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Refresher Course on Environmental Planning University Hotel
University of the Philippines, Quezon City May 5 9, 2014
MOCK EXAMINATION
Name: ________________________________________________________
Educational Background: _________________________________________
Profession/Occupation: ___________________________________________
Office/Agency:
__________________________________________________
Direction: Shade the space ( ) corresponding to the correct
answer
1. It is the division of a community into districts or zones
according to present and potential uses of land to maximize,
regulate and direct their use and development.
a. Comprehensive Development Planning b. Zoning c. Land Use
Planning d. None of the above
2. Under the Local Government Code, reclassification of
agricultural land in component cities and first to third class
municipalities shall be limited to:
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 5%
3. This Law provides a liberalized environment more conducive to
private sector investment.
a. RA 7718 (BOT Law) b. Retail Trade Liberation Act c. Urban
Development and Housing Act d. None of the above
4. A contractual arrangement whereby the project proponent
undertakes the financing construction of a given infrastructure or
development facility and after its completion turns it over to the
government agency or local government unit concerned, which shall
pay the proponent on an agreed schedule its total investments
expanded on the project, plus a reasonable rate of return
thereon.
a. Build and transfer b. Build own and operate c. Build transfer
and operate d. Develop, operate and transfer
5. The use of scientific methods and information to define the
probability and magnitude of potentially adverse effects which can
result from exposure to hazardous materials or situations.
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a. Environment impact statement b. Environment risk assessment
c. Scoping d. None of the above
6. Which of these projects require an EIS?
a. Golf courses and residential subdivisions above 10 hectares
b. Drugstore and backyard piggery c. Projects under Kalakalan 20 d.
All of the above
7. A central business district usually has a
a. High daytime population b. Large concentration of office and
retail activities c. Large daily inflow and outflow of commuters d.
All of the above
8. If the location quotient of an industry in a region is high,
it suggest that
a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very
concentrated b. The distribution of the industry in the region is
dispersed c. The distribution of the industry in the region does
not deviated much from
the distribution of other industries d. The region has a larger
share of the industry relative to other regions
9. Urban development tends to occur along major transportation
routes because
a. Population tends to concentrate where transportation is
available b. Transportation facilities tend to service areas where
there is population
concentration c. Both A and B d. None of the above
10. The rate used to discount the future streams of estimated
costs and benefits is known as
a. Social discount rate b. Inflation rate c. Financial rate of
return d. Economic internal rate of return
11. This represents the earning power of money invested in the
project
a. Internal rate of return b. Net present value c. Annuity d.
Discounting
12. ________ initially developed the concept of growth pole of
regions
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a. Christaller b. Perroux c. Lennoix d. Howard
13. ________ is a set of accounts, usually in monetary form,
prepared for an economy and widely used in the analysis of
inter-industry relationships.
a. Regional accounts matrix b. Input-output table c. Economic
base table d. Location quotient ratio
14. One of the following consists of an area of land, which is
generally developed based on a comprehensive plan, allocated for
factory buildings either sold or leased for manufacturing
purposes
a. Industrial estate b. Integrated area development c.
Industrial subdivision d. Commercial/industrial estate
15. An urban area which has the following characteristics: it
has strong linkage with the economy; it is the center of the labor
market; it is a major wholesale and retail trade area; it has a
high level of tertiary functions; has a good urban system; and has
a population less that 250,000 is called
a. Growth center b. Metropolitan area c. Major urban center d.
Minor urban center
16. A ratio that measures output per worker is called
a. Labor intensity b. Labor productivity c. Efficiency d. Labor
enhancement
17. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and
inspection of education institutions offering courses in
environmental planning is the responsibility of the
a. Commission on Higher Education b. Philippine Institute of
Environmental Planners c. Board of Environmental Planning d. School
of Urban and Regional Planning
18. A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or
association may engage in the practice of environmental planning in
the Philippines, provided that
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a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the
entity shall be registered environmental planners
b. At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is
owned by registered environmental planners
c. At least 70 of the entire membership of the Board is composed
of EnPs and 75% of the capitalization is owned by them
d. At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the
capitalization is owned by registered environmental planners
19. The practice of environmental planning within the provisions
of PD 1308 does not involve one of the following:
a. Site and land use planning b. City/town planning c. Family
planning d. None of the above
20. Demography denotes the study of human population through
statistical methods. This involves primarily the measurement of the
size and increase or decrease of the numbers of people. The
constituents of change in these numbers are:
a. Births and deaths b. Births, deaths and migration c. Birth,
adoption, marriage, divorce, legal separation, and annulment d.
Birth, citizenship, duration of marriage and ethnic origin
21. Under the concept of urbanized areas as defined in the
Philippine Census of Population and Housing in 1990, central
districts of municipalities and cities have a population density of
at least
a. 100 persons per square kilometer b. 250 persons per square
kilometer c. 500 persons per square kilometer d. 1,000 persons per
square kilometer
22. Certain environmental factors affect population distribution
at a given point in time. They are:
a. Climate b. Location of water, soil, energy and mineral
resources c. Transport relationships d. All of the above
23. Sex ration is defined as:
a. The number of females divided by the number of males, times
100 b. The number of males divided by the number of females, times
100 c. The number of males divided by the number of females, times
10 d. The number of females divided by the number of males, times
10
24. Thomas Robert Malthus was the one who first concluded
that
a. The means of subsistence grew only at an arithmetic rate b.
The means of subsistence and population both grew at an arithmetic
rate
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c. The means of subsistence of population few at a geometric
rate d. The means of subsistence grew only at an arithmetic rate
whereas the
population tended to grow at a geometric rate
25. When the age and sex compositions of most populations are
plotted graphically, the result is a population pyramid, the broad
base represents the youngest ages, and the sides gradually slope
toward a point, representing the decrease brought about by deaths
in each successive age group. The pyramid represents
a. A static picture because it freezes the continuous action of
mortality, fertility, and migration at a particular moment in
time
b. A uniform increase in all age brackets over a period of time
c. Migration and fertility trends d. All of the above
26. In many metropolitan centers in the developing world, the
largest component of urban population growth is
a. Births b. In-migration c. Increase in territorial
jurisdiction d. None of the above
27. Metro Manila is considered a primate city because
a. It is the largest urban center of the country b. It contains
the countrys primary central business district c. It has a very
large population compared to all other urban centers of the
country d. It is a metropolitan center
28. Ancestral domain refer to areas that
a. Belong to ICCs/IPPs comprising lands, inland waters, coastal
and natural resources therein
b. Are within protected areas which have actually been occupied
by communities for 5 years before the digestion of the same as
protected areas in accordance with the NIPAS Act
c. Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in
harmony with the environment to adapt to modern technology at their
pace
d. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited area
normally with difficult access
29. The law that provides for the establishment and management
of National Integrated Protected Areas System is
a. RA 8371 b. RA 7586 c. RA 7279 d. None of the above
30. RA 8435 of the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act
(AFMA) of 1997 strives to provide full and adequate support to the
sustainable development of
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highly modernized agriculture and fishery industry in the
Philippines. Under AFMA, one of the following has been
de-prioritized
a. Identification and establishment of model farms b. On-farm
production enhancement technologies c. Small-scale irrigation
systems d. Research, development and training facilities
31. Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture
and Agro-Industrial Development (NPAAAD), it provides the Physical
basis for the proper planning of sustainable agriculture and
fishery development and in identification of sustainable crops,
livestock and fishes that can be economically grown and
commercially developed for local and international markets without
creating irreversible environment and human health problems
a. The Watershed Areas b. Comprehensive Land Use Plan c.
Integrated Area Development d. Strategic Agriculture and Fishery
Development Zone
32. The factors for analyzing industrial location theory
are:
a. The labor costs of marketing and advertising b. Labor wages
c. The costs of transporting raw materials to the factory and
finished goods to
the market d. All of the above
33. If the Gini Coefficient of an Industrys distribution in
region is close to zero, it suggests that
a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very
concentrated b. The distribution of the industry in the region is
dispersed c. The distribution in the industry in the region does
not deviate much from the
distribution of other industries d. The region has a larger
share of the industry relative to other regions
34. Land use changes in large and developed cities is largely a
function of
a. Government lad use and zoning policies b. Existing and
expected land values c. Demand for housing d. Foreign
investments
35. The best measure of the projects economic worthiness and its
adaptation as a basis for project acceptability is
a. Net present value b. Discounted rate c. EIRR d. FIRR
36. The standard distance of a commercial activity from an
education center should be
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a. 15 minutes by public transportation b. 15 minutes by private
transportation c. 30 minutes by minimum travel time by public
transportation d. 60 minutes travel by private transportation
37. A tool of analysis developed as an effective way of choosing
between alternative planning options by ensuring the optimum
allocation of available resources and maximum welfare to the
community is
a. Cost-benefit analysis b. Linear programming c. Shift-share
analysis d. Sensitivity analysis
38. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings
under various legal issuances, e.g., Local Government Code. Under
the AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other
uses, while the LGC limits to
a. 15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized and
independent component cities
b. 10% of total arable land in any town c. 5% of total arable
land in any city d. all of the above
39. The first industrial estate in the country, which became
operational in 1972, was the
a. Bataan IE b. Dasmarias IE c. Mactan IE d. Sapang Palay IE
40. This is the first place where the first export processing
zone in the world was established
a. Puerto Rico b. India c. Taiwan d. Korea
41. This strategy aims to promote greater complementary between
agriculture and industry and between urban and rural sectors
a. Country-side agro-industrial developments b. National Council
for Integrated Area Development c. National agro-industrial area
development d. None of the above
42. This strategy refers to a situation where an industry
through the flow of goods and income stimulates that development
and growth of the industries, that are technically related to it,
and determine the prosperity of the tertiary sector or stimulates
an increase of the regional income
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a. Growth pole b. Industrial polarization c. Industrial
decentralization d. Industrial location
43. Ebnezer Howard, the most influential among the Great
Thinkers in odern urban and regional planning, wrote this famous
book, first published in 1898
a. Garden Cities b. Garden Cities of Tomorrow c. Tomorrows
Cities d. Tomorrow
44. Patrick Geddes, a Scot biologist who is acknowledged as the
father of regional planning set forth his ideas in his masterpiece
entitled
a. Cities and Regions b. Cities ad Evolution c. Cities in
Evolutionary Change d. Revolution in Cities
45. Kevin Lynch stresses
a. A conceptual system focusing on urban form b. A
communications theory approach to urban growth c. Accessibility
concepts and urban structure d. Urban spatial structure in the
frame
46. Albert Z. Guttenberg speculates
a. A conceptual system focusing on urban form b. A
communications theory approach to urban growth c. Accessibility
concepts and urban structure d. Urban spatial structure in the
framework of equilibrium theory (an
economic model of spatial structure)
47. Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local
government units, the National Government transfers these funds to
LGUs for their administrative, public order and safety
operations
a. Internal Revenue Allotments b. Budgetary Allocations c. Local
Development Allotments d. LGU Budgetary Allotments
48. Morbidity refers to
a. Death per 1,00 population b. Deaths per 10,00 population c.
Deaths due to diseases d. Incidence of disease
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49. Because NSO age groupings do not coincide with school-going
age population for primary, intermediate, secondary and tertiary,
this method is used to disaggregate school age population within a
bracket into a single year estimate:
a. Sprague multiplier b. Sprengler multiplier c. Extrapolition
coefficient d. Interpolation coefficient
50. Planning standards for school facilities include minimum
standards for space measured in terms of square meters per pupil
(p.p.) for academic classrooms in the elementary level, the minimum
standard is
a. 1.20 sqm. per p.p. b. 1.40 sqm. per p.p. c. 1.50 sqm. per
p.p. d. 1.75 sqm. per p.p.
51. Standards for firefighting services prescribe that
municipalities with 10,000 or more population but below 50,000
should provide at least one fire truck. Adjoining municipalities,
however, are allowed to share one fire truck provided that the
distance is within prescribed limits. In such cases, the maximum
travel time between municipalities.
a. 10 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 20 minutes d. 30 minutes
52. In the identification of needs and planning of social
welfare programs and services, the planner is expected to
a. Involve the clientele b. Involve the national and local
governments c. Involve the private sector d. Involve all sectors
mentioned above
53. The Law that authorizes the establishment and promulgation
of different levels of Standards of economic and socialized housing
in urban and rural areas provided under the Subdivision and
Condominium Buyers Protective Decree and the National Building Code
is
a. BP 220 b. RA 7279 c. PD 957 d. PD 1216
54. What ratio between saleable and non-saleable portions of the
subdivision is requires for projects developed under BP 220
standards?
a. No fixed ratio b. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable c. 40%
saleable and 60% non-saleable
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d. Minimum of 50% open space
55. A single detached dwelling units is defined as a house
a. Good for one household b. Intended for ownership c.
Completely surrounded be yards d. With one or more of its sides
abutting the property line
56. A study which all the unites in the population is called
a. Wholistic study b. Phenomenological study c. Survey d.
Census
57. The difference between a census and a survey is that
a. Census makes use of questionnaires while survey makes use of
interviews for data gathering.
b. Census involves complete enumeration while survey involves
sampling
c. Census is done only every 10 years while survey can be done
anytime.
d. Only the NSO can conduct a census but anybody can conduct a
survey.
58. This type of plan shows the allocation of land into broad
functional classes, e.g., development areas,
conservation/preservation areas; agricultural area and forest
areas.
a. Structure Plan b. General Land Use Plan c. Development Plan
d. Comprehensive Plan
59. Agricultural land in its generic sense is synonymous with
that basic land classification?
a. Timberland b. Unclassified public forest c. Alienable and
disposable d. Ancestral domain e. Critical watershed
60. Which of the following is not a factor in determining the
suitability of land for an industrial estate?
a. Load-bearing capacity b. Soil fertility c. Drainage d. Slope
e. Location
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61. The 1987 constitution seeks to classify all lands in the
public domain into four categories. Name the one that is not among
the four.
a. Agricultural land b. Mineral land c. National park d.
Ancestral domain e. Forest land
62. Which of the maps listed below is not a thematic map?
a. Base map b. Land use map c. Slope map d. Geologic map e.
Physical constraints map
63. What class of road is not part of hierarchy?
a. Arterial b. Collector c. Distributor d. Gravel surfaced e.
Local
64. Which land use type is normally not classified as urban?
a. Institutional b. Residential c. mining and quarrying d.
Industrial e. Commercial
65. The main regulatory tool for implementing land use in the
Philippines is
a. Capital investment programs b. Special assessments c.
Expropriation d. Zoning
66. The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations
that support policies of Government with regard to optimizing the
use of land as a resource is
a. NEDA b. DAR c. HLURB d. DPWH
67. The agency responsible for coordinating the housing program
is
a. NHA b. HUDCC c. HLURB
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d. MMDA
68. The minimum lot area under PD 957 is
a. 100 sq. m. b. 72 sq. m. c 150 sq. m. d. 120 sq. m.
69. The process of arranging activities and plans among
different interest or planning groups for the purpose of
systematizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is
called
a. Public hearing b. Consultation c. Coordination d. Scoping
70. The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which
may or not be followed is called
a. Consultation b. Coordination c. Public hearing d. Citizen
participation
71. This document is a series of written statements accompanied
by maps, illustrations and diagrams which describes what the
community wants to become and how it wants to develop. It is
essentially composed of community goals, objectives, policies,
programs and a physical development plan which translates the
various sectoral plans.
a. Land Use Plan b. Action Plan c. Strategic Plan d. Development
Plan
72. This is the process of appraising the feasibility,
credibility and probable impacts pr consequences of alternative
schemes of development or specific environmental conditions.
a. Environmental impact assessment b. Evaluation c. Diagnostic
survey d. Feasibility study
73. One of these plans is not required under AFMA:
a. Regional Agro-Industrial Development Plan b. The SAFDZ
Integrated Development Plan c. The Agricultural and Fishery
modernization Plan d. None of the above
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74. It is a process of predicting the likely environmental
consequences of implementing a project of undertaking and designing
appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Scoping b. Initial environmental examination c. Environmental
impact assessment d. Environmental risk assessment
75. In transporting planning, the collection of the data is
undertaken through different types of surveys. The manual counting
and classifying, by type of vehicle and direction of travel,
recorder counts extending over longer periods is called
a. Travel time surveys b. Roadside surveys c. Network
inventories d. Zoning
76. This is one of the methods of trips generation modeling,
which is concerned with finding the best functional relationship
between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables.
This relationship is usually assumed to linear.
a. Analysis of variance b. Multiple regression c. Category
analysis d. Situational analysis
77. This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account
congestion on the transportation system. It is the process of
determining a pattern of traffic flow for a known set of interzonal
movements so/that the relationship between journey time and flow on
every link on the network should be in accordance with that
specified for the link
a. Diversion curves b. All-or-nothing assignment c. Capacity
restraint d. None of the above
78. These are lands that are capable of sustaining the economic
productivity levels of crops/land use over time in a given climatic
region without adversely affecting the immediate and adjoining
environment.
a. Agricultural lands b. Prime agricultural lands c.
Environmentally critical areas d. Agro-industrial zones
79. Areas generally belonging to ICCS/IPs subject to property
rights within ancestral domain
a. Indigenous areas b. Cultural minority areas c. Ancestral
areas
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80. This refers to a tithe formally recognizing the rights of
possession and ownership of ICC/IPs over their ancestral domains
identified in accordance with the law
a. Torrens Title b. Indigenous People Title c. Land Title d.
Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
81. The following operating principles are adhered to under the
Indigenous Peoples Right Act, except
a. Biodiversity b. Career Development of IPs c. Protection of
the Environment d. Cultural diversity and Integrity, Consensus and
Peace Building and
human Dignity
82. The rights of the IPs to cultural integrity shall
include
a. Protection of indigenous culture, traditions and institutions
b. Right to establish and control educational and learning systems
c. Right to science and technology d. All of the above c. None of
the above
83. The primary government agency to implement the policies for
the IPs is
a. Office of the Cultural Affairs b. National Commission for the
Cultural Communities c. Commission for the Philippine Minorities d.
National Commission for Indigenous Peoples
84. Systems, Institutions, mechanics and technologies comprising
a unique body of knowledge enclave through time
a. Cultural practices b. Cultural way of life c. Indigenous
culture d. Indigenous knowledge systems and practices
85. Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs determined in
accordance with their respective customary laws and practices, free
from any external manipulation and coercion
a. Indigenous consensus b. Rights of Indigenous people c. Free
and informed consent d. All of the above
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86. RA No.8371 is also known as the
a. NIPAS Law b. Conservation and Biodiversity c. Agenda 21 d.
Indigenous Peoples Rights Act (IPRA)
87. The National Commission on Indigenous Peoples shall protect
the rights of Indigenous peoples, except those of
a. Children and youth b. Elders c. Women d. None of the
above
88. How many commissioners comprise the national Commission on
Indigenous Peoples?
a. Five b. Seven c. Nine d. Eleven e. Four
89. It consists of resource flows provided by bilateral sources
and multilateral institutions with the objective of promoting the
economic development and welfare of the recipient country.
a. World bank b. Official Development Assistance c. Internal
Revenue Allotment d. Development fund
90. This Law provides a liberalization environment more
conductive to private sector investment.
a. RA 6657 and RA 7718 (BOT Law) b. Retail Trade Liberalization
Act c. Urban Development and Housing Act d. All of the above e.
None of the above
91. A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent is
authorized to finance, construct, own, operate and maintain an
infrastructure or development facility from which the proponent is
allowed to recover its total investment, operating and maintenance
costs plus a reasonable return thereon by collecting tools, fees,
rentals and other charges from facility users.
a. Build and transfer
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b. Build own and operate c. Build transfer and operate Develop,
operate and transfer
92. A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector
contracts out the building of an infrastructure facility to a
private entity such that the contractor builds the facility on a
turn-key basis, assuming cost overrun, delay and specified
performance risks.
a. Build and transfer b. Build own and operate c. Build transfer
and operate d. develop, operate and transfer
93. The use of scientific methods and information to define the
probability and magnitude of potentially adverse effects which can
result from exposure to hazardous materials or situations
a. Environmental impact statement b. Environmental risk
assessment c. Scoping d. None of the above
94. Those persons who may be significantly affected by the
project or undertaking are called
a. Indigenous people b. Stakeholders c. Squatters d.
Proponent
95. Which of these projects requires an EIS?
a. Golf courses and residential subdivisions above 10 hectares
b. Drugstores and backyard piggery c. Projects under Kalakalan 20
d. All of the above
96. Those suffering from restriction or lack of ability to
perform an activity in the manner or within the range considered
normal for a human being as a result of mental, physical or sensory
impairment.
a. Physically challenged b. Impaired c. Disabled d.
Disadvantaged
97. Ebenezer Howard is regarded as the most influential among
the Great Thinkers in modern urban and regional planning. His
famous book, first published in 1898, was titled:
a. Garden Cities b. Garden Cities of Tomorrow c. Tomorrows
Cities
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d. Tomorrow
98. Ebenezer Howards ideas were adopted by the British
Governments in the enactment of the New Towns Act of 1947. The new
towns concept, according to historians, has been illustrated by
Howard on a paper napkin. This famous diagram consists of:
a. One Magnet b. Two Magnets c. Three Magnets d. Four Magnets e.
Five magnets
99. Ebenezer Howard envisioned a new town deliberately outside
normal commuter range of the old city. It would fairly small. Its
population size shall be:
a. Ten thousand b. Twenty thousand c. Twenty-two thousand d.
Thirty thousand
100. The first new town built following Ebenezer Howards idea is
known as:
a. Letchworth b. Soltaire c. Strenage d. Welwyn
101. The counterpart of Geddes in the University States is Lewis
Mumford. Hiss treatise is entitled:
a. Culture and Cities b. Cities and Culture c. The Cities of
Culture d. The Culture of Cities e. The Culture of the Cities
102. The advocates of the systems view planning does not include
one of the following:
a. G. Wilson b. George Chadwick c. J.B. McLoughlin d. Stuart
Chapin e. Andreas faludi
103. What does reviews Comprehensive Land Use Plans (CLUPs) of
component cities and municipalities?
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a. RLUC b. PLUC c. HLURB d. None of the above e. All of the
above
104. What body ratifies CLUPs of highly urbanized cities?
a. RLUC b. PLUC c. HLURB d. None of the above e. All of the
above
105. What body reviews CLUPs of independent component
cities?
a. RLUC b. PLUC c. HLURB d. None of the above e. All of the
above
106. What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro Manila Cities and
Municipalities?
a. RLUC b. PLUC c. HLURB d. None of the above e. All of the
above
107. What body reviews CLUPs of provinces?
a. RLUC b. PLUC c. HLURB d. None of the above e. All of the
above
108. A comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) must meet the
following criteria:
a. Technical feasibility b. Socio-economical and financial
possibility c. Political viability d. Administrative operability e.
All of the above
109. Choose the relevant criteria for he best strategic
option
a. Sustainability
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b. Feasibility c. Desirability d. Critical and urgent e. None of
the above f. All of the above
110. What are the techniques relevant to land use planning?
a. Sieve Mapping b. Area Ecological Profiling c. Land Use
Accounting d. Critical and urgent e. None of the above f. All of
the above
111. What technique is useful for determining strategies?
a. Situational analysis b. SWOT analysis c. Land use survey d.
Critical and urgent e. None of the above f. All of the above
112. What are the legal basis for the states regulation of land
use?
a. Police power b. laws against nuisance and pollution c. The
policy that property has social function d. The rule that a person
must not do wrong to another person.
113. What kind of project requires an environmental compliance
certificate?
a. Environmentally critical projects b. Projects in
environmentally critical areas c. a and b d. All projects
114. Where can we find the highest level policy statements on
environmental protection?
a. Constitution b. PD 1151
115. What projects require an environmental impact statement
(EIS)
a. Environmentally critical projects b. Projects in
environmentally critical areas c. Gold courses, major roads and
bridges, infrastructure d. All of the above e. None of the
above
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116. What law lays down the mandates and functions of the
Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board?
a. EO 949 b. EO 90 c. PD 933 d. PD 957
117. A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting
land use is:
a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan b. Zoning Ordinance c. Cadastral
Survey d. tax Declaration
118. A special locational clearance which grants a property
owner relief from certain provisions of the zoning ordinance where,
because of the particular physical surrounding, shape or
topographical conditions of the property, compliance with height,
area, bulk, setback and/or density would result in particular
hardship upon the owner is called:
a. Certified of Non-Conformance b. Exception c. Variance d. None
of the above
119. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain
provisions of a Zoning ordinance where, because of the specific use
would result n a particular hardship to the owner.
a. Variance b. Certificate of Non- Conformance c. Exception d.
Development
120. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise
the poblacion and other built-up areas including the urbanizable
land in and adjacent to said areas and whereat least 50% of the
population area engaged in non-agricultural activities:
a. Central business district b. Urban area c. City center d.
Suburban area
121. The process of arranging activities and plans among
different interest or planning groups for the purpose of
systemizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is called:
a. Public hearing b. Consultation c. Coordination d.
Scooping
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122. The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which
may not be followed is called.
a. Consultation b. Coordination c. Public hearing d. Citizen
participation
123. This document is a series of written statements accompanied
by maps, illustrations and diagrams which describes what the
community wants to become and how it wants to develop. It is
essentially composed of community goals, objectives, policies,
programs and physical development plan which translates the various
sectoral plan:
a. Land Use Plan b. Action Plan c. Strategic Plan d. Development
Plan
124. The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations
that support policies of Government with regard to optimizing the
use of land as a resource is:
a. NEDA b. DAR c. HLURB d. DPWH
125. What is zoning?
a. It is the designation of species areas of a community as
functional land uses of land may be allowed or regulated on
accordance with the development plan.
b. It is a tool to implement the development plan c. It is a
means of redistributing land acquisition and disposition d. None of
the above
126. What are the tools for plan implementation?
a. Zoning ordinance, taxation and eminent domain b. Zoning,
subdivision and building ordinance c. Zoning ordinance, local
investment d. Urban land reform
127. What higher level plans guides Local Government Units
(LGUs) in preparing their own comprehensive land use plans
(CLUPs)?
a. National Physical Framework Plans and Medium-Term Development
Plans
b. Regional Physical Framework Plans and Regional Development
Plans
c. Provincial Physical Framework and Provincial Development
Plans
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d. All of the above c. None of the above
128. What is the highest planning body at the regional
level?
a. NEDA b. The Regional Development Council c. HLURB d. None of
the above e. All of the above
129. The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive,
multi-sectoral development plains initiated by their development
councils and approved by their Sanggunian is:
a. PD 399 b. Executive Order No.72 c. RA 7160 c. PD 1517
130. The new law regulating the practice of environmental
planning is:
a. RA 10587 b. PD 1517 c. PD 957 d. None of the above
131. The law proclaiming certain areas and types of projects as
environmentally critical and within the scope of the EIS
system:
a. PD 1586 b. Proclamation No. 2146 c. PD 1152 d. DAO 96-37
132. Reclassification of the land highly in urbanized areas,
after conducting public hearings for the purpose, shall be limited
to:
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
133. Under the Local Government Code, reclassification of
agricultural land in component cities and to first to third class
municipalities shall be limited to:
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 5%
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134. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and
inspection of educational institutions offering courses in
environment planning is the responsibility of the :
a. Commission on Higher Education b. Philippine Institute of
Environmental Planners c. Board of Environmental Planning d. School
of Urban and Regional Planning
135. A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or
association may engage on the practice of environmental planning in
the Philippines, provided that:
a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the
entity shall be registered environmental planners
b. At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is
owned by registered environmental planners
c. At least 70% of the entire membership of the Board is
composed of ENPs and 75% of the capitalization is owned by them
d. At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the
capitalization is owned by registered environmental planners
136. Ancestral domains refer to areas that:
a. Belong to ICCs/iPPs compromising lands. Inland waters,
coastal areas and natural resources therein
b. Bare within protected areas which have actually been occupied
by communities for 5 years before the designation of the same as
protected areas in accordance with the NIPAS Act.
c. Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in
harmony with the environment adapt to modern technology at their
pace
d. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited, are
normally with difficult access.
137. This law provides for the establishment and management of
National Integrated Protection Areas System:
a. RA 8371 b. RA 7586 c. RA 7279 d. None of the above
138. RA 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act
(AFMA) of 1997 strives to provide full and adequate support to the
sustainable development of a highlt modernized agriculture and
fishery industry in the Philippines. Under AFMA, one of the
following has been d-prioritized
a. Identification and establishment of model farm b. On-farm
production enhancement technologies c. Small-scale irrigation
systems d. Research, development and training facilities
139. Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture
and Agro-Industrial Development (NPAAAD), it provides the physical
basis for the proper planning of sustainable agriculture and
fishery development and in the identification of
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suitable crops, livestock for local and international markets
without creating irreversible environmental and human health
problems.
a. The watershed areas b. Comprehensive Land Use Plan c.
Integrated Area Development d. Strategic Agriculture and Fishery
Development Zone
140. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceiling
under various legal issuances, e.g. Local Government Code. Under
the AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other
uses, while the LGC limits to:
a. 15% of total arable lands on chartered cities and 1st class
Municipalities
b. 10% of total arable lands in any town c. 5% of total arable
land in any city d. All of the above
141. The 1987 Constitution seeks to classify all lands in the
public domain onti four categories. Name pf the one that is not
among four
a. Agricultural land b. Mineral land c. National park d.
Ancestral domain e. Forest land
142. Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local
government units, the National Government transfers these funds to
LGUs for their administrative, public order and safety
operations
a. International Revenue Allotments b. Budgetary Allocation c.
Local Development Allotment d. LGU Budgetary Allotment
143. As provided for in the Water Code and the HLURB zoning
guidelines, the required easement in urban areas from the banks of
rivers/streams, seas and lakes is:
a. 3 meters b. 20 meters c. 40 meters d. 100 meters
144. Variances and exemptions from the land use plan/zoning map
are secured from the:
a. Zoning Administrator/Officer b. Municipal Mayor c. Municipal
Planning and Development Coordinator (MPDC) d. Local Zoning Board
of Adjustments and Appeals (LZBAA)
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145. A kind of ad-hoc zoning that allows a small piece of land
to deviate from the approved zone of the area for certain reason is
called:
a. Spot zoning b. Flexible zoning c. Euclidean zoning d. large
lot zoning
146. Any amendment to the provisions of the zoning ordinance for
component cities and municipalities can only take effect approval
and authentication by the:
a. Sangguniang Panlalawigan b. HLURB c. Local Zoning Review
Committee d. local Zoning Board of Adjustment and Appeals
(LZBAA)
147. Alarm over increasing world population may be traced to
Thomas Malthus theory that states
a. Population grows geometrically while food supply grows
arithmetically
b. Population grows arithmetically while food supply grows
geometrically
c. Population and food grows geometrically d. Population and
food grows arithmetically
148. Many industries want to locate near urban cities because
they want to be
a. Close to large market b. Close to a major transportation hub
c. Avail of urban services and facilities d. All of the above
149. In general, an Economic Base ration or Economic Base
Multiplier expressed in terms of employment indicates:
a. A total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a
number of jobs created in an industry
b. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of
number of jobs created in the entire country
c. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a
number of jobs created in the entire region
d. The total number of jobs created in a set of industries as a
result of a number of jobs created in an industry.
150. Traditional location theory analyzes the location of
industries by considering
a. The cost of marketing and advertising b. labor wages
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c. the cost of transporting raw materials to the factory and
finished goods to the market
d. The costs of transporting consumers to market centers
151. Urban population growth in developing countries is
unprecented because
a. There are more urban areas in the developing world than in
industrialized countries
b. Urban population growth in developing countries is based on
agriculture
c. The population of large urban centers in developing countries
is becoming much larger than those of industrialized countries
d. Large urban centers in developing countries account for a
larger share of the total population than in industrialized
countries
152. In many metropolitan centers in the developing world, the
largest component of urban growth population is
a. Birth b. In-migration c. Increased territorial jurisdiction
d. None of the above
153. In the Philippines, the total urban population is expected
to become
a. Larger than the total rural population b. Equal and will
stabilized at the level of the rural population c. Maintain its
ratio with rural population d. Decline until it equals rural
population
154. Historically, in contrast to Thomas Malthus theory
a. Population has grown faster than food supply b. Population
has grown slower than food supply c. Population and food supply
have grown at approximately the same
pace d. Population and food supply have not grown
155. Metro Manila is considered a primate city because
a. It is the largest urban city of the country b. It contains
the countrys primary central business district c. It has a very
large population compared to all the urban centers of
the country d. It is a metropolitan center
156. Population growth is usually measured as a function of
a. The number of deaths, birth and fertility b. The number of
deaths, births, and out-migrants c. The number of deaths, births
and in-migrants d. the number of deaths, births and net
migrants
157. In central business districts, the highest land values are
usually the areas where
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a. Zoning is for commercial land use b. Density is highest c.
Both A and B d. None of the above
158. A Lorenz Curve can give a graphical indications of how
a. An industrys output has grown in a region b. An industrys
forward and backward linkages have expanded in a
region c. An industry is distributed in a region d. An industrys
exports compares with its imports in a region
159. If the location quotient in a region is high, it suggests
that
a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very
concentrated b. The distribution of the industry in the region is
dispersed c. The distribution of the industry in the region does
not deviate much
from the distribution of other industries d. the region has a
larger share of the industry relative to other regions
160. The Export Base theory argues that
a. The economic growth of a region is dependent on the growth of
its export sector
b. Regional exports should not exceed regional imports c. The
ratio between regional exports and regional imports is the
basis
for determining economic performance d. Regional exports should
equal regional imports
161. An urban area becomes a central business district because
this is an area where
a. Infrastructure is most concentrated b. Economic
162. _________ initially developed the concept of growth pole of
regions
a. Christaller b. Perroux c. Lennoix d. Howard
163. What is the main foundation of the theory of growth pole of
regions?
a. Concept of leading industries b. Concept of polarization c.
Concept of spread effects d. All of the above
164. What does the concept of leading industries mean in the
growth pole theory?
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a. Manufacturing sector b. Propulsive industries c. Comparative
sector d. Agricultural sector
165. What is the LQ ratio that would indicate an export or basic
activity in a region?
a. LQ>1 b. LQ=1 c LQ
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171. The portion of the feasibility study (FS) that determines
the projects net contribution to the national economy and social
welfare is
a. Economic study b. Demand analysis c. Financial analysis d.
Technical evaluation
172. The standard distance of a commercial activity from an
education center should be
a. 15 minutes by public transport b. 15 minutes by private
transport c. 30 minutes minimum travel time by public transport d.
60 minutes travel time by public transport
173. This represents the earning power of money invested in the
project
a. Internal rate of return b. Net present value c. Annuity d.
Discounting
174. The process of finding the present value of future amount
is called
a. Discounting b. Acid test c. Payback d. Return of
investment
175. The best measure of the projects economic worthiness and
its adaptation as a basis for project acceptability is
a. Net present value b. Discounted rate c. EIRR d. FIRR
176. The hurdle rated used by NEDA is
a. 15% b. 18% c. 12% d. 20%
177. Patterned after the Batem/Johore/Singapore growth triangle,
another growth triangle in Southeast Asia is being considered which
involves
a. Mindanao/Sulawesi/Sabah-Sarawak b. Mindanao/Sarawak/Borneo c.
Zaboanga/Sulawesi/Sabah d. Zamboanga/Sabah/Sarawak
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178. This concept refers to the necessary combination of
agricultural, industrial and institutional activities in ways that
are mutually reinforcing- fostering of small regional towns which
are attractive enough with regards to services, housing and
cultural/social amenities to stabilized the population and
industries closely tied to agricultural production
a. Integrated area development b. Agro-industrial development c.
Regional development d. Rural development
179. Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local
government units, the National Government transfers these funds to
LGUs for their administrative, public order and safety
operations
a. Internal Revenue Allotments (IRA) b. Budgetary Allocations
(BA) c. Local Development Allotments (LDA) d. LGU Budgetary
Allotments (LBA)
180. An urban area which has the following characteristics: It
has a strong linkage with economy; it is the center of the labor
market; it is a major wholesale and retail trade area; it has a
high level of tertiary functions; has a good urban system; and has
a population less that 250,000 is called
a. Growth center b. Metropolitan area c. Major urban area d.
Minor urban area
181. A ratio that measures output per worker is called
a. Labor intensity b. Labor productivity c. Efficiency d. Minor
urban area
182. A measure that indicates the intensity of the factors of
production is known as
a. Capital-labor ratio b. Return of investment c. Net cash flow
d. Capital efficiency
183. This concept refers to a situation where an industry
through the flow of goods and incomes stimulates the development
and growth of the industries, that are technically related to it,
and determines the prosperity of the tertiary sector or stimulates
an increase of the regional income
a. Growth pole b. Industrial polarization c. Industrial
decentralization d. Industrial location
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184. Complementing industrial estates, these area are being
established in order to accelerate industrialization in the regions
through small ad medium enterprises and peoples industrial
enterprises
a. Regional industrial centers b. Core industries center c.
Industrial corridors d. Industrial diffusion
185. This strategy aims to promote greater complementarity
between agriculture and industry and between urban and rural
sectors
a. Countryside agro-industrial development b. National council
for integrated area development c. Nationwide agro-industrial area
development
186. Specific physical planning standards followed in the design
and construction of industrial estates on the Philippines are
generally based on
a. National Building Code b. Architectural Graphic Standards c.
Physical Planning Code d. BP 344
187. These are free ports where export trade is the exclusive
activity
a. Free trade zones b. Free trade areas c. Industrial estates d.
Export processing zones
188. The rate used to discount the future streams of estimated
costs and benefits is known as
a. Social discount rate b. Inflation rate c. Financial rate of
return d. Economic internal rate of return
189. Urban development tends to occur along major transportation
routes because
a. Population tends to concentrate where transportation is
available b. Transportation facilities tend to services areas where
there is a
population concentration c. Both A and B d. None of the
above
190. Land use changes in large and development cities is largely
a function of
a. Government and land use and zoning policies b. Existing and
expected land values c. Demand for housing d. Foreign
investments
191. The most efficient type of hierarchy of settlements is one
wherein
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a. There is no single, dominant urban center b. All settlements
are equal in size c. All settlements are distributed equally in
space d. None of the above
192. Often, a hierarchy of settlements is characterized by the
presence of
a. A few large cities, some medium-sized cities, and many small
settlements
b. Only medium-sized and small settlements c. Equally-sized
large cities in every region d. Only one large city and many smell
settlements
193. The larger the population of a city, the more likely its
economy allows for
a. More specialization b. Increased self-sufficiency c.
Environmental protection d. Higher demand for indigenous
products
194. As a region urbanizes and expand economically, the dominant
economic activities become those from the
a. Mining and other extractive activities b. Manufacturing
sector c. Services sector d. None of the above
195. One of the following consists of an area pf land. Which is
generally developed based on a comprehensive plan, allocated for
factory buildings either sold or leased for manufacturing
purposes
a. Industrial estate b. Integrated area development c.
Industrial subdivision d. Commercial/industrial estate
196. This type of industrial estate intends to advance, improve
or increase the level of industrial activity in the area,
particularly lagging regions
a. Developmental b. Promotional c. Relocational d. Private
197. This type of industrial estate refers to those established
for developing new industries
a. Promotional b. Developmental c. Relocational d. Private
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198. This type of industrial estate is one where the functions
of one type of industry are subdivided into smaller specialized
units to provide parts or components to the main industrial
manufacturing unit
a. Ancillary b. Composite c. Specialized d. Promotional
199. This type of industrial estate is usually large and built
for heavy industry
a. Coastal b. Rural c. Specialized d. Inland
200. This type of industrial estate is generally built for
assembly and processing types of industries
a. Inland b. Coastal c. Specialized d. Rural
201. The first estate in the country which became operational in
1972, was the
a. Bataan IE b. Dasmarias IE c. Mactan IE d. Sapang Palay IE
202. Industrial density refers to
a. Number of manufacturing employees per gross industrially used
hectarage
b. Number of manufacturing employees per net industrially used
hectarage
c. Number of industries per gross land hectarage d. Number of
industries per net land hectrage
203. The slope range that is prescribed as production land use
is
a. 0-18% b. Above 50% c. 16-50% d. 0-8%
204. The elevation reserved for protection land use is
a. Above 500 b. Above 100 c. Above 2,000 d. Above 1,000
mtrs.
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205. Under the 1998 Evolutionary Soil Classification System, the
classification level depicted in the Bureau of Soils and Water
Management is the
a. Soil order b. Soil type c. Soil great group d. Soil
series
206. A Philippine climatic type characterized by rainfall evenly
distributed throughout the years refers to:
a. Type III b. Type II c. Type IV d. Type I
207. The Philippine forest type that is adapted to growing in
steep slopes and in places with a distinct wet and dry season is
the
a. Pine/saleng b. Diptrocarp c. Molave/molawin d. Mangrove
208. The aw requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive,
multi-sectoral development plan initiated by their development
councils and approved by their Sanggunians is:
a. PD 399 b. Executive Order No. 72 c. RA 7160 d. PD 1517
209. The law regulating the practice of environmental planning
is
a. PD 1308 b. PD 1517 c. PD 957 d. None of the above
210. The Law proclaiming of land certain areas and types of
projects as environmentally critical and within the scope of the
EIS system
a. PD 1586 b. Proclamation No. 2146 c. PD 1152 c. DAO 96-37
211. Reclassification of land in highly urbanized areas, after
conducting public hearing for the purpose, shall be limited to
a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
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212. A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting
the land use is
a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan b. Zoning Ordinance c. Cadastral
Survey d. tax Declaration
213. A special locational clearance which grants a property
owners relief from certain provisions of the zoning ordinance
where, because of the particular physical surrounding, shape or
topographical conditions of the property, compliance with height,
area bulk, setback and/or density would result in a particular
hardship to the owner
a. Certificate of Non-Conformance b. Exception c. Variance d.
None of the above
214. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain
provisions of a Zoning ordinance where, because of the specific use
would result in a particular hardship to the owner
a. Variance b. Certificate of Non-Conformance c. Exception d.
Development
215. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise
the poblacion and other built-up areas including the urbanizable
land in and adjacent to said areas and whereat least 50% of the
population area engaged in non-agricultural activities:
a. Central business district b. Urban area c. City center d.
Suburban area
216. Cities with a minimum population of 200,000 inhabitants as
certified by the National Statistics Office and with latest annual
income of at least P 50,000,000 based on 1996 constant prices as
certified by the City Treasurer are called
a. Independent component cities b. regional centers c. Highly
urbanized cities d. Component cities
217. Urbanized began around 4,000 B.C. in the area known as
the
a. Fertile Crescent b. Mediterranean c. Babylon d. Asia
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218. The primary factor/s in the location of cities during the
Bronze Age along the Indus Valley is/are:
a. Transport b. Agriculture c. Defense d. None of the three e.
All of the above
219. He developed the first theoretical basis for physical
planning
a. Hippodamus b. Nicodemus c. Nostradamus d. Aristotle
220. They understood the importance of transportation and thus
emerges as the first regional planners of the world.
a. Greeks b. Romans c. Sumerians d. Egyptians
221. It was during this period that the concept of urban design
was established
a. Renaissance b. Bronze Age c. Medieval Period d. Atomic
Age
222. The garden City as a solution to urban planning
problems
a. Malthus b. Ebenezer Howard c. Nicodemus d. Adam Smith
223. He theorized that physical planning could not improved
urban living conditions unless it was integrated with social and
economic planning in a context od environmental concerns.
a. William penn b. Patrick Geddes c. Peirre L Enfant d. None of
the three
224. The architect planner who designed Luneta, Tgatay and
Baguio
a. Burnham b. Concio c. Faithful d. None of the above
225. Rectangular streets are examples of the
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a. Grid iron pattern b. Axial c. Radial d. Ribbon-type
226. What was the most important factor in designing settlement
patterns during the Spanish Period in the Philippines?
a. Plaza b. Economy c. Transportation d. Religion
227. Aside from volume and growth, what is the other key point
that a tourism analyst should consider in analyzing tourist
arrivals?
a. Qualitative changes in tourist arrivals b. Socio-cultural
changes c. Political changes d. None of the above
228. The tourist market can be classified into business, mass
holiday, and _____ markets.
a. Eco-tourism b. Historical c. Location specific natural and
cultural d. None of the above
229. Tourist may create the type of employment opportunities in
the area. These are direct, indirect and ____ jobs.
a. Multiplier b. Induced c. Locational d. Service
230. The four in typical economic cycle are recession ______,
recovery and boom.
a. Slump b. Deflation c. Inflation d. Sustainable growth
231. In formulating its industrial program, the government
should consider equity, technical efficiency and ______
a. Allocative efficiency b. Comparative advantages c. Resource
collection d. Availability of skilled labor
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232. Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National
Ecological Solid Waste Management Program seeks to:
a. Promote public health and environment protection b. Encourage
greater private sector participation while retaining the
primary enforcement and responsibility with the LGUs c. mandates
all LGUs to divert at least 25% of all solid wastes from
disposal facilities through reuse, recycling, composting and
other resource recovery activities
d. A and C only. E. All of the above
233. Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to divert at least 25% of
their solid wastes from existing disposal facilities within a
period of:
a. 10 years b. 2 years c. 5 years d. 1 year
234. At the national level, RA 9003 mandates the creation of
National Solid Waste Management Commission under the office of:
a. President b. DENR c. DILG d. NEDA
235. The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall be
formulated and shall include the following:
a. Analysis and evaluate of the current state, trends,
projections of solid waste management on the national, provincial,
ad municipal levels
b. Identification of critical solid waste facilities c.
Characteristics and conditions of collection, storage,
processing,
disposal, operating methods, techniques and practices are
conducted, taking into account the nature of the waste
d. Proposed sites for sanitary land fill e. All of the above f.
A and C only
236. It refers to the discipline associated with the control of
generations, storage, collection, transfer and transport,
processing and disposal of solid wastes in a manner that is in
accord with the best principles of public health, economies,
engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other environmental
considerations and which is also responsive to public attitudes
a. Environmental Impact Assessment b. Development Planning
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39
c. Waste Segregation d. Solid Waste Management
237. The Local Government Solid Management Plan shall include,
but not limited to the following components:
a. City or Municipal profile b. Waste characterization c.
Collection and transfer d. Source reduction e. All of the above f.
B and D only
238. Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 provides for the mandatory
segregation of solid wastes. Specifically, the LGUs shall
promulgate regulations, requiring the owner or person in charge of
premises containing:
a. Five residential units b. Six residential units c. Six or
more residential units d. At least ten residential units
to provide for the residents a designated area and containers in
which to accumulate source separated recyclable materials to be
collected by the municipal or private center..
239. The following are the minimum criteria siting of sanitary
land fills
a. The site selected must be consistent with the overall land
use plan of the LGU
b. The site must be accessible from major roadways or
thoroughfares c. the site should have adequate quantity of earth
cover material that
is easily handled and compacted d. The site must be large enough
to accommodate the communitys
wastes for a period of ten (10) years during which the people
must internalize the value of environmentally sound and sustainable
solid waste disposal
e. All of the above f. All except D
240. Guidelines for identification of common solid waste
management problems and are appropriate for clustered solid waste
management services shall be based on the following:
a. Preference of political leaders b. Size and location of areas
which should be included
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c. Volume of solid waste which should be generated d. Available
means of cording local government planning between and
among LGUs and for the integrated of such with the national plan
e. Possible life span of the disposal facilities f. A to E g. B to
E
241. The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to pay the
cost preparing, Adopting, and implementing a solid waste management
plan. Such fees shall be based on the following minimum
factors:
a. Type of solid waste b. Amount/volume of solid waste c.
Distance of transfer station to the waste management facility d.
Capacity to pay e. A, B, C, D f. A to C
242. Areas with high biodiversity value which shall be closed to
all human activity except for scientific studies and/or ceremonial
or religious use by indigenous communities
a. Restoration Zone b. Habitat Management Zone c. Bypass Zone d.
Strict Protection Zone
243. Each establishment protected area shall be administered
by:
a. Office of the Mayor b. Sanggunian Bayan c. Planning Officer
d. Protested Area Management Board
244. This is an organizational process for determining
systematically and objectively the relevance, efficiency,
effectiveness and impact of activities in the light of their
objectives
a. Planning b. Project Identification c. Resource Generation d.
Evaluation
245. This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some years
after project completion when full project benefits and impact are
expected to have been realized.
a. Terminal Evaluation b. On-going Evaluation c. Ex-post
Evaluation
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d. Pre-Evaluation
246. The M&E strategy should carefully examine
a. The contents, i.e. the date and indicators used b. The format
c. The frequency of existing reports d. All of the above
247. A project with negative NPV means;
a. Benefit cost ration is higher that 1 b. Present value of
benefits is higher than present value of roots c. IRR is higher
than prevailing interest rate d. discount rate used is higher that
IRR e. none of the above
248. When projecting market demand for a project, which of the
following combination of techniques is not advisable:
a. Survey/planning standards b. Market testing/time series
analysis c. Experts opinion/census d. Statistical demand
analysis/time series analysis e. None of the above
249. This indicate the number of years it would take to recoup
the investments in he project
a. payback period b. retention period c. return on investment d.
profit margin e. none of the above
250. Money is more valuable now that tomorrow not because of
a. uncertainty of risk b. income opportunities now c. better
prospects in the future d. present consumption e. none of the
above