at least 55% aggregate marks,

(iii)have work experience of at least 2 years in the Accounts department of an organization,

(iv)have secured at least 50% marks in the selection process.


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In the case of a candidate who fulfils all the conditions except—

(a)at (i) above but at least 21 years old and not more than 28 years old and has work experience of

five years as Accounts Assistant in an organization, his/her case is to be referred to GM- Accounts.

(b)at (ii) above, but has secured at least 50% aggregate marks in graduation and has secured at least

55% marks in the selection process, his/her case is to be referred to VP-Accounts.

In each question below, details of one candidate are provided. You have to take one of the fallowing

courses of actions based on the conditions given above and the information provided in each question

and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not to assume anything other

than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 01.11.2011.Mark answer

1) if the case is to be referred to GM-Accounts.

2) if the case is to be referred to VP-Accounts.

3) if the candidate is to be selected.

4) if the candidate is not to be selected.

5) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.

Now read the information provided in each question and mark your answer accordingly.

26. Ramesh was born on 25th November 1989. He has secured 60% aggregate marks in B.Com. and

65% marks in the Selection Process. He has been working in the Accounts department of an

organization for the past three years.

27. Pratima was born on 6th June 1988. She has secured 60% aggregate marks in B.Com. and 49%

marks in the Selection Process. She has been working in the Accounts Department of an organization

for the past three years.

28. Anil has secured 55% aggregate marks in graduation. He has been working for past four years in the

Accounts department of an organization. He has secured 50% marks in the Selection Process. He

was born on 12th July 1988.

29. Abha was born on 18th April 1985. She has been working as Accounts Assistant in an organization

for the past five years. She has secured 60% aggregate marks in B. Com. and 55% marks in the

Selection Process.

30. Atul has secured 50% aggregate marks in B.Com. and 60% marks in the Selection Process. He has

been working in the Accounts department of an organization for past four years. He was born on

2nd January 1987.

Directions (Q. 31-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given

below:

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven friends. Each of them likes a particular fruit, viz. Apple, Banana, Pear,

Guava, Orange, Mango and Watermelon and each of them has a favourite city, viz. Mumbai, Pune,

Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai, Hyderabad and Cochin. The choices of fruit and favourite city of the

seven friends are not necessarily in the same order.

B likes Mango and her favourite city is Chennai. The one whose favourite city is Pune likes Watermelon.E’s favourite city is Kolkata. C likes Guava and his favourite city is not Mumbai. G’s favourite city

is Cochin and he does not like either Banana or Pear. The favourite city of the one who likes Orange

is Hyderabad. E does not like Pear. A’s favourite city is neither Pune nor Hyderabad. D does not like

Watermelon.

31. Who likes Apple?

1) G 2) E 3) F 4) A 5) Data inadequate

32. Which fruit does A like?

1) Apple 2) Orange 3) Pear 4) Watermelon 5) None of these


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33. Which is C’s favourite city?

1) Mumbai 2) Pune 3) Hyderabad 4) Delhi 5) None of these

34. Which of the following combinations of Person-Fruit-City is incorrect?

1) C - Guava - Kolkata 2) F - Watermelon - Hyderabad

3) E-Banana-Cochin 4) D - Guava - Delhi

5) All are incorrect

35. Which is F’s favourite city ?

1) Hyderabad 2) Pune 3) Mumbai 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions

numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be

at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically

follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

1) if only conclusion I follows.

2) if only conclusion II follows.

3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows,

5) if both conclusions I and II follow.

36. Statements: Some gears are wheels.

All wheels are brakes.

Conclusions: I. No brake is gear.

II.Atleast some gears are brakes.

37. Statements: No month is a year.

No year is a second.

Conclusions: I.All months are seconds.

II. No second is month.

38. Statements: No plane is hill.

Some hills are towns.

Conclusions: I. No town is plane.

II.Some towns are planes.

39. Statements: All metals are liquids.

All liquids are gases.

Conclusions: I.All metals are gases.

II.Atleast some gases are liquids.

40. Statements: Some cities are towns.

Some villages are cities.Conclusions: I.Atleast some villages are towns.

II. No village is a town.

Test-II: English Language

Directions (Q. 41-50) : Read the following passage to answer the given questions bused on it. Some

words/phrases are printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the

questions.


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Political ploys initially hailed as master-strokes often end up as flops. The Rs. 60,000 crore farm loan

waiver announced in the budget writes off 100% of overdues of small and marginal farmers holding

upto two hectares, and 25% of overdues of larger farmers. While India has enjoyed 8%-9% GDP

growth for the past few years, the boom has bypassed many rural areas and farmer distress and

suicides have made newspaper headlines. Various attempts to provide relief (employment guarantee

scheme, public distribution system) have made little impact, thanks to huge leakages from the

government’s lousy delivery systems. So, many economists think the loan waiver is a worthwhile

alternative to provide relief.

However the poorest rural folk are landless labourers who get neither farm loans nor waivers. Half of the small and marginal farmers get no loans from banks, and depend entirely on moneylenders, and

will not benefit. Besides, rural India is full of the family holdings rather than individual holdings

and family holdings will typically be much larger than two hectares even for dirt-poor farmers, who

will, therefore, be denied the 100% waiver. It will thus fail in both economic and political objectives.

IRDP loans to the rural poor in the 1980s demonstrated that crooked bank officials demand bribes

amounting to one third the intended benefits. Very few of the intended beneficiaries who merited

relief received it. After the last farm loan waiver will similarly slow down fresh loans to deserving

farmers. While overdues to co-operatives may be higher, economist Snrjit Bhalla says less than 5%

of farmer loans to banks are overdue ie overdues exist for only 2.25 million out of 90 million

farmers. If so, then the 95% who have repaid loans will not benefit. They will be angry at being

penalised for honesty.

The budget thus grossly overestimates the number of beneficiaries. It also underestimates the negativeeffects of the waiver encouraging wilful default in the future and discouraging fresh bank lending

for some years. Instead of trying to reach the needy, through a plethora of leaky schemes we should

transfer cash directly to the needy using new technology like biometric smart cards, which are now

being used in many countries, and mobile phones bank accounts. Then benefits can go directly to

phone accounts operable only by those with biometric cards, ending the massive leakages of current

schemes.

The political benefits of the loan waiver have also been exaggerated since if only a small fraction of

farm families benefit, and many of these have to pay bribes to get the actual benefit, will the waiver

really be a massive vote-winner? Members of joint families will feel aggrieved that, despite having

less than one hectare per head , their family holding is too large to qualify for the 100% waiver. All

finance ministers, of central or state governments, give away freebies in their last budgets, hopingto win electoral regards. Yet, four-fifth of all incumbent governments are voted out. This shows

that beneficiaries of favours are not notably grateful , while those not so favoured may feel aggrieved,

and vote for the opposition. That seems to be why election budgets constantly fail to win elections

in India and the loan waiver will not change that pattern.

41. Why do economists feel that loan waivers will benefit farmers in distress?

1)It will improve the standard of living of those farmers who can afford to repay their loans but are

exempted.

2)Other government relief measures have proved ineffective,

3)Suicide rates of farmers have declined after the announcement of the waiver.

4)Farmers will be motivated to increase the size of their family holdings not individual holdings.

5)The government will be forced to reexamine and improve the public distribution system.

42. What message will the loan waiver send to farmers who have repaid loans?

1)The Government will readily provide them with loans in the future.

2)As opposed to money lenders banks are a safer and more reliable source of credit.

3)Honesty is the best policy.

4)It is beneficial to take loans from co-operatives since their rates of interest are lower.

5)They will be angry at being penalised for honesty.

43.

What is the author’s suggestion to provide aid to farmers?

1)Families should split their joint holding to take advantage of the loan waiver.


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2)The government should increase the reach of the employment guarantee scheme.

3)Loans should be disbursed directly into bank accounts of the farmers using the latest technology.

4)Government should ensure that loans waivers can be implemented over the number of years.

5)Rural infrastructure can be improved using schemes which were successful abroad.

44. What are the terms of the loan waiver?

(A) One-fourth of the overdue loans of landless labourers will be written off.

(B) The Rs. 60,000 crore loan waiver has been sanctioned for 2.25 million marginal farmers.

(C) Any farmer with between 26 per cent to 100 per cent of their loan repayments overdue will be penalised.

1) Only (A) 2) Only (B) 3) Both (B) and (C)

4) All (A), (B) and (C) 5) None of these

45. Which of the following will definitely be an impact of loan waivers ?

A)Family holdings will be split into individual holdings not exceeding one hectare.

B) The public distribution system will be revamped.

C) Opposition will denfinitely win the election.

1) None 2) Only (A) 3) Both (A) and (B)

4) Only (C) 5) All (A), (B) and (C)

46. What impact will the loan waiver have on banks?

(1) Banks have to bear the entire brunt of the write off.

(2) Loss of trust in banks by big farmers.

(3) Corruption among bank staff will increase.

(4) Farmers will make it a habit to default on loans

5) None of these

Direction (Q. 47-48): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word

printed in bold as used in the passage.

47. incumbent

1) mandatory 2) present 3) incapable 4) tazy 5) officious

48. ploys

1) surveys 2) entreaties 3) ruses 4) sliders 5) assurances

Directions (Q. 49-50): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed

in bold as used in the passage.

49. plethora

1) dearth 2) missing 3) superfluous 4) sufficient 5) least

50. merited

1) ranked 2) unqualified for 3) lacked 4) inept at 5) unworthy of

Directions (Q. 51-55): Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace thephrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful

and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and ‘No correction is required,’ mark (5) as the

answer.

51. He behaved though it was his fault, but we knew he was not responsible for it.

1) even though, it was 2) though it was not

3) as if it was 4) despite it was not

5) No correction required

52. She never felt that it was not of her business to get involved in somebody else’s family matter.

1) were not of her business 2) was none of her business


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3) was of not her business 4) was not of her businesses


53. Being born in a certain family is not in our control.

1) Be born 2) Taking born 3) By birth

4) Being borned 5) No correction required

54. I was taken back by his sudden comment on this issue.

1) would be taken back by 2) was taken backwards by

3) was taken back for 4) was taken aback by


55. In a matter of seconds, we come to know of what is happening anywhere in the world.

1) came to know of 2) come to be known of

3) come to know off 4) are coming to know of


Directions (Q. 56-60) : In each of these questions, two sentences (I) and (II) are given. Each sentence

has a blank in it. Five words (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are suggested. Out of these, only one fits at

both the places in the context of each sentence. Number of that word is the answer.56. I.He is_______ with whatever little he has.

II.They kept the _______ of the communication a secret.

1) happy 2) matter 3) gist 4) content 5) sense

57. I.It is hard lo believe the _______ of operations involved in this activity.

II.The map is drawn to a _______ of 1 inch to 50 km.

1) magnitude 2) size 3) scale 4) proportion 5) significance

58. I.Heavy snow did _______ the rescue efforts.

II.The food was kept in a _______.

1) delay 2) bundle 3) basket 4) hamper 5) holder

59. I.They left _______ after breakfast.

II.It is difficult to find a _______ person for this job.

1) right 2) immediately 3) suitable 4) best 5) soon

60. I.He would always do _______ was told by his superiors.

II.He appeared on stage _______ a narrator of the drama.

1) as 2) what 3) about 4) whatever 5) always

Directions (Q. 61-65): In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is

given. These are numbered as (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these four words printed in bold may

be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word,which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all

the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence,

mark (5) ie ‘All Correct’ as your answer.

61. In our daily life, we frequancly (1)/ observe (2)/ how disruptive (3)/ innovations (4)/ are wiping

out businesses. All correct (5)

62. We decided (1)/ to look after (2)/ the mistake (3)/ by just ignoring (4)/ it. All correct (5)

63. The accomodation (1)/ though (2)/ was in a good locality (3)/ the construction (4)/ work was not

good All correct(5)


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64. Despite (l)/ the obviously (2)/ advantages, (3)/ is it really worth-while(4)/ to invest in the device?

All correct (5)

65. We also gained (l)/ ample (2)/ experience (3)/ in the banking sector. (4)/ All correct (5)

Directions (Q. 66-70) : Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical mistake/

error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark the number of the part

with error as your answer. If there is no error, mark (5).66. To run a company effectively (1)/ it is very important (2)/ in knowing the strengths and weaknesses

(3)/ of the employees. (4)/ No error (5)

67. The land records (1) / of this district (2)/ will computerise (3)/ by next year. (4)/ No error (5)

68. The Head Office has (1)/ issued instructions that (2)/ the performance of all Zonal Managers (3)/

have to assess by a committee. (4)/ No error (5)

69. She has promised to (1)/ donate the funds to (2)/ establish a library in many (3)/ villages in India.

(4)/ No error (5)

70. We have already (1)/ submitted our application (2)/ and expect to receive (3)/ our licence in thirty

days. (4) No error (5)

Directions (Q. 71-80) : In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.

These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one

of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

In the 1980s Japan was regarded as a highly developed country. However in recent years, Japan’s growth

has (71) and the recent earthquake and tsunami have (72) devastated the country. As their nation

(73) to cope with the disaster, its youth are (74) to meet the challenges. Many young Japanese have

become (75) not only contributing essential items and money, (76) also co-ordinating rescue efforts.

Few people (77) that Japan’s young people would bring about its (78) after all nearly one in ten

youth were unemployed, many (79) only part-time and young people were only supposed to have(80) on their minds.

Often it takes a huge crisis to make a society change to achieve its potential.

71. l) stop 2) decrease 3) drop 4) declined 5) fell

72. 1) too 2) also 3) not 4) caused 5) complete

73. 1) competes 2) efforts 3) need 4) struggling 5) tries

74. 1) together 2) started 3) rising 4) co-operative 5) failing

75. 1) knowledgeable 2) heroes 3) volunteer 4) jobless 5) powerful

76. 1) without 2) even 3) instead 4) but 5) besides

77. 1) thought 2) dream 3) realise 4) know 5) perceived

78. 1) changes 2) downfall 3) renewal 4) reforms 5) independence

79. 1) worked 2) earnings 3) employee 4) wages 5) hire

80.1) business 2) troubles 3) fun 4) responsibility 5) worry


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Test-III: Quantitative Aptitude

Directions (Q. 81-85): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following

questions?

81. 5 × ? = 8042 ÷ 4

1) 296.1 2) 5433.6 3) 10052.5 4) 402.1 5) None of these

82. 206 × 71 – 12080 = ?

1) 2546 2) 2654 3) 2564 4) 2645 5) None of these

83. ?11

6

14

9

7

3

1)22

92)

11

73)

11

44)

22

7(5) None of these

84. 260122? 1) 841 2) (841)

2 3) 22 4) 22 5) None of these

85. ?2

13

8

31

5

42

1)40

174 2)

40

374 3)

40

273 4)

40

113 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 86-90): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in

the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

86. (12.999)3 = ?1) 1800 2) 2100 3) 2000 4) 2500 5) 2200

87. 50550 ÷ 50 ÷ 5 = ?

1) 350 2) 150 3) 300 4) 250 5) 200

88. 49.0003 ÷ 74.999 = ?

1) 0.05 2) 0.2 3) 1 4) 0.7 5) 2

89. 23.003 × 22.998 + 100.010 = ?

1) 630 2) 550 3) 700 4) 720 5) 510

90. 125.009 + 69.999 + 104.989 = ?

1) 420 2) 300 3) 285 4) 415 5) 325

Directions (Q. 91-95) : What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number

series?

91. 2 14 84 420 1680 5040 ?

l) 8940 2) 8680 3) 10080 4) 5030 5) None of these

92. 3 58 13 21 34 ?

1) 62 2) 57 3) 55 4) 74 5) None of these


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93. 1 2 6 21 ? 445 2676

1) 88 2) 77 3) 52 4) 64 5) None of these

94. 27 125 ? 729 1331 2197 3375

1) 612 2) 347 3) 216 4) 343 5) None of these

95. 10400 2600 650 ? 40.625 10.15625 2.5390625

1) 175.5 2) 162.5 3) 154.75 4) 156.25 5) None of these

96. The average of four consecutive odd numbers A, B, C and D respectively is 24. What is the product

of B and D?

1) 384 2) 475 3) 621 4) 625 5) None of these

97. Samir walks 150 metres every day. How many kilometres will he walk in 3 weeks?

1) 2.15 2) 4.92 3)4.18 4) 3.15 5) None of these

98. The area of a square is thrice the area of a rectangle. If the area of the square is 225sq cm and the

length of the rectangle is 15 cm, what is the difference between the breadth of the rectangle and the

side of the square ?

1) 8 cm 2) 10 cm 3) 12 cm 4) 16 cm 5) None of these

99. Find the average of the following set of scores— 125, 236, 334, 486, 564, 625, 702, 800

1) 448 2) 482 3) 624 4) 542 5) None of these

100.A truck covers a certain distance in 12 hours at the speed of 70 km/hr. What is the average speed of

a car which travels a distance of 120 km more than the truck in the same time?

1) 56km./hr. 2) 75 km./hr. 3) 82 km./hr. 4) 78 km./hr. 5) None of these

101. The difference between 55% of a number and 14% of the same number is 8610. What is 85% of

that number ?

1) 17850 2) 15820 3) 17020 4) 18450 5) None of these

102. Mala’s monthly income is two-third of Kajal’s monthly income. Kajal’s annual income is ` 4,32,000.

What is Mala’s annual income? (In some cases monthly income and in some cases annual income is

used)

1) ` 2,92,000 2) ` 2,63,500 3) ` 2,48,200 4) ` 2,88,000 5) None of these

103. At present Sheetal is three times Surabhi’s age. After seven years Sheetal will be twice Surabhi’s

age then. How many times will Sheetal’s age be in another fourteen years time with respect to

Surabhi’s age then ?

1) 1 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1.5 5) None of these

104. Animesh got 102 marks in Hindi, 118 marks in Science, 104 marks in Sanskrit, 114 marks in

Maths and 96 marks in English. The maximum marks of each subject are 120. How much overall percentage of marks did Animesh get?

1) 89 2) 82 3) 77 4) 71 5) None of these

105. 6 women alone can complete a piece of work in 10 days, whereas 10 children alone take 15 days to

complete the same piece of work. How many days will 6 women and 10 children together take to

complete the piece of work ?

1) 7 2) 8 3) 6 4) 4 5) None of these

Directions (Q. 106-110): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have

to solve both the equations and give answer


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1) if x > y 2) if x y 3) if x < y 4) if x y5) if x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established

106.I.7x2 – 9x + 2 = 0 II.y2 – 4y + 3 = 0

107.I.x2 = 64 II.2y2 + 25y + 72 = 0

108.I.x2 + x – 20 = 0 II.2y2 – 19y + 45 = 0

109.I.7x + 3y = 26 II.2x + 17y = – 41

110.I.3x2 – 20x + 33 = 0 II.2y2 – 11y + 15 = 0

Directions (Q. 111-115): The following graph shows the ratio of imports to exports of two companies

A and B in different years.

0 .8

0 . 3 5

0 . 4 5

0 .80 . 7 5

1 .1

0 .7

1 .2

1 . 0 5

0 . 7 5

0 .50 .6

1 .0

0

0 .1

0 .2

0 .3

0 .4

0 .5

0 .6

0 .70 .8

0 .9

11 .1

1 .2

2 0 0 4 2 0 0 5 2 0 0 6 2 0 0 7 2 0 0 8 2 0 0 9 2 0 1 0

C o m p a n y A C o m p a n y B

111.The ratio of imports to exports of Company B in year 2006 is what percentage of the ratio of imports

to exports of Company A in year 2009?

1) 40% 2) 30% 3) 120% 4) 140% 5) 130%

112.If imports of Company A in year 2008 was 78 lakh, what will be the exports of Company B in thesame year?

1) 78 lakh 2) 156 lakh 3) 39 lakh 4) 117 lakh 5) None of these

113.If the sum of exports of Company A in year 2007 and Company B in year 2004 is 180 lakh, what

will be the sum of imports of Company A in year 2007 and Company B in year 2004?

1) 144 lakh 2) 180 lakh 3) 225 lakh 4) 90 lakh 5) None of these

114.If exports of A and imports of B in year 2009 are equal and they are 120 lakh each, what will be the

difference between exports of B and imports of A in year 2009?

1) 18 lakh 2) 40 lakh 3) 80 lakh 4) 110 lakh 5) 145 lakh

115.If the imports of Company A in year 2008 and exports of Company B in year 2005 are 80 lakh and

60 lakh respectively, the imports of Company B in year 2005 are what percentage of exports of

Company A in year 2008?

1) 45% 2) 90% 3) 75% 4) 222.22% 5) 111.11%

Directions (Q. 116-120): Following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of total population

of different cities and the distribution of literate males and females among them. Total

population of all six cities together is 1.5 crore and the ratio of males to females among them

is 8 : 7. Total literate males and females in all cities are 40 and 25 lakh respectively.


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F 10%

E 20%

A 16%

B 18%

C 21%D 15%

B 12%

A 18%F 15%

E 19%

C 20%D 16%

Total Population = 1.5 crore Literate Males = 40 lakh

B 18%

F 10%

E 20%

D 16%

C 12%

A 24%

Literate Females = 25 lakh

116.What is the total illiterate population of City A?

1) 10.8 lakh 2) 14.2 lakh 3) 16.8 lakh 4) 18 lakh 5) None of these

117.Total literate males of City E are what percentage of total literate females of City F?

1) 32.89% 2) 118% 3) 196% 4) 240% 5) 304%

118.Total literate population of City E is what percentage of its total population?

1) 25.33% 2) 16.66% 3) 26% 4) 42% 5) 64%

119.What is the difference between total illiterate population and total literate population of City C?

1) 8.5 lakh 2) 9.5 lakh 3) 10.5 lakh 4) 11 lakh 5) 20.5 lakh

120.Total number of literate males of City D is what percentage more than the total number of literate

female of City D?1) 60% 2) 38.46% 3) 61.538% 4) 120% 5) 160%

Test-IV: General Awareness

(With special reference to Banking Industry)

121. Which of the following countries has the world’s largest foreign exchange reserves at

present? Its foreign exchange reserves rose in Oct to $3.5255 tn.

1) US 2) Japan 3) India 4) Switzerland 5) China

122. Which of the following states is a major producer of sugar in India?1) Goa 2) Punjab 3) Jammu and Kashmir

4) Himachal Pradesh 5) Maharashtra

123. A bank branch receives a counterfeit note of ` 100 from the customer, which customer wants it

back. Which of the following action should be taken by the Bank?

1)Will return to customer

2)Will impound and not return

3)Will ask for exchange of note

4)Will replace with genuine note

5)Will check all the notes in possession with the customer which are not being deposited also


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124. Which of the following is not a mode of foreign capital inflow in India ?

1) FDI 2) NRI deposits 3) FII 4) No frills accounts 5) None of these

125. Exporters and importers in India are required to know ‘FEMA’ rules. What does the letter ‘M’

denote in the term ‘FEMA’ ?

1) Money 2) Material 3) Mega 4) Management 5) Micro

126. PM Narendra Modi, during his recent visit to Sri Nagar, announced to give a package of

__________ for the development of the state of Jammu & Kashmir.1) Rs 20,000 cr 2) Rs 50,000 cr 3) Rs 75,000 cr 4) Rs 80,000 cr 5) Rs 1 lakh cr

127. In a first such meeting in 66 years, the president of Republic of China (Taiwan) Ma Ying-jeou met

China’s president Xi Jinping in which country recently?

1) Singapore 2) Vietnam 3) Philippines 4) Malaysia 5) Indonesia

128. Which of the following states became the first to sign up for the recently launched UDAY scheme

of the central govt? Its discom had the highest debt exposure among all states.

1) Uttar Pradesh 2) Rajasthan 3) Maharashtra 4) Bihar 5) Odisha

129. Which of the following banks was not nationalized in 1969?

1) Punjab National Bank 2) Bank of India

3) State Bank of India 4) Bank of Baroda

5) Bank of Maharastra

130. Bad debts mean which of the following?

1)Amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid within a month

2)Amounts owed to a company that are not going to be paid

3)Amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid.

4)Amounts owed to a company that are not going to be paid within 3 years

5)Amounts owed to a company that are going to be paid within 6 months

131. _________ was officially declared free of Ebola by the World Health Organization (WHO) recently.1) Benin 2) Liberia 3) Sierra Leone 4) Senegal 5) Ghana

132. The RBI allowed state co-operative banks (StCBs) and district central co-operative banks (DCCBs)

to offer internet banking with _______ facility, recently.

1) transactional 2) view only 3) NEFT 4) IMPS 5) None of these

133. Which of the following is NOT a bank or finance company?

1) ABNAmro 2) HSBC 3) Lufthansa 4) BNP Paribas5) Barclays

134. The leaders of China and Taiwan met recently. Who among the following is the present President

of Taiwan?

1) Benigno Aquino 2) Hwang Kyo-ahn 3) Ma Ying-jeou

4) Park Geun-hye 5) Kim Jong-un

135. Who among the following is the new MD and CEO of the Indian Bank?

1) JK Garg 2) RK Takkar 3) Suresh N Patel

4) Mahesh Kumar Jain 5) KR Kamath

136. The Government of India, has acquired RBI’s stake in one of the major banks of India. Which of

the following is the bank ?

1) AXIS Bank 2) IDBI Bank 3) ICICI Bank 4) State Bank of India 5) None of these


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137. Lasith Malinga is a famous player associated with the game of—

1) Hockey 2) Badminton 3) Lawn Tennis 4) Cricket 5) Football

138. Credit Cards are known as—

1) Hard money 2) Easy money 3) Soft money 4) Plastic money 5) Real money

139. Who among the following is the President of Nepal at present and in news recently?

1) Sri Ram Baran Yadav 2) Sri Baburam Bhattarat

3) Smt Bidhya Devi Bhandari 4) Sri Madhav Kumar Nepal5) None of these

140. Which of the following is one of the sites from where Rockets are launched by ISRO, the Space

Agency of India ?

1) Sriharikota 2) Tarapore 3) Guwahati 4) Trombay 5) Jaitapur

141. The 21st International Conference on ‘Frontiers in Yoga Research and its Applications’ (INCOFYRA)

will be held in Jan 2016 in

1) New Delhi 2) Mumbai 3) Chennai 4) Haridwar 5) Bengaluru

142. The ‘Heart of Asia’ conference will be held on Dec 7 and 8 in which of the following countries to

discuss about the present situation of Afghanistan?1) Saudi Arabia 2) Pakistan 3) Iran 4) China 5) Azerbaijan

143. Sex Ratio (number of females per 1000 males) as per recent data released by the census commission

of India is —

1) 940 2) 980 3) 976 4) 943 5) 990

144. Ashok K Kantha is the Indian Ambassador to which of the following countries at present?

1) China 2) Japan 3) US 4) Germany 5) France

145. Which of the following instruments cannot be transferred from one person to another by

Endorsement?1) Fixed Deposit Receipt 2) Cheque 3) Bill of Exchange

4) Promissory Note 5) None of these

146. ‘Crossing’ applies to which of the following instruments?

1) Cheques 2) Bills 3) Promissory Notes

4) Hundies 5) Fixed Deposit receipts

147. Which of the following terms is NOT associated with the game of Football ?

1) Dead Ball 2) Back pass 3) Corner Kick 4) Maiden over 5) Goal Line

148. Which of the following is a Development Bank ?

1) HDFC Bank 2) National Housing Bank 3) Central Bank of India4) Saraswat Co. Op. Bank 5) HSBC Bank

149. RK Takkar was appointed as the Managing Director and CEO of the UCO Bank which is

headquartered at

1) Kolkata 2) Mumbai 3) Bengaluru 4) Kochi 5) Hyderabad

150. Which of the following assets can be mortgaged?

1) Stock 2) Book Debts 3) National Savings Certificates

4) Shares 5) Land and Building


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151. Preshipment packing credit advances are generally given by banks to—

1) Farmers 2) Retail Traders 3) Professionals

4) Exporters 5) Transport Operators

152. Among the banks in our country, which of the following is not a foreign bank ?

1) HSBC 2) Standard Chartered Bank 3) BNP Paribas

4) Citi Bank NA 5) Ing Vysya Bank

153.The US-based General Electric won a $2.6-bn order to supply 1,000 diesel locomotives to theIndian Railways. The company would build a diesel locomotive manufacturing facility in

1) Gandhidham, Gujarat 2) Bhatinda, Punjab 3) Marhowra, Bihar

4) Varanasi, UP 5) Gonda, UP

154. Which of the following is the unit of electric current ?

1) Kelvin 2) Mole 3) Candela 4) Erg 5) Ampere

155. Which of the following countries is a member of South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation

(SAARC)?

1) Azerbaijan 2) Nepal 3) Qatar 4) Oman 5) Vietnam

156. Which of the following is the Currency of Iran?

1) Dinar 2) Rial 3) Lari 4) Rufiyaa 5) Dirham

157. Which of the following is a foreign bank having offices/branches in India ?

1) Yes Bank 2) HDFC Bank 3) IDBI Bank

4) Karnataka Bank 5) Standard Chartered Bank

158. The Head Quarters of the International Court of Justice is located in—

1) Vienna 2) London 3) Tokyo 4) Paris 5) Hague

159. What are teaser loans?

1) Fixed Rate of Interest charged by Banks2) Floating rate of interest charged by banks

3) Rate of interest in the initial period is very less and increases steeply in later years

4) Rate of interest in the later years goes down substantiaily

5) None of these

160. Which of the following Awards is given for excellence in the field of Cinema?

1) Kalidas Samrnan 2) Dada Saheb Phalke Award

3) Saraswati Samman 4) Ashok Chakra

5) Kirti Chakra

Test-V: Computer Knowledge

161. The operation of combining two cells into a single cell in Excel is referred to as _ ______

1) Join Cells 2) Merge Cells 3) Merge Table 4) Join Table 5) None of these

162. Which of the following can be used to store a large number of files in a small amount of storage

space?

1) file adjustment 2) file copying 3) file reading

4) file compatibility 5) file compression


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163. In s computer most processing takes place in _ ______

1) Memory 2) RAM 3) Motherboard 4) CPU 5) None of these

164. Data is organized in a work sheet as _ ______

1) charts and diagrams 2) rows and columns 3) tables and boxes

4) graphs 5) None of these

165. Which of the following is an example of a binary number?

l) 6AH1 2) 100101 3) 005 4) ABCD 5) 23456

166. Spell Check will, find errors in which of the following?

1) Today is a rainy day 2) Today is a rainy a day 3) is a rainy

4) Rainy today a day 5) None of these

167. Which of the following is not a storage medium ?

1) hard disk 2) fiash drive 3) DVD 4) CD 5) keyboard

168. In Excel, when the contents and attributes of a cell or range of cells have to be erased using the

menu, the user must _ ______

1) Select the cells, choose Edit and select Clear, then All2) Select the cells, and click delete on the keyboard

3) Select the cells, choose Tools, and select Clear, then Formats

4) Select the cells, choose Tools, and select Formula Audit, then Delete

5) None of these

169. The computer-abbreviation KB usually means _ ______

1) Key Block 2) Kernel Boot 3) Kilo Byte 4) Kit Bit 5) None of these

170. If an Excel Worksheet is to be linked for use in a Power Point presentation, the following should be

clicked _ ______

1) Edit, Paste Special 2) Edit, Paste 3) Edit, Copy 4) File, Copy 5) None of these

171. RAM stands for _ ______

1) Random Access Memory 2) Ready Application Module

3) Read Access Memory 4) Remote Access Machine

5) None of these

172. Which of the following is hardware and not software?

1) Excel 2) Printer driver 3) Operating System

4) Power Point 5) Control Unit

173. In Word, which menu would the user select to print a document?

1) Tools 2) File 3) View 4) Window 5) None of these

174. Which of the following is not true about computer files?

1)They are collections of data saved to a storage medium.

2)Every file has a filename.

3)A file extension is established by the user to indicate the date it was created

4)Usually files contain data.

5)None of these

175. The common name for a modulator-demodulator is _ ______

1) modem 2) joiner 3) networker 4) connector 5) demod


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176. What do you see when you click the right mouse button?

1) The same effect as the left click 2) A special menu

3) No effect 4) A mouse cannot be right clicked

5) Computer goes to sleep mode

177. In order to choose the font for a sentence in a WORD document _ ______

1) select Font in the Format menu

2) select Font in the Edit menu

3) select Font in the Tools menu

4) select Font in the Insert menu

5) None of these

178. The ALU performs _ ______ operations.

1) logarithm-based 2) ASCII 3) algorithm-based

4) arithmetic 5) None of these

179. Excel is a program that is used to prepare a _ ______

1) Database 2) Text Document 3) Spreadsheet

4) Slide Presentation 5) None of these

180. _ ______consists of volatile chips that temporarily store data or instructions.

1) CPU 2) ROM 3) RMA 4) RAM 5) None of these

181. How many kilobytes make a megabyte?

1) 128 2) 1024 3) 256 4) 512 5) 64

182. In order to delete a sentence from a document you would use _ ______

1) highlight and copy 2) cut and paste

3) copy and paste 4) highlight and delete

5) select and paste

183. Editing a document that has been created means _ ______ 1) saving it 2) printing it 3) scanning it 4) correcting it 5) None of these

184. In a computer, how many bits does a nibble signify ?

1) 4 2) 8 3) 16 4) 32 5) 64

185. Which of the following is not true about a compiler ?

1) Translates instruction of a high level language into machine language

2) Translates entire source program into machine language program

3) It is involved in program’s execution

4) Is a translating program

5) Is useful to run programs

186. Keyboards, scanners, and microphones are examples of _ ______

1) software programs 2) input devices 3) output devices

4) utilities 5) None of these

187. In Excel, the contents of the active cell are displayed in the _ ______

1) footer bar 2) tool bar 3) task bar 4) menu bar 5) formula bar

188. When machine instructions are being executed by a computer, the instruction phase followed by

the execution phase is referred to as _ ______

1) program cycle 2) machine instruction 3) execution cycle


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4) task cycle 5) machine cycle

189. In Windows ME. what does ME stand for?

1) Millennium 2) Micro-Expert 3) Macro-Expert

4) Multi-Expert 5) My-Expert

190. Which of the following refers to the fastest, biggest and most, expensive computers?

1) Notebooks 2) Personal Computers 3) Laptops

4) Supercomputers 5) PDAs

191. Which is not a basic function of a computer ?

1) Accept and process data 2) Accept input 3) Process data

4) Store data 5) Scan text

192. Which of the following is not a term pertaining to Email?

1) power Point 2) inbox 3) sender 4) receiver 5) None of these

193. Peripheral devices such as printers and monitors are considered to be _ ______

1) data 2) software 3) hardware 4) information 5) None of these

194. Which of the following is required to create an HTML document ?

1) browser 2) internet 3) text editor 4) search engine 5) None of these

195. Which language is directly understood by the computer without translation program ?

1) BASIC language 2) Assembly language 3) High level language

4) C language 5) Machine language

196. To insert a page break in a WORD document, the following options are used _ ______

1) Insert and Copy 2) Insert and Enter 3) Insert and Delete

4) Insert and Page Layout 5) Insert and Break

197. Which of the following identifies a cell in Excel?1) formula 2) name 3) label 4) address 5) None of these

198. This is the part of the computer system that one cannot touch.

1) Hardware 2) Printer 3) Mouse 4) Scanner 5) Software

199. A computer’s ROM is _ ______

1) ALU 2) computer software 3) operating system

4) computer hardware 5) CPU

200. While selecting multiple work sheets in Excel, the following key must also be used when clicking

the sheet tab______ 1) Shift 2) Alt 3) Ctrl 4) Insert 5) Esc


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Answers With Explanations:

(1-5):In terms of weight, two arrangements are possible.

D > E > C > A > B > F

OR

D > E > C > B > A > F

Two arrangements are possible

Floor Flat Floor Flat

3rd D B 3rd D B

2nd E X 2nd A X

1st A X OR 1st E X

Ground C F Ground C F

1. 3 2. 5 3. 1 4. 1 5. 4

6.5; 42 PJ

42 QE

%IW42

@V9 42

162 #1

7.5;5th to the right of the 19th element from the right end means (19 – 5 =) 14th from the light end,

ie, Q.

8.1;We have to look for consonant-number-symbol conbination. There is only one such

combination, which is y 5 ©.

9.3;There are 29 elements in all in the given arrangement. If the positions of the last 18 elements are

reversed, then the positions of the first 11 elements from the left end would be not changed, Now,

17 – 11 = 6, ie required answer would be the 6th element from the right in original sequence.

6th from the right end = W

10.3;We have to look for vowel-symbol and symbol-vowel conbinations. Such conbinations are $

E and I.

(11-15):On the basis of the information given in the question, we can have the following seating

arrangement:

11.4;F is second to the left of B.

H is second to the left of D.

C is fourth to the left or right of B.

12. 5;H is fourth to the right or left of G.

13. 2;H is second to the right of E.


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14. 1;D is to the immediate right of F.

15. 3;G and E are immediate neigh bours of A.

l6. 3;R > J.. (i); J M... (ii) M = K ... (iii)Combining (ii) and (iii), we get J M = K J K.Conclusions I and II together are exhaustive. Hence, either I or II is true.

17. 5;D R... (i); M > R...(ii); M = F... (iii)Combining all, we get, D R < M = F D < F F > D.Hence conclusion I is true. Again, from (ii) and (iii), we get R < M = F R < F F > R. Thereforeconclusion II is also true.

18. 1;H = F ... (i); F > R ... (ii); R < K ... (iii)

From (i) and (ii), H = F > R R < H. Hence conclusion I is true. Again, form (ii) and (iii), F > R < K No relationship between K and F can be determined. Therefore conclusion II is not true.

19. 2;B D... (i); D < T ... (ii); T R... (iii)From (i) and (ii), B D < T No relationship between B and T can be determined. Thereforeconclusion I is not true.From (ii) and (iii), D < T R D < R R > D. Hence conclusion II is true.

20. 4;M N... (i); N < A... (ii); A > B ...(iii)From (ii) and (iii), N < A > B No relationship between N and B can be determined. Henceconclusion I is not true. Again, from (i) and (ii), M N < A. No relationship between M and Acan be determined. Therefore conclusion II is also not true.

21. 3;From statement I:

Village P is towards West of village R.

From statement II:

Village P is towards west of village R.

22. 5;From both the statements:

B > E > D > C > A

23. 4; From both the statements answer cannot be determined with certainty.

24. 2;From statement I: R’s position from the left end cannot be determined, since Q’s position with

respect to R is not given.

From statement II: Right9T16R 3Left

Total number of students = 30


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40. 3Both the given statements are particular affirmative, ie I-type. No conclusion follows from the two

particular statements. Both the conclusions form I-E type of complementary pair. Therefore, either

conclusion I or II follows.

41. 2 42. 5 43. 3 44. 2 45. 4

46. 4 47. 5 48. 3 49. 1 50. 2

51. 3 52. 2 53. 5 54. 4 55. 4

56. 4 57. 3 58. 4 59. 1 60. 1

61. 1; frequently

62. 2; Here, ‘at’ or ‘through’ should be used.

63. 1; accommodation

64. 2; Here ‘obvious’ should be used.

65. 3; experience.

66. 3; Replace ‘in’ with ‘to’.

67. 3; Replace ‘will computerise’ with ‘will be computerised’.

68. 4; Replace ‘have to assess’ with ‘has to be assessed’.

69. 3;Replace ‘a library’ with ‘libraries’.

70. 5

71. 4 72. 2 73. 5 74. 3 75. 2

76. 4 77. 5 78. 1 79. 1 80. 3

81. 4;5 × ? =4

8042? = 1.402

45

8042

82. 1;? = 206 × 71 – 12080 = 14626 – 12080 = 2546 = 14626 – 12080 = 2546

83. 3;? =11

4

11

6

9

14

7

3

84. 5; 51260122? ? = 51 – 22 = 29

? = 29 × 29 = 841

85. 2;? =213

831

542 =

2

1

8

3

5

4)312(

=40

2015324

=

40

374

40

374

86. 5;? = (12.999)3 (13)3 2197 2200

87. 5;? =550

50550

= 202.2 200

88. 4;? =75

49 = 0.655 0.7

89. 1;? 23 × 23 + 100 629 = 630

90. 2;? 125 + 70 + 105 300

91. 3;The pattern of the number series is as given below:

2 × 7 = 14

14 × 6 = 84

84 × 5 = 420

420 × 4 = 1680

1680 × 3 = 5040

5040 × 2 = 10080


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3 + 5 = 8

8 + 5 = 13

13 + 8 = 21

21 + 13 = 34

34 + 21 = 55

93. 1; The pattern of the number series is as given below:1 × 1 + 1 = 2

2 × 2 + 2 = 6

6 × 3 + 3 = 21

21 × 4 + 4 = 88

88 × 5 + 5 = 445


33 = 27 ; 53 = 125

73 = 343 ; 93 = 729

113 = 1331, 133 = 21973

153

= 3375


10400 ÷ 4 = 2600

2600 ÷ 4 = 650

650 ÷ 4 = 162.5

162.5 ÷ 4 = 40.625

40.625 ÷ 4 = 10.15625

96. 3;Let the odd number A, B, C and D be x, x + 2, x + 4, and x + 6 repectively.

Now, according to the question,

x + x + 2 x + 4 + x + 6 = 4 × 24

4x + 12 = 96

4x = 96 – 12 = 84

x =4

84 = 21

B = 21 + 2 = 23 and D = x + 6 = 21 + 6 = 27 required answer = B × D = 23 × 27 = 621

97. 4;Distance walked in three weeks

= km1000

15021

= 3.15 km

98. 2;Area of rectangle =

3

225 = 75 sq cm

Breadth of rectangle =15

75

Length

Area = 5 cm

Side of the square = 225Area = 15 cm

Required difference = (15 – 5 =) 10 cm

99. 5; Required average =8

800702625564486334236125 =

8

3872 = 484


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100.5;Distance covered by truck in 12 hours = speed × time = 70 × 12 = 840 km

Distance covered by car in 12 hours = (840 + 120 =) 960 km

Average speed of car =takentime

coveredDistance =

12

960 80 km/hr

101. 1;Let the number be x.

Now, according to the question,

(55 – 14) % of x = 8610

100

41x

= 8610

x =41

1008610 = 21000

85% of 21000 =100

8521000 = 17850

102. 4;Mala’s annual income = `

432000

3

2 = ` 288000

103. 4;Surabhi’s present age = x years

Sheetal’s present age = 3x years

After seven years,

3x + 7 = 2 (x + 7) 3x + 7 = 2x + 14 x = 7 Surabhi’s present age 7 yearsSheetal’s present age 21 yearsAfter another 14 years i.e. after 21 years

Surabhi’s age 28 yearsSheetal’s age 42 years

Required answer = 5.128

42

104. 1;Total marks obtained by Animesh = 102 + 118 + 104 + 114 + 96 = 534

Total maximum marks = 120 × 5 = 600

Required percentage 89100600

534

105. 3;In 1 day (6 × 10) women can complete the piece of work and in 1 day (10 × 15) children can

complete the same piece of work.

6 × 10 women 10 × 15 children 2 women 5 children 6 women + 10 children = (15 + 10) children = 25 children M

1D

1 = M

2D

2 10 × 15 = 25 × D

2

D2=

25

1510 = 6 days

106. 4;I.7x2 – 7x – 2x + 2 = 0

or,7x(x – 1) –2(x – 1) = 0

(7x – 2) (x – 1) = 0

or,x =7

2, 1

II.y2 – y – 3y + 3 = 0

or,y(y – 1) –3(y – 1) = 0

or,(y – 3) (y – 1) = 0

y = 1, 3


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x y

107. 5;I.x2 = 64 x = ±8II.2y2 + 9y + 16y + 72 = 0

or,y(2y + 9) + 8(2y + 9) = 0

or,(y + 8) (2y + 9) = 0

y = –8,2

9

ie, no relation between x and y.

108. 3;I.x2 + x – 20 = 0

or,x2 + 5x – 4x – 20 = 0

or,x(x + 5) –4(x + 5) = 0

or,(x – 4) (x + 5) = 0

x = 4, – 5II.2y2 – 10y – 9y + 45 = 0

or,2y(y – 5) –9(y – 5) = 0

or,(y – 5) (2y – 9) = 0

y = 5,2

9

x < y

109. 1;Eqn (I) × 2

Eqn (II) × 7

339y113 ______ __________

287y119x1452y6x14

y = –3 and x = 5, ie x > y

110. 2;I.3x2 – 9x – 11x + 33 = 0

or,3x(x – 3) – 11(x – 3) = 0

or,(3x – 11) (x – 3) = 0

x = 3,3

11

II.2y2 – 6y – 5y + 15 = 0

or,2y(y – 3) –5(y – 3) = 0

or,(y – 3) (2y – 5) = 0

y = 3,2

5

x y

111. 4; 05.1E

I

B

B ,

75.0E

I

A

A

Reqd % = 10075.0

05.1 %140

75.0

105

112. 5; Exports of B in year 2008 cannot be determined.

113. 1; The ratio of imports to exports is the same for Company A in year 2007 and Company B in

year 2004 the sum of their imports will be (IA + IB) = 0.8 × (EA + EB) = 0.8 × 180 = 144 lakh


27/28

114. 4; 75.0E

I

A

A

IA = 0.75 × EA = 0.75 × 120 = 90 lakh

6.0E

I

B

B

EB = 6.0120

6.0

IB = 200 lakh

Diff = 200 – 90 = 110 lakh

115. 1; 5.0E

I

A

A

EA = lakh1605.080

5.0

IA

2.1E

I

B

B

IB = 1.2 × 60 = 72 lakh

Reqd% = %45100160

72

116. 1; Total population of A= 2400000crore24.0100

165.1

Total literate males of A = 720000lakh2.7100

1840

Total literate females of A= 600000lakh6100

2425

Total illiterate population= 2400000 – (720000 + 600000) = 1080000

117. 5;

(E) Literate males = lakh6.7100

1940

(F) Literate females = lakh5.2100

1025

Reqd % = %3041005.2

6.7

118. 4; Total population of E= lakh30crore30.0100

205.1

Total literate males of E = lakh6.7100

1940

Total literate females of E = lakh5100

2025

Total literate = 7.6 + 5 = 12.6 lakh

Reqd % = %4210030

6.12

119. 2;

TotalC = lakh5.31crore315.0100

215.1

Literate males = lakh8100

2040

Literate females = lakh3100

1225

Total literate = 8 + 3 = 11 lakh Total illiterate = 31.5 – 11 = 20.5 lakh


28/28

Difference = 20.5 – 11 = 9.5 lakh

120. 1; Literate males = lakh4.6100

1640

Literate females= lakh4100

1625

Reqd % = %601004

)44.6(

121. 5 122. 5 123. 2 124. 4 125. 4

126. 4 127. 1 128. 2 129. 3 130. 2

131. 3 132. 2 133. 3 134. 3 135. 4

136. 4 137. 4 138. 4 139. 3 140. 1

141. 5 142. 2 143. 4 144. 1 145. 1

146. 1 147. 4 148. 2 149. 1 150. 5

151. 4 152. 5 153. 3 154. 5 155. 2

156. 2 157. 2 158. 5 159. 3 160. 2

161. 2 162. 5 163. 4 164. 2 165. 2

166. 5 167. 5 168. 1 169. 3 170. 1

171. 1 172. 5 173. 2 174. 3 175. 1176. 2 177. 1 178. 4 179. 3 180. 4

181. 2 182. 4 183. 4 184. 1 185. 5

186. 2 187. 5 188. 5 189. 1 190. 4

191. 5 192. 1 193. 3 194. 3 195. 5

196. 5 197. 2 198. 5 199. 4 200. 3

IBPS Clerk Main Practice Set 03

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