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Element 4A (Advanced) Question PoolLast updated 10:37 AM EDT on
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QUESTION POOL ELEMENT 4A - ADVANCED CLASS as released by
Question Pool Committee National Conference of Volunteer Examiner
Coordinators December 1, 1994
For use in examinations beginning July 1, 1995. To obtain the
necessary graphics sheet, send an SASE to ARRL/VEC (New Advanced
Pool Graphics Sheet Request) 225 Main Street, Newington CT 06111.
The answer to each question can be found in paranthesis following
the question number. The Part 97 reference found within brakets in
questions A1A01-A1F14 are the relavent FCC Rule citations.
A1 - COMMISSION'S RULES [6 exam questions - 6 groups]
A1A Advanced control operator frequency privileges;
stationidentification; emissions standards
A1A01 (A) [97.301c] What are the frequency limits for Advanced
class operators in the75/80-meter band (ITU Region 2)?A. 3525 -
3750 kHz and 3775 - 4000 kHzB. 3500 - 3525 kHz and 3800 - 4000
kHzC. 3500 - 3525 kHz and 3800 - 3890 kHzD. 3525 - 3775 kHz and
3800 - 4000 kHz
A1A02 (B) [97.301c] What are the frequency limits for Advanced
class operators in the 40-meter band (ITU Region 2)?A. 7000 - 7300
kHzB. 7025 - 7300 kHzC. 7025 - 7350 kHzD. 7000 - 7025 kHz
A1A03 (D) [97.301c] What are the frequency limits for Advanced
class operators in the 20-meter band?A. 14000 - 14150 kHz and 14175
- 14350 kHzB. 14025 - 14175 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHzC. 14000 -
14025 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHzD. 14025 - 14150 kHz and 14175 -
14350 kHz
A1A04 (C) [97.301c] What are the frequency limits for Advanced
class operators in the 15-meter band?A. 21000 - 21200 kHz and 21250
- 21450 kHz
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B. 21000 - 21200 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHzC. 21025 - 21200 kHz
and 21225 - 21450 kHzD. 21025 - 21250 kHz and 21270 - 21450 kHz
A1A05 (B) [97.119e3] If you are a Technician Plus licensee with
a Certificate of SuccessfulCompletion of Examination (CSCE) for
Advanced privileges, how do youidentify your station when
transmitting on 14.185 MHz?A. Give your call sign followed by the
name of the VEC who coordinatedthe exam session where you obtained
the CSCEB. Give your call sign followed by the slant mark "/"
followed by theidentifier "AA"C. You may not use your new frequency
privileges until your licensearrives from the FCCD. Give your call
sign followed by the word "Advanced"
A1A06 (B) [97.119a] How must an Advanced class operator using
Amateur Extra frequenciesidentify during a contest, assuming the
contest control operator holdsan Amateur Extra class license?A.
With his or her own call signB. With the control operator's call
signC. With his or her own call sign followed by the identifier
"AE"D. With the control operator's call sign followed by his or her
owncall sign
A1A07 (D) [97.119d] How must an Advanced class operator using
Advanced frequenciesidentify from a Technician Plus class
operator's station?A. With either his or her own call sign followed
by the identifier"KT", or the Technician Plus call sign followed by
the identifier "AA"B. With the Technician Plus call signC. The
Advanced class operator cannot use Advanced frequencies
whileoperating the Technician Plus stationD. With either his or her
own call sign only, or the Technician Pluscall sign followed by his
or her own call sign
A1A08 (A) [97.307d] What is the maximum mean power permitted for
any spurious emissionfrom a transmitter or external RF power
amplifier transmitting on afrequency below 30 MHz?A. 50 mWB. 100
mWC. 10 mWD. 10 W
A1A09 (B) [97.307d] How much below the mean power of the
fundamental emission must anyspurious emissions from a station
transmitter or external RF poweramplifier transmitting on a
frequency below 30 MHz be attenuated?A. At least 10 dBB. At least
40 dBC. At least 50 dBD. At least 100 dB
A1A10 (C) [97.307e] How much below the mean power of the
fundamental emission must anyspurious emissions from a transmitter
or external RF power amplifiertransmitting on a frequency between
30 and 225 MHz be attenuated?A. At least 10 dBB. At least 40 dB
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C. At least 60 dBD. At least 100 dB
A1A11 (D) [97.307e] What is the maximum mean power permitted for
any spurious emissionfrom a transmitter having a mean power of 25 W
or less on frequenciesbetween 30 and 225 MHz?A. 5 microwattsB. 10
microwattsC. 20 microwattsD. 25 microwatts
A1B Definition and operation of remote control and automatic
control;control link
A1B01 (D) [97.3a35] What is meant by a remotely controlled
station?A. A station operated away from its regular home locationB.
Control of a station from a point located other than at the
stationtransmitterC. A station operating under automatic controlD.
A station controlled indirectly through a control link
A1B02 (D) [97.3a6] What is the term for the control of a station
that is transmittingwithout the control operator being present at
the control point?A. Simplex controlB. Manual controlC. Linear
controlD. Automatic control
A1B03 (A) [97.201d,97.203d,97.205d]Which kind of station
operation may not be automatically controlled?A. Control of a model
craftB. Beacon operationC. Auxiliary operationD. Repeater
operation
A1B04 (B) [97.205d] Which kind of station operation may be
automatically controlled?A. Stations without a control operatorB.
Stations in repeater operationC. Stations under remote controlD.
Stations controlling model craft
A1B05 (A) [97.3a6] What is meant by automatic control of a
station?A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that a
controloperator does not have to be present at a control pointB. A
station operating with its output power controlled automaticallyC.
Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator doesnot
have to be present at the control point at all timesD. The use of a
control link between a control point and a locallycontrolled
station
A1B06 (B) [97.3a6] How do the control operator responsibilities
of a station underautomatic control differ from one under local
control?A. Under local control there is no control operatorB. Under
automatic control a control operator is not required to bepresent
at a control point
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C. Under automatic control there is no control operatorD. Under
local control a control operator is not required to bepresent at a
control point
A1B07 (C) [97.205b, 97.301b,c,d] What frequencies in the
10-meter band are available for repeateroperation?A. 28.0 - 28.7
MHzB. 29.0 - 29.7 MHzC. 29.5 - 29.7 MHzD. 28.5 - 29.7 MHz
A1B08 (D) [97.205b, 97.301a]What frequencies in the 6-meter band
are available for repeateroperation (ITU Region 2)?A. 51.00 - 52.00
MHzB. 50.25 - 52.00 MHzC. 52.00 - 53.00 MHzD. 51.00 - 54.00 MHz
A1B09 (A) [97.205b, 97.301a] What frequencies in the 2-meter
band are available for repeateroperation (ITU Region 2)?A. 144.5 -
145.5 and 146 - 148 MHzB. 144.5 - 148 MHzC. 144 - 145.5 and 146 -
148 MHzD. 144 - 148 MHz
A1B10 (B) [97.205b, 97.301a] What frequencies in the 1.25-meter
band are available for repeateroperation (ITU Region 2)?A. 220.25 -
225.00 MHzB. 222.15 - 225.00 MHzC. 221.00 - 225.00 MHzD. 223.00 -
225.00 MHz
A1B11 (A) [97.205b, 97.301a] What frequencies in the 70-cm band
are available for repeateroperation (ITU Region 2)?A. 420 - 431,
433 - 435 and 438 - 450 MHzB. 420 - 440 and 445 - 450 MHzC. 420 -
435 and 438 - 450 MHzD. 420 - 431, 435 - 438 and 439 - 450 MHz
A1B12 (C) [97.301a] What frequencies in the 23-cm band are
available for repeateroperation?A. 1270 - 1300 MHzB. 1270 - 1295
MHzC. 1240 - 1300 MHzD. Repeater operation is not permitted in the
band
A1B13 (C) [97.213b] If the control link of a station under
remote control malfunctions,how long may the station continue to
transmit?A. 5 secondsB. 10 minutesC. 3 minutesD. 5 minutes
A1B14 (C) [97.3a35, 97.3a36, 97.213a]
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What is a control link?A. A device that automatically controls
an unattended stationB. An automatically operated link between two
stationsC. The means of control between a control point and a
remotelycontrolled stationD. A device that limits the time of a
station's transmission
A1B15 (D) [97.3a35, 97.3a36, 97.213a] What is the term for
apparatus to effect remote control between acontrol point and a
remotely controlled station?A. A tone linkB. A wire controlC. A
remote controlD. A control link
A1C Type acceptance of external RF power amplifiers and external
RFpower amplifier kits
A1C01 (D) [97.315a] How many external RF amplifiers of a
particular design capable ofoperation below 144 MHz may an
unlicensed, non-amateur build or modifyin one calendar year without
obtaining a grant of FCC type acceptance?A. 1B. 5C. 10D. None
A1C02 (B) [97.315c] If an RF amplifier manufacturer was granted
FCC type acceptance forone of its amplifier models for amateur use,
what would this allow themanufacturer to market?A. All current
models of their equipmentB. Only that particular amplifier modelC.
Any future amplifier modelsD. Both the current and any future
amplifier models
A1C03 (A) [97.315b5] Under what condition may an equipment
dealer sell an external RF poweramplifier capable of operation
below 144 MHz if it has not been FCCtype accepted?A. If it was
purchased in used condition from an amateur operator andis sold to
another amateur operator for use at that operator's stationB. If it
was assembled from a kit by the equipment dealerC. If it was
imported from a manufacturer in a country that does notrequire type
acceptance of RF power amplifiersD. If it was imported from a
manufacturer in another country, and itwas type accepted by that
country's government
A1C04 (D) [97.317a1] Which of the following is one of the
standards that must be met by anexternal RF power amplifier if it
is to qualify for a grant of FCCtype acceptance?A. It must produce
full legal output when driven by not more than 5watts of mean RF
input powerB. It must be capable of external RF switching between
its input andoutput networksC. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or
less over its full output rangeD. It must satisfy the spurious
emission standards when operated atits full output power
A1C05 (D) [97.317a2]
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Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met
by anexternal RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of
FCCtype acceptance?A. It must produce full legal output when driven
by not more than 5watts of mean RF input powerB. It must be capable
of external RF switching between its input andoutput networksC. It
must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output rangeD. It
must satisfy the spurious emission standards when placed in
the"standby" or "off" position, but is still connected to the
transmitter
A1C06 (C) [97.317b] Which of the following is one of the
standards that must be met by anexternal RF power amplifier if it
is to qualify for a grant of FCCtype acceptance?A. It must produce
full legal output when driven by not more than 5watts of mean RF
input powerB. It must exhibit a gain of at least 20 dB for any
input signalC. It must not be capable of operation on any frequency
between 24 MHzand 35 MHzD. Any spurious emissions from the
amplifier must be no more than 40dB stronger than the desired
output signal
A1C07 (B) [97.317a3] Which of the following is one of the
standards that must be met by anexternal RF power amplifier if it
is to qualify for a grant of FCCtype acceptance?A. It must have a
time-delay circuit to prevent it from operatingcontinuously for
more than ten minutesB. It must satisfy the spurious emission
standards when driven with atleast 50 W mean RF power (unless a
higher drive level is specified)C. It must not be capable of
modification by an amateur operatorwithout voiding the warrantyD.
It must exhibit no more than 6 dB of gain over its entire
operatingrange
A1C08 (A) [97.317c1] Which of the following would disqualify an
external RF power amplifierfrom being granted FCC type
acceptance?A. Any accessible wiring which, when altered, would
permit operationof the amplifier in a manner contrary to FCC
RulesB. Failure to include a schematic diagram and theory of
operationmanual that would permit an amateur to modify the
amplifierC. The capability of being switched by the operator to any
amateurfrequency below 24 MHzD. Failure to produce 1500 watts of
output power when driven by atleast 50 watts of mean input
power
A1C09 (C) [97.317c8] Which of the following would disqualify an
external RF power amplifierfrom being granted FCC type
acceptance?A. Failure to include controls or adjustments that would
permit theamplifier to operate on any frequency below 24 MHzB.
Failure to produce 1500 watts of output power when driven by
atleast 50 watts of mean input powerC. Any features designed to
facilitate operation in atelecommunication service other than the
Amateur ServiceD. The omission of a schematic diagram and theory of
operation manualthat would permit an amateur to modify the
amplifier
A1C10 (D) [97.317c3]
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Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power
amplifierfrom being granted FCC type acceptance?A. The omission of
a safety switch in the high-voltage power supply toturn off the
power if the cabinet is openedB. Failure of the amplifier to
exhibit more than 15 dB of gain overits entire operating rangeC.
The omission of a time-delay circuit to prevent the amplifier
fromoperating continuously for more than ten minutesD. The
inclusion of instructions for operation or modification of
theamplifier in a manner contrary to the FCC Rules
A1C11 (B) [97.317b2] Which of the following would disqualify an
external RF power amplifierfrom being granted FCC type
acceptance?A. Failure to include a safety switch in the
high-voltage power supplyto turn off the power if the cabinet is
openedB. The amplifier produces 3 dB of gain for input signals
between 26MHz and 28 MHzC. The inclusion of a schematic diagram and
theory of operation manualthat would permit an amateur to modify
the amplifierD. The amplifier produces 1500 watts of output power
when driven by atleast 50 watts of mean input power
A1D Definition and operation of spread spectrum; auxiliary
stationoperation
A1D01 (C) [97.3c8] What is the name for emissions using
bandwidth-expansion modulation?A. RTTYB. ImageC. Spread spectrumD.
Pulse
A1D02 (C) [97.311c] What two spread spectrum techniques are
permitted on the amateurbands?A. Hybrid switching and direct
frequencyB. Frequency switching and linear frequencyC. Frequency
hopping and direct sequenceD. Logarithmic feedback and binary
sequence
A1D03 (C) [97.311g] What is the maximum transmitter power
allowed for spread spectrumtransmissions?A. 5 wattsB. 10 wattsC.
100 wattsD. 1500 watts
A1D04 (D) [97.3a7] What is meant by auxiliary station
operation?A. A station operated away from its home locationB.
Remote control of model craftC. A station controlled from a point
located other than at the stationtransmitterD. Communications sent
point-to-point within a system of cooperatingamateur stations
A1D05 (A) [97.3a6, 97.3a7, 97.3a35, 97.201, 97.205, 97.213a]
What is one use for a station in auxiliary operation?A. Remote
control of a station in repeater operation
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B. Remote control of model craftC. Passing of international
third-party communicationsD. The retransmission of NOAA weather
broadcasts
A1D06 (B) [97.3a7] Auxiliary stations communicate with which
other kind of amateurstations?A. Those registered with a civil
defense organizationB. Those within a system of cooperating amateur
stationsC. Those in space station operationD. Any kind not under
manual control
A1D07 (C) [97.201b] On what amateur frequencies above 222.0 MHz
(the 1.25-meter band) areauxiliary stations NOT allowed to
operate?A. 222.00 - 223.00 MHz, 432 - 433 MHz and 436 - 438 MHzB.
222.10 - 223.91 MHz, 431 - 432 MHz and 435 - 437 MHzC. 222.00 -
222.15 MHz, 431 - 433 MHz and 435 - 438 MHzD. 222.00 - 222.10 MHz,
430 - 432 MHz and 434 - 437 MHz
A1D08 (B) [97.201a] What class of amateur license must one hold
to be the control operatorof an auxiliary station?A. Any classB.
Technician, Technician Plus, General, Advanced or Amateur ExtraC.
General, Advanced or Amateur ExtraD. Advanced or Amateur Extra
A1D09 (C) [97.119b1] When an auxiliary station is identified in
Morse code using anautomatic keying device used only for
identification, what is themaximum code speed permitted?A. 13 words
per minuteB. 30 words per minuteC. 20 words per minuteD. There is
no limitation
A1D10 (D) [97.119a]How often must an auxiliary station be
identified?A. At least once during each transmissionB. Only at the
end of a series of transmissionsC. At the beginning of a series of
transmissionsD. At least once every ten minutes during and at the
end of activity
A1D11 (A) [97.119b3] When may an auxiliary station be identified
using a digital code?A. Any time the digital code is used for at
least part of thecommunicationB. Any timeC. Identification by
digital code is not allowedD. No identification is needed for
digital transmissions
A1E "Line A"; National Radio Quiet Zone; business
communications;restricted operation; antenna structure
limitations
A1E01 (A) [97.3a26] Which of the following geographic
descriptions approximately describes"Line A"?A. A line roughly
parallel to, and south of, the US-Canadian borderB. A line roughly
parallel to, and west of, the US Atlantic coastlineC. A line
roughly parallel to, and north of, the US-Mexican border and
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Gulf coastlineD. A line roughly parallel to, and east of, the US
Pacific coastline
A1E02 (D) [97.303f1] Amateur stations may not transmit in which
frequency segment if theyare located north of "Line A"?A.
21.225-21.300 MHzB. 53-54 MHzC. 222-223 MHzD. 420-430 MHz
A1E03 (C) [97.3a29] What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?A. An
area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio TelescopeB. An
area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test AreaC. An Area
in Maryland, West Virginia and Virginia surrounding theNational
Radio Astronomy ObservatoryD. An area in Florida surrounding Cape
Canaveral
A1E04 (A) [97.203e,97.205f]Which of the following agencies is
protected from interference to itsoperations by the National Radio
Quiet Zone?A. The National Radio Astronomy Observatory at Green
Bank, WVB. NASA's Mission Control Center in Houston, TXC. The White
Sands Test Area in White Sands, NMD. The space shuttle launch
facilities in Cape Canaveral, FL
A1E05 (B) [97.113] Which communication is NOT a prohibited
transmission in the AmateurService?A. Sending messages for hire or
material compensationB. Calling a commercial tow truck service for
a breakdown on thehighwayC. Calling your employer to see if you
have any customers to contactD. Sending a false distress call as a
"joke"
A1E06 (C) [97.113a3] Under what conditions may you notify other
amateurs of theavailability of amateur station equipment for sale
or trade over theairwaves?A. You are never allowed to sell or trade
equipment on the airB. Only if this activity does not result in a
profit for youC. Only if this activity is not conducted on a
regular basisD. Only if the equipment is FCC type accepted and has
a serial number
A1E07 (C) [97.113a2]When may amateurs accept payment for using
their own stations (otherthan a club station) to send messages?A.
When employed by the FCCB. When passing emergency trafficC. Under
no circumstancesD. When passing international third-party
communications
A1E08 (D) [97.113a2] When may the control operator of a repeater
accept payment forproviding communication services to another
party?A. When the repeater is operating under portable powerB. When
the repeater is operating under local controlC. During Red Cross or
other emergency service drillsD. Under no circumstances
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A1E09 (D) [97.113a3] When may an amateur station send a message
to a business?A. When the total money involved does not exceed
$25B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or
anothergovernment agencyC. When transmitting international
third-party communicationsD. When neither the amateur nor his or
her employer has a pecuniaryinterest in the communications
A1E10 (C) [97.15a] What must an amateur obtain before installing
an antenna structuremore than 200 feet high?A. An environmental
assessmentB. A Special Temporary AuthorizationC. Prior FCC
approvalD. An effective radiated power statement
A1E11 (A) [97.15d] From what government agencies must you obtain
permission if you wishto install an antenna structure that exceeds
200 feet above groundlevel?A. The Federal Aviation Administration
(FAA) and the FederalCommunications Commission (FCC)B. The
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the FederalCommunications
Commission (FCC)C. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and
the EnvironmentalProtection Agency (EPA)D. The Environmental
Protection Agency (EPA) and National Aeronauticsand Space
Administration (NASA)
A1F Volunteer examinations: when examination is required;
examcredit; examination grading; Volunteer Examiner
requirements;Volunteer Examiner conduct
A1F01 (B) [97.505a] What examination credit must be given to an
applicant who holds anunexpired (or expired within the grace
period) FCC-issued amateuroperator license?A. No creditB. Credit
for the least elements required for the licenseC. Credit for only
the telegraphy requirements of the licenseD. Credit for only the
written element requirements of the license
A1F02 (B) [97.503a1] What ability with international Morse code
must an applicantdemonstrate when taking an Element 1(A) telegraphy
examination?A. To send and receive text at not less than 13 WPMB.
To send and receive text at not less than 5 WPMC. To send and
receive text at not less than 20 WPMD. To send text at not less
than 13 WPM
A1F03 (A) [97.503a] Besides all the letters of the alphabet,
numerals 0-9 and the period,comma and question mark, what
additional characters are used intelegraphy examinations?A. The
slant mark and prosigns AR, BT and SKB. The slant mark, open and
closed parenthesis and prosigns AR, BT andSKC. The slant mark,
dollar sign and prosigns AR, BT and SKD. No other characters
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A1F04 (B) [97.507d] In a telegraphy examination, how many
letters of the alphabet arecounted as one word?A. 2B. 5C. 8D.
10
A1F05 (C) [97.509b2] What is the minimum age to be a Volunteer
Examiner?A. 16B. 21C. 18D. 13
A1F06 (A) [97.509b4] When may a person whose amateur operator or
station license has everbeen revoked or suspended be a Volunteer
Examiner?A. Under no circumstancesB. After 5 years have elapsed
since the revocation or suspensionC. After 3 years have elapsed
since the revocation or suspensionD. After review and subsequent
approval by a VEC
A1F07 (B) [97.509b5] When may an employee of a company engaged
in the distribution ofequipment used in connection with amateur
station transmissions be aVolunteer Examiner?A. When the employee
is employed in the Amateur Radio sales part ofthe companyB. When
the employee does not normally communicate with themanufacturing or
distribution part of the companyC. When the employee serves as a
Volunteer Examiner for his or hercustomersD. When the employee does
not normally communicate with the benefitsand policies part of the
company
A1F08 (A) [97.509a, b1, b2, b3i] Who may administer an
examination for a Novice license?A. Three accredited Volunteer
Examiners at least 18 years old andholding at least a General class
licenseB. Three amateur operators at least 18 years old and holding
at leasta General class licenseC. Any accredited Volunteer Examiner
at least 21 years old and holdingat least a General class licenseD.
Two amateur operators at least 21 years old and holding at least
aTechnician class license
A1F09 (A) [97.509e] When may Volunteer Examiners be compensated
for their services?A. Under no circumstancesB. When out-of-pocket
expenses exceed $25C. When traveling over 25 miles to the test
siteD. When there are more than 20 applicants attending an
examinationsession
A1F10 (C) [97.509e] What are the penalties that may result from
fraudulently administeringamateur examinations?A. Suspension of
amateur station license for a period not to exceed 3monthsB. A
monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was
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committedC. Revocation of amateur station license and suspension
of operator'slicenseD. Restriction to administering only Novice
class license examinations
A1F11 (D) [97.509e] What are the penalties that may result from
administering examinationsfor money or other considerations?A.
Suspension of amateur station license for a period not to exceed
3monthsB. A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the
offense wascommittedC. Restriction to administering only Novice
class license examinationsD. Revocation of amateur station license
and suspension of operator'slicense
A1F12 (A) [97.509h] How soon must the administering Volunteer
Examiners grade anapplicant's completed examination element?A.
ImmediatelyB. Within 48 hoursC. Within 10 daysD. Within 24
hours
A1F13 (B) [97.509m] After the successful administration of an
examination, within how manydays must the Volunteer Examiners
submit the application to theircoordinating VEC?A. 7B. 10C. 5D.
30
A1F14 (C) [97.509m] After the successful administration of an
examination, where must theVolunteer Examiners submit the
application?A. To the nearest FCC Field OfficeB. To the FCC in
Washington, DCC. To the coordinating VECD. To the FCC in
Gettysburg, PA
A2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [1 question - 1 group]
A2A Facsimile communications; slow-scan TV transmissions;
spread-spectrum transmissions; HF digital communications (i.e.,
PacTOR,CLOVER, HF packet); automatic HF Forwarding
A2A01 (D) What is facsimile?A. The transmission of characters by
radioteletype that form a picturewhen printedB. The transmission of
still pictures by slow-scan televisionC. The transmission of video
by amateur televisionD. The transmission of printed pictures for
permanent display on paper
A2A02 (A) What is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile
picturetransmitted by an amateur station?A. 240 lines per minuteB.
50 lines per minuteC. 150 lines per second
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D. 60 lines per second
A2A03 (B) What is the approximate transmission time per frame
for a facsimilepicture transmitted by an amateur station at 240
lpm?A. 6 minutesB. 3.3 minutesC. 6 secondsD. 1/60 second
A2A04 (B) What is the term for the transmission of printed
pictures by radio?A. TelevisionB. FacsimileC. XerographyD.
ACSSB
A2A05 (C) In facsimile, what device converts variations in
picture brightnessand darkness into voltage variations?A. An LEDB.
A Hall-effect transistorC. A photodetectorD. An optoisolator
A2A06 (D) What information is sent by slow-scan television
transmissions?A. Baudot or ASCII characters that form a picture
when printedB. Pictures for permanent display on paperC. Moving
picturesD. Still pictures
A2A07 (C) How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an
amateur slow-scancolor television picture?A. 30 or 60B. 60 or 100C.
128 or 256D. 180 or 360
A2A08 (C) What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur
slow-scantelevision picture?A. 2300 HzB. 2000 HzC. 1500 HzD. 120
Hz
A2A09 (D) What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur
slow-scantelevision picture?A. 120 HzB. 1500 HzC. 2000 HzD. 2300
Hz
A2A10 (A) Why are received spread-spectrum signals so resistant
to interference?A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading
algorithm are suppressedin the receiverB. The high power used by a
spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its
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signal from being easily overpoweredC. The receiver is always
equipped with a special digital signalprocessor (DSP) interference
filterD. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal
thetransmitter to change frequencies
A2A11 (D)How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency
hopping (FH) work?A. If interference is detected by the receiver it
will signal thetransmitter to change frequenciesB. If interference
is detected by the receiver it will signal thetransmitter to wait
until the frequency is clearC. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is
used to shift the phase of anRF carrier very rapidly in a
particular sequenceD. The frequency of an RF carrier is changed
very rapidly according toa particular pseudo-random sequence
A2A12 (C)What is the most common data rate used for HF packet
communications?A. 48 baudsB. 110 baudsC. 300 baudsD. 1200 bauds
A3 - RADIO-WAVE PROPAGATION [2 questions - 2 groups]
A3A Sporadic-E; auroral propagation; ground-wave
propagation(distances and coverage, and frequency vs. distance in
each of thesetopics)
A3A01 (C) What is a sporadic-E condition?A. Variations in
E-region height caused by sunspot variationsB. A brief decrease in
VHF signal levels from meteor trails at E-region heightC. Patches
of dense ionization at E-region heightD. Partial tropospheric
ducting at E-region height
A3A02 (D) What is the term for the propagation condition in
which scatteredpatches of relatively dense ionization develop
seasonally at E-regionheights?A. Auroral propagationB. DuctingC.
ScatterD. Sporadic-E
A3A03 (A) In what region of the world is sporadic-E most
prevalent?A. The equatorial regionsB. The arctic regionsC. The
northern hemisphereD. The western hemisphere
A3A04 (B) On which amateur frequency band is the
extended-distance propagationeffect of sporadic-E most often
observed?A. 2 metersB. 6 metersC. 20 metersD. 160 meters
-
A3A05 (D) What effect does auroral activity have upon radio
communications?A. The readability of SSB signals increasesB. FM
communications are clearerC. CW signals have a clearer toneD. CW
signals have a fluttery tone
A3A06 (C) What is the cause of auroral activity?A. A high
sunspot levelB. A low sunspot levelC. The emission of charged
particles from the sunD. Meteor showers concentrated in the
northern latitudes
A3A07 (B) In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should
a directionalantenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of
auroral propagation?A. SouthB. NorthC. EastD. West
A3A08 (D) Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?A.
At F-region heightB. In the equatorial bandC. At D-region heightD.
At E-region height
A3A09 (A) Which emission modes are best for auroral
propagation?A. CW and SSBB. SSB and FMC. FM and CWD. RTTY and
AM
A3A10 (B) As the frequency of a signal is increased, how does
its ground-wavepropagation distance change?A. It increasesB. It
decreasesC. It stays the sameD. Radio waves don't propagate along
the Earth's surface
A3A11 (A) What typical polarization does ground-wave propagation
have?A. VerticalB. HorizontalC. CircularD. Elliptical
A3B Selective fading; radio-path horizon; take-off angle over
flat orsloping terrain; earth effects on propagation
A3B01 (B) What causes selective fading?A. Small changes in beam
heading at the receiving stationB. Phase differences between
radio-wave components of the sametransmission, as experienced at
the receiving stationC. Large changes in the height of the
ionosphere at the receiving
-
station ordinarily occurring shortly after either sunrise or
sunsetD. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting
stations
A3B02 (C) What is the propagation effect called that causes
selective fadingbetween received wave components of the same
transmission?A. Faraday rotationB. Diversity receptionC. Phase
differencesD. Phase shift
A3B03 (B) Which emission modes suffer the most from selective
fading?A. CW and SSBB. FM and double sideband AMC. SSB and AMTORD.
SSTV and CW
A3B04 (A) How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect
selectivefading?A. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidthsB. It is
more pronounced at narrow bandwidthsC. It is the same for both
narrow and wide bandwidthsD. The receiver bandwidth determines the
selective fading effect
A3B05 (D) Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the
geometric horizon?A. E-region skipB. D-region skipC. Auroral skipD.
Radio waves may be bent
A3B06 (A) How much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon
distance exceedthe geometric horizon?A. By approximately 15% of the
distanceB. By approximately twice the distanceC. By approximately
one-half the distanceD. By approximately four times the
distance
A3B07 (B) For a 3-element Yagi antenna with horizontally mounted
elements, howdoes the main lobe takeoff angle vary with height
above flat ground?A. It increases with increasing heightB. It
decreases with increasing heightC. It does not vary with heightD.
It depends on E-region height, not antenna height
A3B08 (B) For a 3-element Yagi antenna with horizontally mounted
elements, howdoes the main lobe takeoff angle vary with a downward
slope of theground (moving away from the antenna)?A. It increases
as the slope gets steeperB. It decreases as the slope gets
steeperC. It does not depend on the ground slopeD. It depends on
F-region height, not ground slope
A3B09 (B) What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF
propagation that travelsfor some distance within the F2 region?
-
A. Oblique-angle rayB. Pedersen rayC. Ordinary rayD. Heaviside
ray
A3B10 (B) Excluding enhanced propagation, what is the
approximate range ofnormal VHF propagation?A. 1000 milesB. 500
milesC. 1500 milesD. 2000 miles
A3B11 (C) What effect is usually responsible for propagating a
VHF signal over500 miles?A. D-region absorptionB. Faraday
rotationC. Tropospheric ductingD. Moonbounce
A3B12 (A) What happens to an electromagnetic wave as it
encounters air moleculesand other particles?A. The wave loses
kinetic energyB. The wave gains kinetic energyC. An aurora is
createdD. Nothing happens because the waves have no physical
substance
A4 - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICE [4 questions - 4 groups]
A4A Frequency measurement devices (i.e. frequency
counter,oscilloscope Lissajous figures, dip meter); component
mountingtechniques (i.e. surface, dead bug {raised}, circuit
board)
A4A01 (B) What is a frequency standard?A. A frequency chosen by
a net control operator for net operationsB. A device used to
produce a highly accurate reference frequencyC. A device for
accurately measuring frequency to within 1 HzD. A device used to
generate wide-band random frequencies
A4A02 (A) What does a frequency counter do?A. It makes frequency
measurementsB. It produces a reference frequencyC. It measures FM
transmitter deviationD. It generates broad-band white noise
A4A03 (C) If a 100 Hz signal is fed to the horizontal input of
an oscilloscopeand a 150 Hz signal is fed to the vertical input,
what type ofLissajous figure should be displayed on the screen?A. A
looping pattern with 100 loops horizontally and 150
loopsverticallyB. A rectangular pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm
highC. A looping pattern with 3 loops horizontally and 2 loops
verticallyD. An oval pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high
A4A04 (C) What is a dip-meter?
-
A. A field-strength meterB. An SWR meterC. A variable LC
oscillator with metered feedback currentD. A marker generator
A4A05 (D) What does a dip-meter do?A. It accurately indicates
signal strengthB. It measures frequency accuratelyC. It measures
transmitter output power accuratelyD. It gives an indication of the
resonant frequency of a circuit
A4A06 (B) How does a dip-meter function?A. Reflected waves at a
specific frequency desensitize a detector coilB. Power coupled from
an oscillator causes a decrease in meteredcurrentC. Power from a
transmitter cancels feedback currentD. Harmonics from an oscillator
cause an increase in resonant circuitQ
A4A07 (D) What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur
station?A. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to
measurepercentage of modulationB. To measure antenna resonance and
to measure percentage ofmodulationC. To measure antenna resonance
and to measure antenna impedanceD. To measure resonant frequency of
antenna traps and to measure atuned circuit resonant frequency
A4A08 (B) What types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a
tuned circuitbeing checked?A. Resistive and inductiveB. Inductive
and capacitiveC. Resistive and capacitiveD. Strong field
A4A09 (A) For best accuracy, how tightly should a dip-meter be
coupled with atuned circuit being checked?A. As loosely as
possibleB. As tightly as possibleC. First loosely, then tightlyD.
With a jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be
checked
A4A10 (B) What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly
coupled with atuned circuit being checked?A. Harmonics are
generatedB. A less accurate reading resultsC. Cross modulation
occursD. Intermodulation distortion occurs
A4A11 (D) What circuit construction technique uses leadless
components mountedbetween circuit board pads?A. Raised mountingB.
Integrated circuit mountingC. Hybrid device mounting
-
D. Surface mounting
A4B Meter performance limitations; oscilloscope
performancelimitations; frequency counter performance
limitations
A4B01 (B) What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response
and stability of aD'Arsonval-type meter?A. Calibration, coil
impedance and meter sizeB. Calibration, mechanical tolerance and
coil impedanceC. Coil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement
massD. Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current
A4B02 (A) What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response
and stability ofan oscilloscope?A. Accuracy and linearity of the
time base and the linearity andbandwidth of the deflection
amplifiersB. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier
voltageC. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and tube face
voltageincrementsD. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube
face frequencyincrements
A4B03 (D) How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be
improved?A. By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as
the timebaseB. By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and
increasing thevertical sweep rateC. By increasing the vertical
sweep rate and the horizontal amplifierfrequency responseD. By
increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical
amplifierfrequency response
A4B04 (B) What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response
and stability of afrequency counter?A. Number of digits in the
readout, speed of the logic and time basestabilityB. Time base
accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stabilityC. Time base
accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and timebase
stabilityD. Number of digits in the readout, external frequency
reference andtemperature coefficient of the logic
A4B05 (C) How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be
improved?A. By using slower digital logicB. By improving the
accuracy of the frequency responseC. By increasing the accuracy of
the time baseD. By using faster digital logic
A4B06 (C) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of
+/- 1.0 ppm reads146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual
frequency being measuredcould differ from the reading?A. 165.2 HzB.
14.652 kHzC. 146.52 HzD. 1.4652 MHz
-
A4B07 (A) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of
+/- 0.1 ppm reads146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual
frequency being measuredcould differ from the reading?A. 14.652
HzB. 0.1 MHzC. 1.4652 HzD. 1.4652 kHz
A4B08 (D) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of
+/- 10 ppm reads146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual
frequency being measuredcould differ from the reading?A. 146.52
HzB. 10 HzC. 146.52 kHzD. 1465.20 Hz
A4B09 (D) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of
+/- 1.0 ppm reads432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual
frequency being measuredcould differ from the reading?A. 43.21
MHzB. 10 HzC. 1.0 MHzD. 432.1 Hz
A4B10 (A) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of
+/- 0.1 ppm reads432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual
frequency being measuredcould differ from the reading?A. 43.21 HzB.
0.1 MHzC. 432.1 HzD. 0.2 MHz
A4B11 (C) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of
+/- 10 ppm reads432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual
frequency being measuredcould differ from the reading?A. 10 MHzB.
10 HzC. 4321 HzD. 432.1 Hz
A4C Receiver performance characteristics (i.e., phase
noise,desensitization, capture effect, intercept point, noise
floor, dynamicrange {blocking and IMD}, image rejection, MDS,
signal-to-noise-ratio)
A4C01 (D) What is the effect of excessive phase noise in a
receiver localoscillator?A. It limits the receiver ability to
receive strong signalsB. It reduces the receiver sensitivityC. It
decreases the receiver third-order intermodulation
distortiondynamic rangeD. It allows strong signals on nearby
frequencies to interfere withreception of weak signals
-
A4C02 (A) What is the term for the reduction in receiver
sensitivity caused by astrong signal near the received frequency?A.
DesensitizationB. QuietingC. Cross-modulation interferenceD.
Squelch gain rollback
A4C03 (B) What causes receiver desensitization?A. Audio gain
adjusted too lowB. Strong adjacent-channel signalsC. Squelch gain
adjusted too highD. Squelch gain adjusted too low
A4C04 (A) What is one way receiver desensitization can be
reduced?A. Shield the receiver from the transmitter causing the
problemB. Increase the transmitter audio gainC. Decrease the
receiver squelch gainD. Increase the receiver bandwidth
A4C05 (C) What is the capture effect?A. All signals on a
frequency are demodulated by an FM receiverB. All signals on a
frequency are demodulated by an AM receiverC. The strongest signal
received is the only demodulated signalD. The weakest signal
received is the only demodulated signal
A4C06 (C) What is the term for the blocking of one FM-phone
signal by anotherstronger FM-phone signal?A. DesensitizationB.
Cross-modulation interferenceC. Capture effectD. Frequency
discrimination
A4C07 (A) With which emission type is capture effect most
pronounced?A. FMB. SSBC. AMD. CW
A4C08 (D) What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver?A. The
weakest signal that can be detected under noisy
atmosphericconditionsB. The amount of phase noise generated by the
receiver localoscillatorC. The minimum level of noise that will
overload the receiver RFamplifier stageD. The weakest signal that
can be detected above the receiver internalnoise
A4C09 (B) What is the blocking dynamic range of a receiver that
has an 8-dBnoise figure and an IF bandwidth of 500 Hz if the
blocking level (1-dBcompression point) is -20 dBm?A. -119 dBmB. 119
dB
-
C. 146 dBD. -146 dBm
A4C10 (B) What part of a superheterodyne receiver determines the
image rejectionratio of the receiver?A. Product detectorB. RF
amplifierC. AGC loopD. IF filter
A4C11 (B) If you measured the MDS of a receiver, what would you
be measuring?A. The meter display sensitivity (MDS), or the
responsiveness of thereceiver S-meter to all signalsB. The minimum
discernible signal (MDS), or the weakest signal thatthe receiver
can detectC. The minimum distorting signal (MDS), or the strongest
signal thereceiver can detect without overloadingD. The maximum
detectable spectrum (MDS), or the lowest to highestfrequency range
of the receiver
A4D Intermodulation and cross-modulation interference
A4D01 (D) If the signals of two transmitters mix together in one
or both oftheir final amplifiers and unwanted signals at the sum
and differencefrequencies of the original signals are generated,
what is thiscalled?A. Amplifier desensitizationB. NeutralizationC.
Adjacent channel interferenceD. Intermodulation interference
A4D02 (B) How does intermodulation interference between two
repeatertransmitters usually occur?A. When the signals from the
transmitters are reflected out of phasefrom airplanes passing
overheadB. When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in
one or bothof their final amplifiersC. When they are in close
proximity and the signals cause feedback inone or both of their
final amplifiersD. When the signals from the transmitters are
reflected in phase fromairplanes passing overhead
A4D03 (B) How can intermodulation interference between two
repeater transmittersin close proximity often be reduced or
eliminated?A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving
powerB. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator
in thefeed line to the transmitter and duplexerC. By installing a
band-pass filter in the antenna feed lineD. By installing a
low-pass filter in the antenna feed line
A4D04 (D) What is cross-modulation interference?A. Interference
between two transmitters of different modulation typeB.
Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preampC.
Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signalD. Modulation from an
unwanted signal is heard in addition to the
-
desired signal
A4D05 (B) What is the term used to refer to the condition where
the signals froma very strong station are superimposed on other
signals beingreceived?A. Intermodulation distortionB.
Cross-modulation interferenceC. Receiver quietingD. Capture
effect
A4D06 (A) How can cross-modulation in a receiver be reduced?A.
By installing a filter at the receiverB. By using a better
antennaC. By increasing the receiver RF gain while decreasing the
AF gainD. By adjusting the passband tuning
A4D07 (C) What is the result of cross-modulation?A. A decrease
in modulation level of transmitted signalsB. Receiver quietingC.
The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired
signalD. Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier
A4D08 (C) What causes intermodulation in an electronic
circuit?A. Too little gainB. Lack of neutralizationC. Nonlinear
circuits or devicesD. Positive feedback
A4D09 (A) If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an
intermodulation-productsignal whenever a nearby transmitter
transmits on 146.52 MHz, what arethe two most likely frequencies
for the other interfering signal?A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHzB.
146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHzC. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHzD. 73.35 MHz
and 239.40 MHz
A4D10 (D) If a television receiver suffers from cross modulation
when a nearbyamateur transmitter is operating at 14 MHz, which of
the followingcures might be effective?A. A low-pass filter attached
to the output of the amateur transmitterB. A high-pass filter
attached to the output of the amateurtransmitterC. A low-pass
filter attached to the input of the television receiverD. A
high-pass filter attached to the input of the television
receiver
A4D11 (B) Which of the following is an example of
intermodulation distortion?A. Receiver blockingB. Splatter from an
SSB transmitterC. Overdeviation of an FM transmitterD. Excessive
2nd-harmonic output from a transmitter
A5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [10 questions - 10 groups]
A5A Characteristics of resonant circuits
-
A5A01 (A) What can cause the voltage across reactances in series
to be largerthan the voltage applied to them?A. ResonanceB.
CapacitanceC. ConductanceD. Resistance
A5A02 (C) What is resonance in an electrical circuit?A. The
highest frequency that will pass currentB. The lowest frequency
that will pass currentC. The frequency at which capacitive
reactance equals inductivereactanceD. The frequency at which power
factor is at a minimum
A5A03 (B) What are the conditions for resonance to occur in an
electricalcircuit?A. The power factor is at a minimumB. Inductive
and capacitive reactances are equalC. The square root of the sum of
the capacitive and inductivereactance is equal to the resonant
frequencyD. The square root of the product of the capacitive and
inductivereactance is equal to the resonant frequency
A5A04 (D) When the inductive reactance of an electrical circuit
equals itscapacitive reactance, what is this condition called?A.
Reactive quiescenceB. High QC. Reactive equilibriumD. Resonance
A5A05 (D) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series
R-L-C circuit atresonance?A. High, as compared to the circuit
resistanceB. Approximately equal to capacitive reactanceC.
Approximately equal to inductive reactanceD. Approximately equal to
circuit resistance
A5A06 (A) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit
with a resistor,an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at
resonance?A. Approximately equal to circuit resistanceB.
Approximately equal to inductive reactanceC. Low, as compared to
the circuit resistanceD. Approximately equal to capacitive
reactance
A5A07 (B) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a
series R-L-Ccircuit at resonance?A. It is at a minimumB. It is at a
maximumC. It is DCD. It is zero
A5A08 (B) What is the magnitude of the circulating current
within the components
-
of a parallel L-C circuit at resonance?A. It is at a minimumB.
It is at a maximumC. It is DCD. It is zero
A5A09 (A) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a
parallel R-L-Ccircuit at resonance?A. It is at a minimumB. It is at
a maximumC. It is DCD. It is zero
A5A10 (C) What is the relationship between the current through a
resonantcircuit and the voltage across the circuit?A. The voltage
leads the current by 90 degreesB. The current leads the voltage by
90 degreesC. The voltage and current are in phaseD. The voltage and
current are 180 degrees out of phase
A5A11 (C) What is the relationship between the current into (or
out of) aparallel resonant circuit and the voltage across the
circuit?A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degreesB. The
current leads the voltage by 90 degreesC. The voltage and current
are in phaseD. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of
phase
A5B Series resonance (capacitor and inductor to resonate at
aspecific frequency)
A5B01 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C
circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40
picofarads?A. 79.6 MHzB. 1.78 MHzC. 3.56 MHzD. 7.96 MHz
A5B02 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C
circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200
picofarads?A. 1.99 kHzB. 1.78 MHzC. 1.99 MHzD. 1.78 kHz
A5B03 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C
circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10
picofarads?A. 3.18 MHzB. 3.18 kHzC. 7.12 kHzD. 7.12 MHz
A5B04 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C
circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10
picofarads?A. 10.1 MHz
-
B. 63.7 MHzC. 10.1 kHzD. 63.7 kHz
A5B05 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C
circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40
picofarads?A. 13.1 MHzB. 14.5 MHzC. 14.5 kHzD. 13.1 kHz
A5B06 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C
circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 4 microhenrys and C is 20
picofarads?A. 19.9 kHzB. 17.8 kHzC. 19.9 MHzD. 17.8 MHz
A5B07 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C
circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads?A.
2.84 MHzB. 28.4 MHzC. 21.3 MHzD. 2.13 MHz
A5B08 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C
circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 15
picofarads?A. 23.7 MHzB. 23.7 kHzC. 35.4 kHzD. 35.4 MHz
A5B09 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C
circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 4 microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads?A.
28.1 kHzB. 28.1 MHzC. 49.7 MHzD. 49.7 kHz
A5B10 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C
circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 1 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads?A.
17.7 MHzB. 17.7 kHzC. 53.1 kHzD. 53.1 MHz
A5B11 (C) What is the value of capacitance (C) in a series R-L-C
circuit if thecircuit resonant frequency is 14.25 MHz and L is 2.84
microhenrys?A. 2.2 microfaradsB. 254 microfaradsC. 44 picofaradsD.
3933 picofarads
A5C Parallel resonance (capacitor and inductor to resonate at
a
-
specific frequency)
A5C01 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C
circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 1 microhenry and C is 10
picofarads?A. 50.3 MHzB. 15.9 MHzC. 15.9 kHzD. 50.3 kHz
A5C02 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C
circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 2 microhenrys and C is 15
picofarads?A. 29.1 kHzB. 29.1 MHzC. 5.31 MHzD. 5.31 kHz
A5C03 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C
circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 5 microhenrys and C is 9
picofarads?A. 23.7 kHzB. 3.54 kHzC. 23.7 MHzD. 3.54 MHz
A5C04 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C
circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 2 microhenrys and C is 30
picofarads?A. 2.65 kHzB. 20.5 kHzC. 2.65 MHzD. 20.5 MHz
A5C05 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C
circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 15 microhenrys and C is 5
picofarads?A. 18.4 MHzB. 2.12 MHzC. 18.4 kHzD. 2.12 kHz
A5C06 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C
circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40
picofarads?A. 1.33 kHzB. 14.5 MHzC. 1.33 MHzD. 14.5 kHz
A5C07 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C
circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 6
picofarads?A. 6.63 MHzB. 6.63 kHzC. 10.3 MHzD. 10.3 kHz
A5C08 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C
circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 10 microhenrys and C is 50
picofarads?
-
A. 3.18 MHzB. 3.18 kHzC. 7.12 kHzD. 7.12 MHz
A5C09 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C
circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 200 microhenrys and C is 10
picofarads?A. 3.56 MHzB. 7.96 kHzC. 3.56 kHzD. 7.96 MHz
A5C10 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C
circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 90 microhenrys and C is 100
picofarads?A. 1.77 MHzB. 1.68 MHzC. 1.77 kHzD. 1.68 kHz
A5C11 (D) What is the value of inductance (L) in a parallel
R-L-C circuit if thecircuit resonant frequency is 14.25 MHz and C
is 44 picofarads?A. 253.8 millihenrysB. 3.9 millihenrysC. 0.353
microhenrysD. 2.8 microhenrys
A5D Skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields
A5D01 (A) What is the result of skin effect?A. As frequency
increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of theconductor,
closer to the surfaceB. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in
a thinner layer of theconductor, closer to the surfaceC. Thermal
effects on the surface of the conductor increase theimpedanceD.
Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease
theimpedance
A5D02 (C) What effect causes most of an RF current to flow along
the surface ofa conductor?A. Layer effectB. Seeburg effectC. Skin
effectD. Resonance effect
A5D03 (A) Where does almost all RF current flow in a
conductor?A. Along the surface of the conductorB. In the center of
the conductorC. In a magnetic field around the conductorD. In a
magnetic field in the center of the conductor
A5D04 (D) Why does most of an RF current flow within a few
thousandths of aninch of its conductor's surface?A. Because a
conductor has AC resistance due to self-inductance
-
B. Because the RF resistance of a conductor is much less than
the DCresistanceC. Because of the heating of the conductor's
interiorD. Because of skin effect
A5D05 (C) Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF
currents thanfor direct currents?A. Because the insulation conducts
current at high frequenciesB. Because of the Heisenburg EffectC.
Because of skin effectD. Because conductors are non-linear
devices
A5D06 (C) What device is used to store electrical energy in an
electrostaticfield?A. A batteryB. A transformerC. A capacitorD. An
inductor
A5D07 (B) What unit measures electrical energy stored in an
electrostatic field?A. CoulombB. JouleC. WattD. Volt
A5D08 (B) What is a magnetic field?A. Current through the space
around a permanent magnetB. The space around a conductor, through
which a magnetic force actsC. The space between the plates of a
charged capacitor, through whicha magnetic force actsD. The force
that drives current through a resistor
A5D09 (D) In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about
a conductor inrelation to the direction of electron flow?A. In the
same direction as the currentB. In a direction opposite to the
currentC. In all directions; omnidirectionalD. In a direction
determined by the left-hand rule
A5D10 (D) What determines the strength of a magnetic field
around a conductor?A. The resistance divided by the currentB. The
ratio of the current to the resistanceC. The diameter of the
conductorD. The amount of current
A5D11 (B) What is the term for energy that is stored in an
electromagnetic orelectrostatic field?A. Amperes-joulesB. Potential
energyC. Joules-coulombsD. Kinetic energy
A5E Half-power bandwidth
-
A5E01 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel
resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of
95?A. 18.9 kHzB. 1.89 kHzC. 189 HzD. 58.7 kHz
A5E02 (D) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel
resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of
218?A. 58.7 kHzB. 606 kHzC. 47.3 kHzD. 16.5 kHz
A5E03 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel
resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of
150?A. 211 kHzB. 16.5 kHzC. 47.3 kHzD. 21.1 kHz
A5E04 (D) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel
resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 12.8 MHz and a Q
of 218?A. 21.1 kHzB. 27.9 kHzC. 17 kHzD. 58.7 kHz
A5E05 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel
resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q
of 150?A. 95 kHzB. 10.5 kHzC. 10.5 MHzD. 17 kHz
A5E06 (D) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel
resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q
of 95?A. 4.49 kHzB. 44.9 kHzC. 22.3 kHzD. 222.6 kHz
A5E07 (B) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel
resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 10.1 MHz and a Q
of 225?A. 4.49 kHzB. 44.9 kHzC. 22.3 kHzD. 223 kHz
A5E08 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel
resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 18.1 MHz and a Q
of 195?A. 92.8 kHzB. 10.8 kHz
-
C. 22.3 kHzD. 44.9 kHz
A5E09 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel
resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of
118?A. 22.3 kHzB. 76.2 kHzC. 31.4 kHzD. 10.8 kHz
A5E10 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel
resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q
of 187?A. 22.3 kHzB. 10.8 kHzC. 76.2 kHzD. 13.1 kHz
A5E11 (B) What term describes the frequency range over which the
circuitresponse is no more than 3 dB below the peak response?A.
ResonanceB. Half-power bandwidthC. Circuit QD. 2:1 bandwidth
A5F Circuit Q
A5F01 (A) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the
resonant frequency is14.128 MHz, L is 2.7 microhenrys and R is 18
kilohms?A. 75.1B. 7.51C. 71.5D. 0.013
A5F02 (B) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the
resonant frequency is14.128 MHz, L is 4.7 microhenrys and R is 18
kilohms?A. 4.31B. 43.1C. 13.3D. 0.023
A5F03 (C) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the
resonant frequency is4.468 MHz, L is 47 microhenrys and R is 180
ohms?A. 0.00735B. 7.35C. 0.136D. 13.3
A5F04 (D) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the
resonant frequency is14.225 MHz, L is 3.5 microhenrys and R is 10
kilohms?A. 7.35B. 0.0319C. 71.5D. 31.9
-
A5F05 (D) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the
resonant frequency is7.125 MHz, L is 8.2 microhenrys and R is 1
kilohm?A. 36.8B. 0.273C. 0.368D. 2.73
A5F06 (A) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the
resonant frequency is7.125 MHz, L is 10.1 microhenrys and R is 100
ohms?A. 0.221B. 4.52C. 0.00452D. 22.1
A5F07 (B) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the
resonant frequency is7.125 MHz, L is 12.6 microhenrys and R is 22
kilohms?A. 22.1B. 39C. 25.6D. 0.0256
A5F08 (B) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the
resonant frequency is3.625 MHz, L is 3 microhenrys and R is 2.2
kilohms?A. 0.031B. 32.2C. 31.1D. 25.6
A5F09 (D) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the
resonant frequency is3.625 MHz, L is 42 microhenrys and R is 220
ohms?A. 23B. 0.00435C. 4.35D. 0.23
A5F10 (A) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the
resonant frequency is3.625 MHz, L is 43 microhenrys and R is 1.8
kilohms?A. 1.84B. 0.543C. 54.3D. 23
A5F11 (C) Why is a resistor often included in a parallel
resonant circuit?A. To increase the Q and decrease the skin
effectB. To decrease the Q and increase the resonant frequencyC. To
decrease the Q and increase the bandwidthD. To increase the Q and
decrease the bandwidth
A5G Phase angle between voltage and current
A5G01 (A) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is
100 ohms, and XLis 100 ohms?
-
A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the currentB. 53.1
degrees with the voltage lagging the currentC. 36.9 degrees with
the voltage lagging the currentD. 53.1 degrees with the voltage
leading the current
A5G02 (B) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is
100 ohms, and XLis 50 ohms?A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging
the currentB. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC. 76
degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 76 degrees with the
voltage leading the current
A5G03 (C) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1
kilohm, andXL is 250 ohms?A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading
the currentB. 14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC.
14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 68.2 degrees
with the voltage lagging the current
A5G04 (B) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is
100 ohms, and XLis 100 ohms?A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading
the currentB. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC. 14
degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 76 degrees with the
voltage lagging the current
A5G05 (D) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is
100 ohms, and XLis 25 ohms?A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging
the currentB. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC. 76
degrees with the voltage leading the currentD. 14 degrees with the
voltage lagging the current
A5G06 (C) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is
100 ohms, and XLis 50 ohms?A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging
the currentB. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC. 14
degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 76 degrees with the
voltage leading the current
A5G07 (A) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is
100 ohms, andXL is 75 ohms?A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging
the currentB. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC. 76
degrees with the voltage leading the currentD. 76 degrees with the
voltage lagging the current
A5G08 (D) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the current
-
through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm,
andXL is 500 ohms?A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the
currentB. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC.
14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 14.04 degrees
with the voltage leading the current
A5G09 (D) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and
the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is
100 ohms, and XLis 75 ohms?A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading
the currentB. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentC. 14
degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 14 degrees with the
voltage leading the current
A5G10 (D) What is the relationship between the current through
and the voltageacross a capacitor?A. Voltage and current are in
phaseB. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phaseC. Voltage
leads current by 90 degreesD. Current leads voltage by 90
degrees
A5G11 (A) What is the relationship between the current through
an inductor andthe voltage across an inductor?A. Voltage leads
current by 90 degreesB. Current leads voltage by 90 degreesC.
Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phaseD. Voltage and
current are in phase
A5H Reactive power; power factor
A5H01 (A) What is reactive power?A. Wattless, nonproductive
powerB. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductorC. Power
lost because of capacitor leakageD. Power consumed in circuit Q
A5H02 (D) What is the term for an out-of-phase, nonproductive
power associatedwith inductors and capacitors?A. Effective powerB.
True powerC. Peak envelope powerD. Reactive power
A5H03 (B) In a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors,
what happens toreactive power?A. It is dissipated as heat in the
circuitB. It goes back and forth between magnetic and electric
fields, but isnot dissipatedC. It is dissipated as kinetic energy
in the circuitD. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and
capacitivefields
A5H04 (A) In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out
of phase, how
-
can the true power be determined?A. By multiplying the apparent
power times the power factorB. By subtracting the apparent power
from the power factorC. By dividing the apparent power by the power
factorD. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current
A5H05 (C) What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60
degree phaseangle between the voltage and the current?A. 1.414B.
0.866C. 0.5D. 1.73
A5H06 (D) What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 45
degree phaseangle between the voltage and the current?A. 0.866B.
1.0C. 0.5D. 0.707
A5H07 (C) What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30
degree phaseangle between the voltage and the current?A. 1.73B.
0.5C. 0.866D. 0.577
A5H08 (B) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a
power factor of 0.2if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?A. 400
wattsB. 80 wattsC. 2000 wattsD. 50 watts
A5H09 (D) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a
power factor of 0.6if the input is 200-V AC at 5 amperes?A. 200
wattsB. 1000 wattsC. 1600 wattsD. 600 watts
A5H10 (B) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a
power factor of 0.71if the apparent power is 500 watts?A. 704 WB.
355 WC. 252 WD. 1.42 mW
A5H11 (A) Why would the power used in a circuit be less than the
product of themagnitudes of the AC voltage and current?A. Because
there is a phase angle greater than zero between thecurrent and
voltageB. Because there are only resistances in the circuitC.
Because there are no reactances in the circuit
-
D. Because there is a phase angle equal to zero between the
currentand voltage
A5I Effective radiated power, system gains and losses
A5I01 (B) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater
station with 50watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss,
2-dB duplexerloss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?A.
199 wattsB. 39.7 wattsC. 45 wattsD. 62.9 watts A5I02 (C) What is
the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50watts
transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexerloss,
1-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?A. 79.2 wattsB. 315
wattsC. 31.5 wattsD. 40.5 watts A5I03 (D) What is the effective
radiated power of a station with 75 wattstransmitter power output,
4-dB feed line loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?A. 600 wattsB. 75
wattsC. 150 wattsD. 299 watts A5I04 (A) What is the effective
radiated power of a repeater station with 75watts transmitter power
output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexerloss, 1-dB circulator
loss and 6-dBd antenna gain? A. 37.6 wattsB. 237 wattsC. 150
wattsD. 23.7 watts A5I05 (D) What is the effective radiated power
of a station with 100 wattstransmitter power output, 1-dB feed line
loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?A. 350 wattsB. 500 wattsC. 20 wattsD.
316 watts A5I06 (B) What is the effective radiated power of a
repeater station with 100watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed
line loss, 3-dB duplexerloss, 1-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd
antenna gain?A. 794 wattsB. 126 wattsC. 79.4 wattsD. 1260 watts
A5I07 (C) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater
station with 120watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line
loss, 3-dB duplexerloss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna
gain?
-
A. 601 wattsB. 240 wattsC. 60 wattsD. 79 watts A5I08 (D) What is
the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 150watts
transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexerloss
and 7-dBd antenna gain?A. 1977 wattsB. 78.7 wattsC. 420 wattsD. 286
watts A5I09 (A) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater
station with 200watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line
loss, 3.2-dB duplexerloss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd
antenna gain?A. 317 wattsB. 2000 wattsC. 126 wattsD. 300 watts
A5I10 (B) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater
station with 200watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line
loss, 2.8-dB duplexerloss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna
gain? A. 159 wattsB. 252 wattsC. 632 wattsD. 63.2 watts A5I11 (C)
What term describes station output (including the transmitter,
antennaand everything in between), when considering transmitter
power andsystem gains and losses?A. Power factorB. Half-power
bandwidthC. Effective radiated powerD. Apparent power
A5J Replacement of voltage source and resistive voltage divider
withequivalent voltage source and one resistor (Thevenin's
Theorem)
A5J01 (B) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltageand current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and
R2 is 8kilohms?A. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 voltsB. R3 = 4 kilohms
and V2 = 4 voltsC. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 voltsD. R3 = 16
kilohms and V2 = 4 volts
A5J02 (C) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltageand current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 16 kilohms,
and R2 is 8kilohms?A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 voltsB. R3 =
5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 voltsC. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67
voltsD. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
-
A5J03 (A) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltageand current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and
R2 is 16kilohms?A. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 voltsB. R3 = 8
kilohms and V2 = 4 voltsC. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 voltsD. R3 =
5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts
A5J04 (D) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltageand current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms,
and R2 is 10kilohms?A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 voltsB. R3 = 20
kilohms and V2 = 5 voltsC. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 voltsD. R3 =
5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts
A5J05 (C) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltageand current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms,
and R2 is 10kilohms?A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 voltsB. R3 =
6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 voltsC. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33
voltsD. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts
A5J06 (A) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltageand current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms,
and R2 is 20kilohms?A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 voltsB. R3 =
6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 voltsC. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67
voltsD. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts
A5J07 (B) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltageand current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms,
and R2 is 10kilohms?A. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 voltsB. R3 = 5
kilohms and V2 = 6 voltsC. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 voltsD. R3 =
30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts
A5J08 (B) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltageand current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms,
and R2 is 10kilohms?A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 voltsB. R3 = 6.67
kilohms and V2 = 4 voltsC. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 voltsD. R3 =
6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
A5J09 (C) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltageand current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms,
and R2 is 20kilohms?A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 voltsB. R3 =
30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
-
C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 voltsD. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 =
8 volts
A5J10 (A) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the
same voltageand current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms,
and R2 is 20kilohms?A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 voltsB. R3 = 40
kilohms and V2 = 6 voltsC. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 voltsD. R3 =
10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts
A5J11 (D) What circuit principle describes the replacement of
any complex two-terminal network of voltage sources and resistances
with a singlevoltage source and a single resistor?A. Ohm's LawB.
Kirchhoff's LawC. Laplace's TheoremD. Thevenin's Theorem
A6 - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [6 questions - 6 groups]
A6A Semiconductor material: Germanium, Silicon, P-type,
N-type
A6A01 (B) What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices
exhibit bothmetallic and nonmetallic characteristics?A. Silicon and
goldB. Silicon and germaniumC. Galena and germaniumD. Galena and
bismuth
A6A02 (C) In what application is gallium arsenide used as a
semiconductormaterial in preference to germanium or silicon?A. In
bipolar transistorsB. In high-power circuitsC. At microwave
frequenciesD. At very low frequencies
A6A03 (C) What type of semiconductor material might be produced
by adding someantimony atoms to germanium crystals?A. J-typeB.
MOS-typeC. N-typeD. P-type
A6A04 (B) What type of semiconductor material might be produced
by adding somegallium atoms to silicon crystals?A. N-typeB.
P-typeC. MOS-typeD. J-type
A6A05 (A) What type of semiconductor material contains more free
electrons thanpure germanium or silicon crystals?A. N-type
-
B. P-typeC. BipolarD. Insulated gate
A6A06 (A) What type of semiconductor material might be produced
by adding somearsenic atoms to silicon crystals?A. N-typeB.
P-typeC. MOS-typeD. J-type
A6A07 (D) What type of semiconductor material might be produced
by adding someindium atoms to germanium crystals?A. J-typeB.
MOS-typeC. N-typeD. P-type
A6A08 (B) What type of semiconductor material contains fewer
free electrons thanpure germanium or silicon crystals?A. N-typeB.
P-typeC. Superconductor-typeD. Bipolar-type
A6A09 (C) What are the majority charge carriers in P-type
semiconductormaterial?A. Free neutronsB. Free protonsC. HolesD.
Free electrons
A6A10 (B) What are the majority charge carriers in N-type
semiconductormaterial?A. HolesB. Free electronsC. Free protonsD.
Free neutrons
A6A11 (B) What is the name given to an impurity atom that
provides excesselectrons to a semiconductor crystal structure?A.
Acceptor impurityB. Donor impurityC. P-type impurityD. Conductor
impurity
A6A12 (C) What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds
holes to asemiconductor crystal structure?A. Insulator impurityB.
N-type impurityC. Acceptor impurityD. Donor impurity
A6B Diodes: Zener, Tunnel, Varactor, Hot-carrier, Junction,
Point
-
contact, PIN and Light-emitting
A6B01 (B) What is the principal characteristic of a Zener
diode?A. A constant current under conditions of varying voltageB. A
constant voltage under conditions of varying currentC. A negative
resistance regionD. An internal capacitance that varies with the
applied voltage
A6B02 (D) In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a
Zener diode?A. 7B. 6C. 4D. 3
A6B03 (C) What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel
diode?A. A high forward resistanceB. A very high PIVC. A negative
resistance regionD. A high forward current rating
A6B04 (C) What special type of diode is capable of both
amplification andoscillation?A. Point contactB. ZenerC. TunnelD.
Junction
A6B05 (C) In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a
tunnel diode?A. 8B. 6C. 2D. 1
A6B06 (A) What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal
capacitance asthe voltage applied to its terminals varies?A.
VaractorB. TunnelC. Silicon-controlled rectifierD. Zener
A6B07 (D) In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a
varactor diode?A. 8B. 6C. 2D. 1
A6B08 (D) What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?A. As
balanced mixers in FM generationB. As a variable capacitance in an
automatic frequency control circuitC. As a constant voltage
reference in a power supplyD. As VHF and UHF mixers and
detectors
A6B09 (B)
-
What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode?A.
Peak inverse voltageB. Junction temperatureC. Forward voltageD.
Back EMF
A6B10 (D) How are junction diodes rated?A. Maximum forward
current and capacitanceB. Maximum reverse current and PIVC. Maximum
reverse current and capacitanceD. Maximum forward current and
PIV
A6B11 (A) Structurally, what are the two main categories of
semiconductordiodes?A. Junction and point contactB. Electrolytic
and junctionC. Electrolytic and point contactD. Vacuum and point
contact
A6B12 (C) What is a common use for point contact diodes?A. As a
constant current sourceB. As a constant voltage sourceC. As an RF
detectorD. As a high voltage rectifier
A6B13 (D) In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a
semiconductordiode/rectifier?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4
A6B14 (C) What is one common use for PIN diodes?A. As a constant
current sourceB. As a constant voltage sourceC. As an RF switchD.
As a high voltage rectifier
A6B15 (B) In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a
light-emittingdiode?A. 1B. 5C. 6D. 7
A6B16 (B) What type of bias is required for an LED to produce
luminescence?A. Reverse biasB. Forward biasC. Zero biasD. Inductive
bias
A6C Toroids: Permeability, core material, selecting, winding
A6C01 (D)
-
What material property determines the inductance of a
toroidalinductor with a 10-turn winding?A. Core load currentB. Core
resistanceC. Core reactivityD. Core permeability
A6C02 (B) By careful selection of core material, over what
frequency range cantoroidal cores produce useful inductors?A. From
a few kHz to no more than several MHzB. From DC to at least 1000
MHzC. From DC to no more than 3000 kHzD. From a few hundred MHz to
at least 1000 GHz
A6C03 (A) What materials are used to make ferromagnetic
inductors andtransformers?A. Ferrite and powdered-iron toroidsB.
Silicon-ferrite toroids and shellacC. Powdered-ferrite and silicon
toroidsD. Ferrite and silicon-epoxy toroids
A6C04 (B) What is one important reason for using powdered-iron
toroids ratherthan ferrite toroids in an inductor?A. Powdered-iron
toroids generally have greater initial permeabilitiesB.
Powdered-iron toroids generally have better temperature stabilityC.
Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce
agiven inductance valueD. Powdered-iron toroids are easier to use
with surface-mounttechnology
A6C05 (C) What is one important reason for using ferrite toroids
rather thanpowdered-iron toroids in an inductor?A. Ferrite toroids
generally have lower initial permeabilitiesB. Ferrite toroids
generally have better temperature stabilityC. Ferrite toroids
generally require fewer turns to produce a giveninductance valueD.
Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface-mount technology
A6C06 (B) What would be a good choice of toroid core material to
make acommon-mode choke (such as winding telephone wires or stereo
speakerleads on a core) to cure an HF RFI problem?A. Type 61 mix
ferrite (initial permeability of 125)B. Type 43 mix ferrite
(initial permeability of 850)C. Type 6 mix powdered iron (initial
permeability of 8)D. Type 12 mix powdered iron (initial
permeability of 3)
A6C07 (C) What devices are commonly used as parasitic
suppressors at the inputand output terminals of VHF and UHF
amplifiers?A. Electrolytic capacitorsB. Butterworth filtersC.
Ferrite beadsD. Steel-core toroids
A6C08 (A) What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core
instead of a
-
linear core in an inductor?A. Toroidal cores contain most of the
magnetic field within the corematerialB. Toroidal cores make it
easier to couple the magnetic energy intoother componentsC.
Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresisD. Toroidal cores have
lower Q characteristics
A6C09 (D) What is a bifilar-wound toroid?A. An inductor that has
two cores taped together to double theinductance valueB. An
inductor wound on a core with two holes (binocular core)C. A
transformer designed to provide a 2-to-1 impedance transformationD.
An inductor that uses a pair of wires to place two windings on
thecore
A6C10 (C) How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH
inductor using aferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index
(A sub L) value of523?A. 2 turnsB. 4 turnsC. 43 turnsD. 229
turns
A6C11 (A) How many turns will be required to produce a
5-microhenry inductorusing a powdered-iron toroidal core that has
an inductance index (Asub L) value of 40?A. 35 turnsB. 13 turnsC.
79 turnsD. 141 turns
A6D Transistor types: NPN, PNP, Junction, Unijunction
A6D01 (B) What are the three terminals of a bipolar
transistor?A. Cathode, plate and gridB. Base, collector and
emitterC. Gate, source and sinkD. Input, output and ground
A6D02 (C) What is the alpha of a bipolar transistor?A. The
change of collector current with respect to base currentB. The
change of base current with respect to collector currentC. The
change of collector current with respect to emitter currentD. The
change of collector current with respect to gate current
A6D03 (A) What is the beta of a bipolar transistor?A. The change
of collector current with respect to base currentB. The change of
base current with respect to emitter currentC. The change of
collector current with respect to emitter currentD. The change of
base current with respect to gate current
A6D04 (D) What is the alpha cutoff frequency of a bipolar
transistor?A. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor
in common
-
emitter configurationB. The practical upper frequency limit of a
transistor in commonemitter configurationC. The practical lower
frequency limit of a transistor in common baseconfigurationD. The
practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common
baseconfiguration
A6D05 (B) In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an
NPN transistor?A. 1B. 2C. 4D. 5
A6D06 (A) In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP
transistor?A. 1B. 2C. 4D. 5
A6D07 (D) What term indicates the frequency at which a
transistor grounded basecurrent gain has decreased to 0.7 of the
gain obtainable at 1 kHz?A. Corner frequencyB. Alpha rejection
frequencyC. Beta cutoff frequencyD. Alpha cutoff frequency
A6D08 (B) What does the beta cutoff of a bipolar transistor
indicate?A. The frequency at which the grounded base current gain
has decreasedto 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHzB. The frequency at
which the grounded emitter current gain hasdecreased to 0.7 of that
obtainable at 1 kHzC. The frequency at which the grounded collector
current gain hasdecreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHzD. The
frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has decreasedto
0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz
A6D09 (A) What is the transition region of a transistor?A. An
area of low charge density around the P-N junctionB. The area of
maximum P-type chargeC. The area of maximum N-type chargeD. The
point where wire leads are connected to the P- or
N-typematerial
A6D10 (A) What does it mean for a transistor to be fully
saturated?A. The collector current is at its maximum valueB. The
collector current is at its minimum valueC. The transistor alpha is
at its maximum valueD. The transistor beta is at its maximum
value
A6D11 (C) What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off?A.
There is no base currentB. The transistor is at its operating
pointC. No current flows from emitter to collector
-
D. Maximum current flows from emitter to collector
A6D12 (D) In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a
unijunctiontransistor?A. 3B. 4C. 5D. 6
A6D13 (C) What are the elements of a unijunction transistor?A.
Gate, base 1 and base 2B. Gate, cathode and anodeC. Base 1, base 2
and emitterD. Gate, source and sink
A6E Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR); Triac; neon lamp
A6E01 (B) What are the three terminals of a silicon controlled
rectifier (SCR)?A. Gate, source and sinkB. Anode, cathode and
gateC. Base, collector and emitterD. Gate, base 1 and base 2
A6E02 (A) What are the two stable operating conditions of a
silicon controlledrectifier (SCR)?A. Conducting and nonconductingB.
Oscillating and quiescentC. Forward conducting and reverse
conductingD. NPN conduction and PNP conduction
A6E03 (A) When a silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is
triggered, to what othersolid-state device are its electrical
characteristics similar (asmeasured between its cathode and
anode)?A. The junction diodeB. The tunnel diodeC. The hot-carrier
diodeD. The varactor diode
A6E04 (D) Under what operating conditions does a silicon
controlled rectifier(SCR) exhibit electrical characteristics
similar to a forward-biasedsilicon rectifier?A. During a switching
transitionB. When it is used as a detectorC. When it is gated
"off"D. When it is gated "on"
A6E05 (C) In Figure A6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a
silicon controlledrectifier (SCR)?A. 1B. 2C. 5D. 6
A6E06 (B)
-
What is the name of the device that is fabricated as two
complementarysilicon controlled rectifiers (SCRs) in parallel with
a common gateterminal?A. Bilateral SCRB. TRIACC. Unijunction
transistorD. Field-effect transistor
A6E07 (B) What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?A. Emitter,
base 1 and base 2B. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2C. Base, emitter and
collectorD. Gate, source and sink
A6E08 (A) In Figure A6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a
TRIAC?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 5
A6E09 (D) What will happen to a neon lamp in the presence of
RF?A. It will glow only in the presence of very high frequency
radioenergyB. It will change colorC. It will glow only in the
presence of very low frequency radioenergyD. It will glow
A6E10 (C) If an NE-2 neon bulb is to be used as a dial lamp with
a 120 V ACline, what additional component must be connected to
it?A. A 150-pF capacitor in parallel with the bulbB. A 10-mH
inductor in series with the bulbC. A 150-kilohm resistor in series
with the bulbD. A 10-kilohm resistor in parallel with the bulb
A6E11 (C) In Figure A6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a
neon lamp?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4
A6F Quartz crystal (frequency determining properties as used
inoscillators and filters); monolithic amplifiers (MMICs)
A6F01 (B) For single-sideband phone emissions, what would be the
bandwidth of agood crystal lattice band-pass filter?A. 6 kHz at -6
dBB. 2.1 kHz at -6 dBC. 500 Hz at -6 dBD. 15 kHz at -6 dB
A6F02 (C) For double-sideband phone emissions, what would be the
bandwidth of agood crystal lattice band-pass filter?A. 1 kHz at -6
dB
-
B. 500 Hz at -6 dBC. 6 kHz at -6 dBD. 15 kHz at -6 dB
A6F03 (D) What is a crystal lattice filter?A. A power supply
filter made with interlaced quartz crystalsB. An audio filter made
with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervalsC. A
filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using
quartzcrystalsD. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts
made using quartzcrystals
A6F04 (D) What technique is used to construct low-cost,
high-performance crystalfilters?A. Choose a center frequency that
matches the available crystalsB. Choose a crystal with the desired
bandwidth and operating frequencyto match a desired center
frequencyC. Measure crystal bandwidth to ensure at least 20%
couplingD. Measure crystal frequencies and carefully select units
with lessthan 10% frequency difference
A6F05 (A) Which factor helps determine the bandwidth and
response shape of acrystal filter?A. The relative frequencies of
the individual crystalsB. The center frequency chosen for the
filterC. The gain of the RF stage preceding the filterD. The
amplitude of the signals passing through the filter
A6F06 (A) What is the piezoelectric effect?A. Physical
deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltageB.
Mechanical deforma