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Element 4A (Advanced) Question Pool Last updated 10:37 AM EDT on 04/19/96 You can email this page's administrator at [email protected] . QUESTION POOL ELEMENT 4A - ADVANCED CLASS as released by Question Pool Committee National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators December 1, 1994 For use in examinations beginning July 1, 1995. To obtain the necessary graphics sheet, send an SASE to ARRL/VEC (New Advanced Pool Graphics Sheet Request) 225 Main Street, Newington CT 06111. The answer to each question can be found in paranthesis following the question number. The Part 97 reference found within brakets in questions A1A01-A1F14 are the relavent FCC Rule citations. A1 - COMMISSION'S RULES [6 exam questions - 6 groups] A1A Advanced control operator frequency privileges; station identification; emissions standards A1A01 (A) [97.301c] What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 75/80-meter band (ITU Region 2)? A. 3525 - 3750 kHz and 3775 - 4000 kHz B. 3500 - 3525 kHz and 3800 - 4000 kHz C. 3500 - 3525 kHz and 3800 - 3890 kHz D. 3525 - 3775 kHz and 3800 - 4000 kHz A1A02 (B) [97.301c] What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 40- meter band (ITU Region 2)? A. 7000 - 7300 kHz B. 7025 - 7300 kHz C. 7025 - 7350 kHz D. 7000 - 7025 kHz A1A03 (D) [97.301c] What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 20- meter band? A. 14000 - 14150 kHz and 14175 - 14350 kHz B. 14025 - 14175 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHz C. 14000 - 14025 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHz D. 14025 - 14150 kHz and 14175 - 14350 kHz A1A04 (C) [97.301c] What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 15- meter band? A. 21000 - 21200 kHz and 21250 - 21450 kHz
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  • Element 4A (Advanced) Question PoolLast updated 10:37 AM EDT on 04/19/96You can email this page's administrator at [email protected].

    QUESTION POOL ELEMENT 4A - ADVANCED CLASS as released by Question Pool Committee National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators December 1, 1994

    For use in examinations beginning July 1, 1995. To obtain the necessary graphics sheet, send an SASE to ARRL/VEC (New Advanced Pool Graphics Sheet Request) 225 Main Street, Newington CT 06111. The answer to each question can be found in paranthesis following the question number. The Part 97 reference found within brakets in questions A1A01-A1F14 are the relavent FCC Rule citations.

    A1 - COMMISSION'S RULES [6 exam questions - 6 groups]

    A1A Advanced control operator frequency privileges; stationidentification; emissions standards

    A1A01 (A) [97.301c] What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the75/80-meter band (ITU Region 2)?A. 3525 - 3750 kHz and 3775 - 4000 kHzB. 3500 - 3525 kHz and 3800 - 4000 kHzC. 3500 - 3525 kHz and 3800 - 3890 kHzD. 3525 - 3775 kHz and 3800 - 4000 kHz

    A1A02 (B) [97.301c] What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 40-meter band (ITU Region 2)?A. 7000 - 7300 kHzB. 7025 - 7300 kHzC. 7025 - 7350 kHzD. 7000 - 7025 kHz

    A1A03 (D) [97.301c] What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 20-meter band?A. 14000 - 14150 kHz and 14175 - 14350 kHzB. 14025 - 14175 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHzC. 14000 - 14025 kHz and 14200 - 14350 kHzD. 14025 - 14150 kHz and 14175 - 14350 kHz

    A1A04 (C) [97.301c] What are the frequency limits for Advanced class operators in the 15-meter band?A. 21000 - 21200 kHz and 21250 - 21450 kHz

  • B. 21000 - 21200 kHz and 21300 - 21450 kHzC. 21025 - 21200 kHz and 21225 - 21450 kHzD. 21025 - 21250 kHz and 21270 - 21450 kHz

    A1A05 (B) [97.119e3] If you are a Technician Plus licensee with a Certificate of SuccessfulCompletion of Examination (CSCE) for Advanced privileges, how do youidentify your station when transmitting on 14.185 MHz?A. Give your call sign followed by the name of the VEC who coordinatedthe exam session where you obtained the CSCEB. Give your call sign followed by the slant mark "/" followed by theidentifier "AA"C. You may not use your new frequency privileges until your licensearrives from the FCCD. Give your call sign followed by the word "Advanced"

    A1A06 (B) [97.119a] How must an Advanced class operator using Amateur Extra frequenciesidentify during a contest, assuming the contest control operator holdsan Amateur Extra class license?A. With his or her own call signB. With the control operator's call signC. With his or her own call sign followed by the identifier "AE"D. With the control operator's call sign followed by his or her owncall sign

    A1A07 (D) [97.119d] How must an Advanced class operator using Advanced frequenciesidentify from a Technician Plus class operator's station?A. With either his or her own call sign followed by the identifier"KT", or the Technician Plus call sign followed by the identifier "AA"B. With the Technician Plus call signC. The Advanced class operator cannot use Advanced frequencies whileoperating the Technician Plus stationD. With either his or her own call sign only, or the Technician Pluscall sign followed by his or her own call sign

    A1A08 (A) [97.307d] What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emissionfrom a transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting on afrequency below 30 MHz?A. 50 mWB. 100 mWC. 10 mWD. 10 W

    A1A09 (B) [97.307d] How much below the mean power of the fundamental emission must anyspurious emissions from a station transmitter or external RF poweramplifier transmitting on a frequency below 30 MHz be attenuated?A. At least 10 dBB. At least 40 dBC. At least 50 dBD. At least 100 dB

    A1A10 (C) [97.307e] How much below the mean power of the fundamental emission must anyspurious emissions from a transmitter or external RF power amplifiertransmitting on a frequency between 30 and 225 MHz be attenuated?A. At least 10 dBB. At least 40 dB

  • C. At least 60 dBD. At least 100 dB

    A1A11 (D) [97.307e] What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emissionfrom a transmitter having a mean power of 25 W or less on frequenciesbetween 30 and 225 MHz?A. 5 microwattsB. 10 microwattsC. 20 microwattsD. 25 microwatts

    A1B Definition and operation of remote control and automatic control;control link

    A1B01 (D) [97.3a35] What is meant by a remotely controlled station?A. A station operated away from its regular home locationB. Control of a station from a point located other than at the stationtransmitterC. A station operating under automatic controlD. A station controlled indirectly through a control link

    A1B02 (D) [97.3a6] What is the term for the control of a station that is transmittingwithout the control operator being present at the control point?A. Simplex controlB. Manual controlC. Linear controlD. Automatic control

    A1B03 (A) [97.201d,97.203d,97.205d]Which kind of station operation may not be automatically controlled?A. Control of a model craftB. Beacon operationC. Auxiliary operationD. Repeater operation

    A1B04 (B) [97.205d] Which kind of station operation may be automatically controlled?A. Stations without a control operatorB. Stations in repeater operationC. Stations under remote controlD. Stations controlling model craft

    A1B05 (A) [97.3a6] What is meant by automatic control of a station?A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that a controloperator does not have to be present at a control pointB. A station operating with its output power controlled automaticallyC. Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator doesnot have to be present at the control point at all timesD. The use of a control link between a control point and a locallycontrolled station

    A1B06 (B) [97.3a6] How do the control operator responsibilities of a station underautomatic control differ from one under local control?A. Under local control there is no control operatorB. Under automatic control a control operator is not required to bepresent at a control point

  • C. Under automatic control there is no control operatorD. Under local control a control operator is not required to bepresent at a control point

    A1B07 (C) [97.205b, 97.301b,c,d] What frequencies in the 10-meter band are available for repeateroperation?A. 28.0 - 28.7 MHzB. 29.0 - 29.7 MHzC. 29.5 - 29.7 MHzD. 28.5 - 29.7 MHz

    A1B08 (D) [97.205b, 97.301a]What frequencies in the 6-meter band are available for repeateroperation (ITU Region 2)?A. 51.00 - 52.00 MHzB. 50.25 - 52.00 MHzC. 52.00 - 53.00 MHzD. 51.00 - 54.00 MHz

    A1B09 (A) [97.205b, 97.301a] What frequencies in the 2-meter band are available for repeateroperation (ITU Region 2)?A. 144.5 - 145.5 and 146 - 148 MHzB. 144.5 - 148 MHzC. 144 - 145.5 and 146 - 148 MHzD. 144 - 148 MHz

    A1B10 (B) [97.205b, 97.301a] What frequencies in the 1.25-meter band are available for repeateroperation (ITU Region 2)?A. 220.25 - 225.00 MHzB. 222.15 - 225.00 MHzC. 221.00 - 225.00 MHzD. 223.00 - 225.00 MHz

    A1B11 (A) [97.205b, 97.301a] What frequencies in the 70-cm band are available for repeateroperation (ITU Region 2)?A. 420 - 431, 433 - 435 and 438 - 450 MHzB. 420 - 440 and 445 - 450 MHzC. 420 - 435 and 438 - 450 MHzD. 420 - 431, 435 - 438 and 439 - 450 MHz

    A1B12 (C) [97.301a] What frequencies in the 23-cm band are available for repeateroperation?A. 1270 - 1300 MHzB. 1270 - 1295 MHzC. 1240 - 1300 MHzD. Repeater operation is not permitted in the band

    A1B13 (C) [97.213b] If the control link of a station under remote control malfunctions,how long may the station continue to transmit?A. 5 secondsB. 10 minutesC. 3 minutesD. 5 minutes

    A1B14 (C) [97.3a35, 97.3a36, 97.213a]

  • What is a control link?A. A device that automatically controls an unattended stationB. An automatically operated link between two stationsC. The means of control between a control point and a remotelycontrolled stationD. A device that limits the time of a station's transmission

    A1B15 (D) [97.3a35, 97.3a36, 97.213a] What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between acontrol point and a remotely controlled station?A. A tone linkB. A wire controlC. A remote controlD. A control link

    A1C Type acceptance of external RF power amplifiers and external RFpower amplifier kits

    A1C01 (D) [97.315a] How many external RF amplifiers of a particular design capable ofoperation below 144 MHz may an unlicensed, non-amateur build or modifyin one calendar year without obtaining a grant of FCC type acceptance?A. 1B. 5C. 10D. None

    A1C02 (B) [97.315c] If an RF amplifier manufacturer was granted FCC type acceptance forone of its amplifier models for amateur use, what would this allow themanufacturer to market?A. All current models of their equipmentB. Only that particular amplifier modelC. Any future amplifier modelsD. Both the current and any future amplifier models

    A1C03 (A) [97.315b5] Under what condition may an equipment dealer sell an external RF poweramplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been FCCtype accepted?A. If it was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator andis sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's stationB. If it was assembled from a kit by the equipment dealerC. If it was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does notrequire type acceptance of RF power amplifiersD. If it was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and itwas type accepted by that country's government

    A1C04 (D) [97.317a1] Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by anexternal RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCCtype acceptance?A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5watts of mean RF input powerB. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input andoutput networksC. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output rangeD. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when operated atits full output power

    A1C05 (D) [97.317a2]

  • Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by anexternal RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCCtype acceptance?A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5watts of mean RF input powerB. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input andoutput networksC. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output rangeD. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when placed in the"standby" or "off" position, but is still connected to the transmitter

    A1C06 (C) [97.317b] Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by anexternal RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCCtype acceptance?A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5watts of mean RF input powerB. It must exhibit a gain of at least 20 dB for any input signalC. It must not be capable of operation on any frequency between 24 MHzand 35 MHzD. Any spurious emissions from the amplifier must be no more than 40dB stronger than the desired output signal

    A1C07 (B) [97.317a3] Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by anexternal RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCCtype acceptance?A. It must have a time-delay circuit to prevent it from operatingcontinuously for more than ten minutesB. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when driven with atleast 50 W mean RF power (unless a higher drive level is specified)C. It must not be capable of modification by an amateur operatorwithout voiding the warrantyD. It must exhibit no more than 6 dB of gain over its entire operatingrange

    A1C08 (A) [97.317c1] Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifierfrom being granted FCC type acceptance?A. Any accessible wiring which, when altered, would permit operationof the amplifier in a manner contrary to FCC RulesB. Failure to include a schematic diagram and theory of operationmanual that would permit an amateur to modify the amplifierC. The capability of being switched by the operator to any amateurfrequency below 24 MHzD. Failure to produce 1500 watts of output power when driven by atleast 50 watts of mean input power

    A1C09 (C) [97.317c8] Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifierfrom being granted FCC type acceptance?A. Failure to include controls or adjustments that would permit theamplifier to operate on any frequency below 24 MHzB. Failure to produce 1500 watts of output power when driven by atleast 50 watts of mean input powerC. Any features designed to facilitate operation in atelecommunication service other than the Amateur ServiceD. The omission of a schematic diagram and theory of operation manualthat would permit an amateur to modify the amplifier

    A1C10 (D) [97.317c3]

  • Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifierfrom being granted FCC type acceptance?A. The omission of a safety switch in the high-voltage power supply toturn off the power if the cabinet is openedB. Failure of the amplifier to exhibit more than 15 dB of gain overits entire operating rangeC. The omission of a time-delay circuit to prevent the amplifier fromoperating continuously for more than ten minutesD. The inclusion of instructions for operation or modification of theamplifier in a manner contrary to the FCC Rules

    A1C11 (B) [97.317b2] Which of the following would disqualify an external RF power amplifierfrom being granted FCC type acceptance?A. Failure to include a safety switch in the high-voltage power supplyto turn off the power if the cabinet is openedB. The amplifier produces 3 dB of gain for input signals between 26MHz and 28 MHzC. The inclusion of a schematic diagram and theory of operation manualthat would permit an amateur to modify the amplifierD. The amplifier produces 1500 watts of output power when driven by atleast 50 watts of mean input power

    A1D Definition and operation of spread spectrum; auxiliary stationoperation

    A1D01 (C) [97.3c8] What is the name for emissions using bandwidth-expansion modulation?A. RTTYB. ImageC. Spread spectrumD. Pulse

    A1D02 (C) [97.311c] What two spread spectrum techniques are permitted on the amateurbands?A. Hybrid switching and direct frequencyB. Frequency switching and linear frequencyC. Frequency hopping and direct sequenceD. Logarithmic feedback and binary sequence

    A1D03 (C) [97.311g] What is the maximum transmitter power allowed for spread spectrumtransmissions?A. 5 wattsB. 10 wattsC. 100 wattsD. 1500 watts

    A1D04 (D) [97.3a7] What is meant by auxiliary station operation?A. A station operated away from its home locationB. Remote control of model craftC. A station controlled from a point located other than at the stationtransmitterD. Communications sent point-to-point within a system of cooperatingamateur stations

    A1D05 (A) [97.3a6, 97.3a7, 97.3a35, 97.201, 97.205, 97.213a] What is one use for a station in auxiliary operation?A. Remote control of a station in repeater operation

  • B. Remote control of model craftC. Passing of international third-party communicationsD. The retransmission of NOAA weather broadcasts

    A1D06 (B) [97.3a7] Auxiliary stations communicate with which other kind of amateurstations?A. Those registered with a civil defense organizationB. Those within a system of cooperating amateur stationsC. Those in space station operationD. Any kind not under manual control

    A1D07 (C) [97.201b] On what amateur frequencies above 222.0 MHz (the 1.25-meter band) areauxiliary stations NOT allowed to operate?A. 222.00 - 223.00 MHz, 432 - 433 MHz and 436 - 438 MHzB. 222.10 - 223.91 MHz, 431 - 432 MHz and 435 - 437 MHzC. 222.00 - 222.15 MHz, 431 - 433 MHz and 435 - 438 MHzD. 222.00 - 222.10 MHz, 430 - 432 MHz and 434 - 437 MHz

    A1D08 (B) [97.201a] What class of amateur license must one hold to be the control operatorof an auxiliary station?A. Any classB. Technician, Technician Plus, General, Advanced or Amateur ExtraC. General, Advanced or Amateur ExtraD. Advanced or Amateur Extra

    A1D09 (C) [97.119b1] When an auxiliary station is identified in Morse code using anautomatic keying device used only for identification, what is themaximum code speed permitted?A. 13 words per minuteB. 30 words per minuteC. 20 words per minuteD. There is no limitation

    A1D10 (D) [97.119a]How often must an auxiliary station be identified?A. At least once during each transmissionB. Only at the end of a series of transmissionsC. At the beginning of a series of transmissionsD. At least once every ten minutes during and at the end of activity

    A1D11 (A) [97.119b3] When may an auxiliary station be identified using a digital code?A. Any time the digital code is used for at least part of thecommunicationB. Any timeC. Identification by digital code is not allowedD. No identification is needed for digital transmissions

    A1E "Line A"; National Radio Quiet Zone; business communications;restricted operation; antenna structure limitations

    A1E01 (A) [97.3a26] Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes"Line A"?A. A line roughly parallel to, and south of, the US-Canadian borderB. A line roughly parallel to, and west of, the US Atlantic coastlineC. A line roughly parallel to, and north of, the US-Mexican border and

  • Gulf coastlineD. A line roughly parallel to, and east of, the US Pacific coastline

    A1E02 (D) [97.303f1] Amateur stations may not transmit in which frequency segment if theyare located north of "Line A"?A. 21.225-21.300 MHzB. 53-54 MHzC. 222-223 MHzD. 420-430 MHz

    A1E03 (C) [97.3a29] What is the National Radio Quiet Zone?A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio TelescopeB. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test AreaC. An Area in Maryland, West Virginia and Virginia surrounding theNational Radio Astronomy ObservatoryD. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral

    A1E04 (A) [97.203e,97.205f]Which of the following agencies is protected from interference to itsoperations by the National Radio Quiet Zone?A. The National Radio Astronomy Observatory at Green Bank, WVB. NASA's Mission Control Center in Houston, TXC. The White Sands Test Area in White Sands, NMD. The space shuttle launch facilities in Cape Canaveral, FL

    A1E05 (B) [97.113] Which communication is NOT a prohibited transmission in the AmateurService?A. Sending messages for hire or material compensationB. Calling a commercial tow truck service for a breakdown on thehighwayC. Calling your employer to see if you have any customers to contactD. Sending a false distress call as a "joke"

    A1E06 (C) [97.113a3] Under what conditions may you notify other amateurs of theavailability of amateur station equipment for sale or trade over theairwaves?A. You are never allowed to sell or trade equipment on the airB. Only if this activity does not result in a profit for youC. Only if this activity is not conducted on a regular basisD. Only if the equipment is FCC type accepted and has a serial number

    A1E07 (C) [97.113a2]When may amateurs accept payment for using their own stations (otherthan a club station) to send messages?A. When employed by the FCCB. When passing emergency trafficC. Under no circumstancesD. When passing international third-party communications

    A1E08 (D) [97.113a2] When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment forproviding communication services to another party?A. When the repeater is operating under portable powerB. When the repeater is operating under local controlC. During Red Cross or other emergency service drillsD. Under no circumstances

  • A1E09 (D) [97.113a3] When may an amateur station send a message to a business?A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or anothergovernment agencyC. When transmitting international third-party communicationsD. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniaryinterest in the communications

    A1E10 (C) [97.15a] What must an amateur obtain before installing an antenna structuremore than 200 feet high?A. An environmental assessmentB. A Special Temporary AuthorizationC. Prior FCC approvalD. An effective radiated power statement

    A1E11 (A) [97.15d] From what government agencies must you obtain permission if you wishto install an antenna structure that exceeds 200 feet above groundlevel?A. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the FederalCommunications Commission (FCC)B. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the FederalCommunications Commission (FCC)C. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and the EnvironmentalProtection Agency (EPA)D. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and National Aeronauticsand Space Administration (NASA)

    A1F Volunteer examinations: when examination is required; examcredit; examination grading; Volunteer Examiner requirements;Volunteer Examiner conduct

    A1F01 (B) [97.505a] What examination credit must be given to an applicant who holds anunexpired (or expired within the grace period) FCC-issued amateuroperator license?A. No creditB. Credit for the least elements required for the licenseC. Credit for only the telegraphy requirements of the licenseD. Credit for only the written element requirements of the license

    A1F02 (B) [97.503a1] What ability with international Morse code must an applicantdemonstrate when taking an Element 1(A) telegraphy examination?A. To send and receive text at not less than 13 WPMB. To send and receive text at not less than 5 WPMC. To send and receive text at not less than 20 WPMD. To send text at not less than 13 WPM

    A1F03 (A) [97.503a] Besides all the letters of the alphabet, numerals 0-9 and the period,comma and question mark, what additional characters are used intelegraphy examinations?A. The slant mark and prosigns AR, BT and SKB. The slant mark, open and closed parenthesis and prosigns AR, BT andSKC. The slant mark, dollar sign and prosigns AR, BT and SKD. No other characters

  • A1F04 (B) [97.507d] In a telegraphy examination, how many letters of the alphabet arecounted as one word?A. 2B. 5C. 8D. 10

    A1F05 (C) [97.509b2] What is the minimum age to be a Volunteer Examiner?A. 16B. 21C. 18D. 13

    A1F06 (A) [97.509b4] When may a person whose amateur operator or station license has everbeen revoked or suspended be a Volunteer Examiner?A. Under no circumstancesB. After 5 years have elapsed since the revocation or suspensionC. After 3 years have elapsed since the revocation or suspensionD. After review and subsequent approval by a VEC

    A1F07 (B) [97.509b5] When may an employee of a company engaged in the distribution ofequipment used in connection with amateur station transmissions be aVolunteer Examiner?A. When the employee is employed in the Amateur Radio sales part ofthe companyB. When the employee does not normally communicate with themanufacturing or distribution part of the companyC. When the employee serves as a Volunteer Examiner for his or hercustomersD. When the employee does not normally communicate with the benefitsand policies part of the company

    A1F08 (A) [97.509a, b1, b2, b3i] Who may administer an examination for a Novice license?A. Three accredited Volunteer Examiners at least 18 years old andholding at least a General class licenseB. Three amateur operators at least 18 years old and holding at leasta General class licenseC. Any accredited Volunteer Examiner at least 21 years old and holdingat least a General class licenseD. Two amateur operators at least 21 years old and holding at least aTechnician class license

    A1F09 (A) [97.509e] When may Volunteer Examiners be compensated for their services?A. Under no circumstancesB. When out-of-pocket expenses exceed $25C. When traveling over 25 miles to the test siteD. When there are more than 20 applicants attending an examinationsession

    A1F10 (C) [97.509e] What are the penalties that may result from fraudulently administeringamateur examinations?A. Suspension of amateur station license for a period not to exceed 3monthsB. A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense was

  • committedC. Revocation of amateur station license and suspension of operator'slicenseD. Restriction to administering only Novice class license examinations

    A1F11 (D) [97.509e] What are the penalties that may result from administering examinationsfor money or other considerations?A. Suspension of amateur station license for a period not to exceed 3monthsB. A monetary fine not to exceed $500 for each day the offense wascommittedC. Restriction to administering only Novice class license examinationsD. Revocation of amateur station license and suspension of operator'slicense

    A1F12 (A) [97.509h] How soon must the administering Volunteer Examiners grade anapplicant's completed examination element?A. ImmediatelyB. Within 48 hoursC. Within 10 daysD. Within 24 hours

    A1F13 (B) [97.509m] After the successful administration of an examination, within how manydays must the Volunteer Examiners submit the application to theircoordinating VEC?A. 7B. 10C. 5D. 30

    A1F14 (C) [97.509m] After the successful administration of an examination, where must theVolunteer Examiners submit the application?A. To the nearest FCC Field OfficeB. To the FCC in Washington, DCC. To the coordinating VECD. To the FCC in Gettysburg, PA

    A2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [1 question - 1 group]

    A2A Facsimile communications; slow-scan TV transmissions; spread-spectrum transmissions; HF digital communications (i.e., PacTOR,CLOVER, HF packet); automatic HF Forwarding

    A2A01 (D) What is facsimile?A. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picturewhen printedB. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan televisionC. The transmission of video by amateur televisionD. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper

    A2A02 (A) What is the modern standard scan rate for a facsimile picturetransmitted by an amateur station?A. 240 lines per minuteB. 50 lines per minuteC. 150 lines per second

  • D. 60 lines per second

    A2A03 (B) What is the approximate transmission time per frame for a facsimilepicture transmitted by an amateur station at 240 lpm?A. 6 minutesB. 3.3 minutesC. 6 secondsD. 1/60 second

    A2A04 (B) What is the term for the transmission of printed pictures by radio?A. TelevisionB. FacsimileC. XerographyD. ACSSB

    A2A05 (C) In facsimile, what device converts variations in picture brightnessand darkness into voltage variations?A. An LEDB. A Hall-effect transistorC. A photodetectorD. An optoisolator

    A2A06 (D) What information is sent by slow-scan television transmissions?A. Baudot or ASCII characters that form a picture when printedB. Pictures for permanent display on paperC. Moving picturesD. Still pictures

    A2A07 (C) How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scancolor television picture?A. 30 or 60B. 60 or 100C. 128 or 256D. 180 or 360

    A2A08 (C) What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow-scantelevision picture?A. 2300 HzB. 2000 HzC. 1500 HzD. 120 Hz

    A2A09 (D) What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow-scantelevision picture?A. 120 HzB. 1500 HzC. 2000 HzD. 2300 Hz

    A2A10 (A) Why are received spread-spectrum signals so resistant to interference?A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressedin the receiverB. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its

  • signal from being easily overpoweredC. The receiver is always equipped with a special digital signalprocessor (DSP) interference filterD. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal thetransmitter to change frequencies

    A2A11 (D)How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (FH) work?A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal thetransmitter to change frequenciesB. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal thetransmitter to wait until the frequency is clearC. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of anRF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequenceD. The frequency of an RF carrier is changed very rapidly according toa particular pseudo-random sequence

    A2A12 (C)What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications?A. 48 baudsB. 110 baudsC. 300 baudsD. 1200 bauds

    A3 - RADIO-WAVE PROPAGATION [2 questions - 2 groups]

    A3A Sporadic-E; auroral propagation; ground-wave propagation(distances and coverage, and frequency vs. distance in each of thesetopics)

    A3A01 (C) What is a sporadic-E condition?A. Variations in E-region height caused by sunspot variationsB. A brief decrease in VHF signal levels from meteor trails at E-region heightC. Patches of dense ionization at E-region heightD. Partial tropospheric ducting at E-region height

    A3A02 (D) What is the term for the propagation condition in which scatteredpatches of relatively dense ionization develop seasonally at E-regionheights?A. Auroral propagationB. DuctingC. ScatterD. Sporadic-E

    A3A03 (A) In what region of the world is sporadic-E most prevalent?A. The equatorial regionsB. The arctic regionsC. The northern hemisphereD. The western hemisphere

    A3A04 (B) On which amateur frequency band is the extended-distance propagationeffect of sporadic-E most often observed?A. 2 metersB. 6 metersC. 20 metersD. 160 meters

  • A3A05 (D) What effect does auroral activity have upon radio communications?A. The readability of SSB signals increasesB. FM communications are clearerC. CW signals have a clearer toneD. CW signals have a fluttery tone

    A3A06 (C) What is the cause of auroral activity?A. A high sunspot levelB. A low sunspot levelC. The emission of charged particles from the sunD. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes

    A3A07 (B) In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directionalantenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation?A. SouthB. NorthC. EastD. West

    A3A08 (D) Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur?A. At F-region heightB. In the equatorial bandC. At D-region heightD. At E-region height

    A3A09 (A) Which emission modes are best for auroral propagation?A. CW and SSBB. SSB and FMC. FM and CWD. RTTY and AM

    A3A10 (B) As the frequency of a signal is increased, how does its ground-wavepropagation distance change?A. It increasesB. It decreasesC. It stays the sameD. Radio waves don't propagate along the Earth's surface

    A3A11 (A) What typical polarization does ground-wave propagation have?A. VerticalB. HorizontalC. CircularD. Elliptical

    A3B Selective fading; radio-path horizon; take-off angle over flat orsloping terrain; earth effects on propagation

    A3B01 (B) What causes selective fading?A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving stationB. Phase differences between radio-wave components of the sametransmission, as experienced at the receiving stationC. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving

  • station ordinarily occurring shortly after either sunrise or sunsetD. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations

    A3B02 (C) What is the propagation effect called that causes selective fadingbetween received wave components of the same transmission?A. Faraday rotationB. Diversity receptionC. Phase differencesD. Phase shift

    A3B03 (B) Which emission modes suffer the most from selective fading?A. CW and SSBB. FM and double sideband AMC. SSB and AMTORD. SSTV and CW

    A3B04 (A) How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selectivefading?A. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidthsB. It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidthsC. It is the same for both narrow and wide bandwidthsD. The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect

    A3B05 (D) Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon?A. E-region skipB. D-region skipC. Auroral skipD. Radio waves may be bent

    A3B06 (A) How much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceedthe geometric horizon?A. By approximately 15% of the distanceB. By approximately twice the distanceC. By approximately one-half the distanceD. By approximately four times the distance

    A3B07 (B) For a 3-element Yagi antenna with horizontally mounted elements, howdoes the main lobe takeoff angle vary with height above flat ground?A. It increases with increasing heightB. It decreases with increasing heightC. It does not vary with heightD. It depends on E-region height, not antenna height

    A3B08 (B) For a 3-element Yagi antenna with horizontally mounted elements, howdoes the main lobe takeoff angle vary with a downward slope of theground (moving away from the antenna)?A. It increases as the slope gets steeperB. It decreases as the slope gets steeperC. It does not depend on the ground slopeD. It depends on F-region height, not ground slope

    A3B09 (B) What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travelsfor some distance within the F2 region?

  • A. Oblique-angle rayB. Pedersen rayC. Ordinary rayD. Heaviside ray

    A3B10 (B) Excluding enhanced propagation, what is the approximate range ofnormal VHF propagation?A. 1000 milesB. 500 milesC. 1500 milesD. 2000 miles

    A3B11 (C) What effect is usually responsible for propagating a VHF signal over500 miles?A. D-region absorptionB. Faraday rotationC. Tropospheric ductingD. Moonbounce

    A3B12 (A) What happens to an electromagnetic wave as it encounters air moleculesand other particles?A. The wave loses kinetic energyB. The wave gains kinetic energyC. An aurora is createdD. Nothing happens because the waves have no physical substance

    A4 - AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICE [4 questions - 4 groups]

    A4A Frequency measurement devices (i.e. frequency counter,oscilloscope Lissajous figures, dip meter); component mountingtechniques (i.e. surface, dead bug {raised}, circuit board)

    A4A01 (B) What is a frequency standard?A. A frequency chosen by a net control operator for net operationsB. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequencyC. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 HzD. A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies

    A4A02 (A) What does a frequency counter do?A. It makes frequency measurementsB. It produces a reference frequencyC. It measures FM transmitter deviationD. It generates broad-band white noise

    A4A03 (C) If a 100 Hz signal is fed to the horizontal input of an oscilloscopeand a 150 Hz signal is fed to the vertical input, what type ofLissajous figure should be displayed on the screen?A. A looping pattern with 100 loops horizontally and 150 loopsverticallyB. A rectangular pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm highC. A looping pattern with 3 loops horizontally and 2 loops verticallyD. An oval pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high

    A4A04 (C) What is a dip-meter?

  • A. A field-strength meterB. An SWR meterC. A variable LC oscillator with metered feedback currentD. A marker generator

    A4A05 (D) What does a dip-meter do?A. It accurately indicates signal strengthB. It measures frequency accuratelyC. It measures transmitter output power accuratelyD. It gives an indication of the resonant frequency of a circuit

    A4A06 (B) How does a dip-meter function?A. Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize a detector coilB. Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in meteredcurrentC. Power from a transmitter cancels feedback currentD. Harmonics from an oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuitQ

    A4A07 (D) What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station?A. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measurepercentage of modulationB. To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage ofmodulationC. To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedanceD. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure atuned circuit resonant frequency

    A4A08 (B) What types of coupling occur between a dip-meter and a tuned circuitbeing checked?A. Resistive and inductiveB. Inductive and capacitiveC. Resistive and capacitiveD. Strong field

    A4A09 (A) For best accuracy, how tightly should a dip-meter be coupled with atuned circuit being checked?A. As loosely as possibleB. As tightly as possibleC. First loosely, then tightlyD. With a jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be checked

    A4A10 (B) What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with atuned circuit being checked?A. Harmonics are generatedB. A less accurate reading resultsC. Cross modulation occursD. Intermodulation distortion occurs

    A4A11 (D) What circuit construction technique uses leadless components mountedbetween circuit board pads?A. Raised mountingB. Integrated circuit mountingC. Hybrid device mounting

  • D. Surface mounting

    A4B Meter performance limitations; oscilloscope performancelimitations; frequency counter performance limitations

    A4B01 (B) What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of aD'Arsonval-type meter?A. Calibration, coil impedance and meter sizeB. Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedanceC. Coil impedance, electromagnet voltage and movement massD. Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current

    A4B02 (A) What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability ofan oscilloscope?A. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and the linearity andbandwidth of the deflection amplifiersB. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltageC. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and tube face voltageincrementsD. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequencyincrements

    A4B03 (D) How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved?A. By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the timebaseB. By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing thevertical sweep rateC. By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifierfrequency responseD. By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifierfrequency response

    A4B04 (B) What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of afrequency counter?A. Number of digits in the readout, speed of the logic and time basestabilityB. Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stabilityC. Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and timebase stabilityD. Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference andtemperature coefficient of the logic

    A4B05 (C) How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved?A. By using slower digital logicB. By improving the accuracy of the frequency responseC. By increasing the accuracy of the time baseD. By using faster digital logic

    A4B06 (C) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measuredcould differ from the reading?A. 165.2 HzB. 14.652 kHzC. 146.52 HzD. 1.4652 MHz

  • A4B07 (A) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measuredcould differ from the reading?A. 14.652 HzB. 0.1 MHzC. 1.4652 HzD. 1.4652 kHz

    A4B08 (D) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measuredcould differ from the reading?A. 146.52 HzB. 10 HzC. 146.52 kHzD. 1465.20 Hz

    A4B09 (D) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measuredcould differ from the reading?A. 43.21 MHzB. 10 HzC. 1.0 MHzD. 432.1 Hz

    A4B10 (A) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measuredcould differ from the reading?A. 43.21 HzB. 0.1 MHzC. 432.1 HzD. 0.2 MHz

    A4B11 (C) If a frequency counter with a time base accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measuredcould differ from the reading?A. 10 MHzB. 10 HzC. 4321 HzD. 432.1 Hz

    A4C Receiver performance characteristics (i.e., phase noise,desensitization, capture effect, intercept point, noise floor, dynamicrange {blocking and IMD}, image rejection, MDS, signal-to-noise-ratio)

    A4C01 (D) What is the effect of excessive phase noise in a receiver localoscillator?A. It limits the receiver ability to receive strong signalsB. It reduces the receiver sensitivityC. It decreases the receiver third-order intermodulation distortiondynamic rangeD. It allows strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere withreception of weak signals

  • A4C02 (A) What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by astrong signal near the received frequency?A. DesensitizationB. QuietingC. Cross-modulation interferenceD. Squelch gain rollback

    A4C03 (B) What causes receiver desensitization?A. Audio gain adjusted too lowB. Strong adjacent-channel signalsC. Squelch gain adjusted too highD. Squelch gain adjusted too low

    A4C04 (A) What is one way receiver desensitization can be reduced?A. Shield the receiver from the transmitter causing the problemB. Increase the transmitter audio gainC. Decrease the receiver squelch gainD. Increase the receiver bandwidth

    A4C05 (C) What is the capture effect?A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiverB. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiverC. The strongest signal received is the only demodulated signalD. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal

    A4C06 (C) What is the term for the blocking of one FM-phone signal by anotherstronger FM-phone signal?A. DesensitizationB. Cross-modulation interferenceC. Capture effectD. Frequency discrimination

    A4C07 (A) With which emission type is capture effect most pronounced?A. FMB. SSBC. AMD. CW

    A4C08 (D) What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver?A. The weakest signal that can be detected under noisy atmosphericconditionsB. The amount of phase noise generated by the receiver localoscillatorC. The minimum level of noise that will overload the receiver RFamplifier stageD. The weakest signal that can be detected above the receiver internalnoise

    A4C09 (B) What is the blocking dynamic range of a receiver that has an 8-dBnoise figure and an IF bandwidth of 500 Hz if the blocking level (1-dBcompression point) is -20 dBm?A. -119 dBmB. 119 dB

  • C. 146 dBD. -146 dBm

    A4C10 (B) What part of a superheterodyne receiver determines the image rejectionratio of the receiver?A. Product detectorB. RF amplifierC. AGC loopD. IF filter

    A4C11 (B) If you measured the MDS of a receiver, what would you be measuring?A. The meter display sensitivity (MDS), or the responsiveness of thereceiver S-meter to all signalsB. The minimum discernible signal (MDS), or the weakest signal thatthe receiver can detectC. The minimum distorting signal (MDS), or the strongest signal thereceiver can detect without overloadingD. The maximum detectable spectrum (MDS), or the lowest to highestfrequency range of the receiver

    A4D Intermodulation and cross-modulation interference

    A4D01 (D) If the signals of two transmitters mix together in one or both oftheir final amplifiers and unwanted signals at the sum and differencefrequencies of the original signals are generated, what is thiscalled?A. Amplifier desensitizationB. NeutralizationC. Adjacent channel interferenceD. Intermodulation interference

    A4D02 (B) How does intermodulation interference between two repeatertransmitters usually occur?A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phasefrom airplanes passing overheadB. When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or bothof their final amplifiersC. When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback inone or both of their final amplifiersD. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase fromairplanes passing overhead

    A4D03 (B) How can intermodulation interference between two repeater transmittersin close proximity often be reduced or eliminated?A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving powerB. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in thefeed line to the transmitter and duplexerC. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed lineD. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line

    A4D04 (D) What is cross-modulation interference?A. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation typeB. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preampC. Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signalD. Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the

  • desired signal

    A4D05 (B) What is the term used to refer to the condition where the signals froma very strong station are superimposed on other signals beingreceived?A. Intermodulation distortionB. Cross-modulation interferenceC. Receiver quietingD. Capture effect

    A4D06 (A) How can cross-modulation in a receiver be reduced?A. By installing a filter at the receiverB. By using a better antennaC. By increasing the receiver RF gain while decreasing the AF gainD. By adjusting the passband tuning

    A4D07 (C) What is the result of cross-modulation?A. A decrease in modulation level of transmitted signalsB. Receiver quietingC. The modulation of an unwanted signal is heard on the desired signalD. Inverted sidebands in the final stage of the amplifier

    A4D08 (C) What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit?A. Too little gainB. Lack of neutralizationC. Nonlinear circuits or devicesD. Positive feedback

    A4D09 (A) If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-productsignal whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52 MHz, what arethe two most likely frequencies for the other interfering signal?A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHzB. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHzC. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHzD. 73.35 MHz and 239.40 MHz

    A4D10 (D) If a television receiver suffers from cross modulation when a nearbyamateur transmitter is operating at 14 MHz, which of the followingcures might be effective?A. A low-pass filter attached to the output of the amateur transmitterB. A high-pass filter attached to the output of the amateurtransmitterC. A low-pass filter attached to the input of the television receiverD. A high-pass filter attached to the input of the television receiver

    A4D11 (B) Which of the following is an example of intermodulation distortion?A. Receiver blockingB. Splatter from an SSB transmitterC. Overdeviation of an FM transmitterD. Excessive 2nd-harmonic output from a transmitter

    A5 - ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [10 questions - 10 groups]

    A5A Characteristics of resonant circuits

  • A5A01 (A) What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be largerthan the voltage applied to them?A. ResonanceB. CapacitanceC. ConductanceD. Resistance

    A5A02 (C) What is resonance in an electrical circuit?A. The highest frequency that will pass currentB. The lowest frequency that will pass currentC. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductivereactanceD. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum

    A5A03 (B) What are the conditions for resonance to occur in an electricalcircuit?A. The power factor is at a minimumB. Inductive and capacitive reactances are equalC. The square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductivereactance is equal to the resonant frequencyD. The square root of the product of the capacitive and inductivereactance is equal to the resonant frequency

    A5A04 (D) When the inductive reactance of an electrical circuit equals itscapacitive reactance, what is this condition called?A. Reactive quiescenceB. High QC. Reactive equilibriumD. Resonance

    A5A05 (D) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit atresonance?A. High, as compared to the circuit resistanceB. Approximately equal to capacitive reactanceC. Approximately equal to inductive reactanceD. Approximately equal to circuit resistance

    A5A06 (A) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor,an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance?A. Approximately equal to circuit resistanceB. Approximately equal to inductive reactanceC. Low, as compared to the circuit resistanceD. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance

    A5A07 (B) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series R-L-Ccircuit at resonance?A. It is at a minimumB. It is at a maximumC. It is DCD. It is zero

    A5A08 (B) What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components

  • of a parallel L-C circuit at resonance?A. It is at a minimumB. It is at a maximumC. It is DCD. It is zero

    A5A09 (A) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel R-L-Ccircuit at resonance?A. It is at a minimumB. It is at a maximumC. It is DCD. It is zero

    A5A10 (C) What is the relationship between the current through a resonantcircuit and the voltage across the circuit?A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degreesB. The current leads the voltage by 90 degreesC. The voltage and current are in phaseD. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

    A5A11 (C) What is the relationship between the current into (or out of) aparallel resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit?A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degreesB. The current leads the voltage by 90 degreesC. The voltage and current are in phaseD. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase

    A5B Series resonance (capacitor and inductor to resonate at aspecific frequency)

    A5B01 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?A. 79.6 MHzB. 1.78 MHzC. 3.56 MHzD. 7.96 MHz

    A5B02 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads?A. 1.99 kHzB. 1.78 MHzC. 1.99 MHzD. 1.78 kHz

    A5B03 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?A. 3.18 MHzB. 3.18 kHzC. 7.12 kHzD. 7.12 MHz

    A5B04 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?A. 10.1 MHz

  • B. 63.7 MHzC. 10.1 kHzD. 63.7 kHz

    A5B05 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?A. 13.1 MHzB. 14.5 MHzC. 14.5 kHzD. 13.1 kHz

    A5B06 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads?A. 19.9 kHzB. 17.8 kHzC. 19.9 MHzD. 17.8 MHz

    A5B07 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads?A. 2.84 MHzB. 28.4 MHzC. 21.3 MHzD. 2.13 MHz

    A5B08 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?A. 23.7 MHzB. 23.7 kHzC. 35.4 kHzD. 35.4 MHz

    A5B09 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 4 microhenrys and C is 8 picofarads?A. 28.1 kHzB. 28.1 MHzC. 49.7 MHzD. 49.7 kHz

    A5B10 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a series R-L-C circuit if R is 47ohms, L is 1 microhenry and C is 9 picofarads?A. 17.7 MHzB. 17.7 kHzC. 53.1 kHzD. 53.1 MHz

    A5B11 (C) What is the value of capacitance (C) in a series R-L-C circuit if thecircuit resonant frequency is 14.25 MHz and L is 2.84 microhenrys?A. 2.2 microfaradsB. 254 microfaradsC. 44 picofaradsD. 3933 picofarads

    A5C Parallel resonance (capacitor and inductor to resonate at a

  • specific frequency)

    A5C01 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 1 microhenry and C is 10 picofarads?A. 50.3 MHzB. 15.9 MHzC. 15.9 kHzD. 50.3 kHz

    A5C02 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 2 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads?A. 29.1 kHzB. 29.1 MHzC. 5.31 MHzD. 5.31 kHz

    A5C03 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 5 microhenrys and C is 9 picofarads?A. 23.7 kHzB. 3.54 kHzC. 23.7 MHzD. 3.54 MHz

    A5C04 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 2 microhenrys and C is 30 picofarads?A. 2.65 kHzB. 20.5 kHzC. 2.65 MHzD. 20.5 MHz

    A5C05 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 15 microhenrys and C is 5 picofarads?A. 18.4 MHzB. 2.12 MHzC. 18.4 kHzD. 2.12 kHz

    A5C06 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads?A. 1.33 kHzB. 14.5 MHzC. 1.33 MHzD. 14.5 kHz

    A5C07 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 6 picofarads?A. 6.63 MHzB. 6.63 kHzC. 10.3 MHzD. 10.3 kHz

    A5C08 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 10 microhenrys and C is 50 picofarads?

  • A. 3.18 MHzB. 3.18 kHzC. 7.12 kHzD. 7.12 MHz

    A5C09 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 200 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads?A. 3.56 MHzB. 7.96 kHzC. 3.56 kHzD. 7.96 MHz

    A5C10 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel R-L-C circuit if R is 4.7kilohms, L is 90 microhenrys and C is 100 picofarads?A. 1.77 MHzB. 1.68 MHzC. 1.77 kHzD. 1.68 kHz

    A5C11 (D) What is the value of inductance (L) in a parallel R-L-C circuit if thecircuit resonant frequency is 14.25 MHz and C is 44 picofarads?A. 253.8 millihenrysB. 3.9 millihenrysC. 0.353 microhenrysD. 2.8 microhenrys

    A5D Skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields

    A5D01 (A) What is the result of skin effect?A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of theconductor, closer to the surfaceB. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of theconductor, closer to the surfaceC. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase theimpedanceD. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease theimpedance

    A5D02 (C) What effect causes most of an RF current to flow along the surface ofa conductor?A. Layer effectB. Seeburg effectC. Skin effectD. Resonance effect

    A5D03 (A) Where does almost all RF current flow in a conductor?A. Along the surface of the conductorB. In the center of the conductorC. In a magnetic field around the conductorD. In a magnetic field in the center of the conductor

    A5D04 (D) Why does most of an RF current flow within a few thousandths of aninch of its conductor's surface?A. Because a conductor has AC resistance due to self-inductance

  • B. Because the RF resistance of a conductor is much less than the DCresistanceC. Because of the heating of the conductor's interiorD. Because of skin effect

    A5D05 (C) Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents thanfor direct currents?A. Because the insulation conducts current at high frequenciesB. Because of the Heisenburg EffectC. Because of skin effectD. Because conductors are non-linear devices

    A5D06 (C) What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostaticfield?A. A batteryB. A transformerC. A capacitorD. An inductor

    A5D07 (B) What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field?A. CoulombB. JouleC. WattD. Volt

    A5D08 (B) What is a magnetic field?A. Current through the space around a permanent magnetB. The space around a conductor, through which a magnetic force actsC. The space between the plates of a charged capacitor, through whicha magnetic force actsD. The force that drives current through a resistor

    A5D09 (D) In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor inrelation to the direction of electron flow?A. In the same direction as the currentB. In a direction opposite to the currentC. In all directions; omnidirectionalD. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule

    A5D10 (D) What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor?A. The resistance divided by the currentB. The ratio of the current to the resistanceC. The diameter of the conductorD. The amount of current

    A5D11 (B) What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic orelectrostatic field?A. Amperes-joulesB. Potential energyC. Joules-coulombsD. Kinetic energy

    A5E Half-power bandwidth

  • A5E01 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95?A. 18.9 kHzB. 1.89 kHzC. 189 HzD. 58.7 kHz

    A5E02 (D) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 3.6 MHz and a Q of 218?A. 58.7 kHzB. 606 kHzC. 47.3 kHzD. 16.5 kHz

    A5E03 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150?A. 211 kHzB. 16.5 kHzC. 47.3 kHzD. 21.1 kHz

    A5E04 (D) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 12.8 MHz and a Q of 218?A. 21.1 kHzB. 27.9 kHzC. 17 kHzD. 58.7 kHz

    A5E05 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150?A. 95 kHzB. 10.5 kHzC. 10.5 MHzD. 17 kHz

    A5E06 (D) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95?A. 4.49 kHzB. 44.9 kHzC. 22.3 kHzD. 222.6 kHz

    A5E07 (B) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 10.1 MHz and a Q of 225?A. 4.49 kHzB. 44.9 kHzC. 22.3 kHzD. 223 kHz

    A5E08 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 18.1 MHz and a Q of 195?A. 92.8 kHzB. 10.8 kHz

  • C. 22.3 kHzD. 44.9 kHz

    A5E09 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118?A. 22.3 kHzB. 76.2 kHzC. 31.4 kHzD. 10.8 kHz

    A5E10 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit thathas a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187?A. 22.3 kHzB. 10.8 kHzC. 76.2 kHzD. 13.1 kHz

    A5E11 (B) What term describes the frequency range over which the circuitresponse is no more than 3 dB below the peak response?A. ResonanceB. Half-power bandwidthC. Circuit QD. 2:1 bandwidth

    A5F Circuit Q

    A5F01 (A) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is14.128 MHz, L is 2.7 microhenrys and R is 18 kilohms?A. 75.1B. 7.51C. 71.5D. 0.013

    A5F02 (B) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is14.128 MHz, L is 4.7 microhenrys and R is 18 kilohms?A. 4.31B. 43.1C. 13.3D. 0.023

    A5F03 (C) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is4.468 MHz, L is 47 microhenrys and R is 180 ohms?A. 0.00735B. 7.35C. 0.136D. 13.3

    A5F04 (D) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is14.225 MHz, L is 3.5 microhenrys and R is 10 kilohms?A. 7.35B. 0.0319C. 71.5D. 31.9

  • A5F05 (D) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is7.125 MHz, L is 8.2 microhenrys and R is 1 kilohm?A. 36.8B. 0.273C. 0.368D. 2.73

    A5F06 (A) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is7.125 MHz, L is 10.1 microhenrys and R is 100 ohms?A. 0.221B. 4.52C. 0.00452D. 22.1

    A5F07 (B) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is7.125 MHz, L is 12.6 microhenrys and R is 22 kilohms?A. 22.1B. 39C. 25.6D. 0.0256

    A5F08 (B) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is3.625 MHz, L is 3 microhenrys and R is 2.2 kilohms?A. 0.031B. 32.2C. 31.1D. 25.6

    A5F09 (D) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is3.625 MHz, L is 42 microhenrys and R is 220 ohms?A. 23B. 0.00435C. 4.35D. 0.23

    A5F10 (A) What is the Q of a parallel R-L-C circuit if the resonant frequency is3.625 MHz, L is 43 microhenrys and R is 1.8 kilohms?A. 1.84B. 0.543C. 54.3D. 23

    A5F11 (C) Why is a resistor often included in a parallel resonant circuit?A. To increase the Q and decrease the skin effectB. To decrease the Q and increase the resonant frequencyC. To decrease the Q and increase the bandwidthD. To increase the Q and decrease the bandwidth

    A5G Phase angle between voltage and current

    A5G01 (A) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XLis 100 ohms?

  • A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the currentB. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentC. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current

    A5G02 (B) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XLis 50 ohms?A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentB. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

    A5G03 (C) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, andXL is 250 ohms?A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the currentB. 14.1 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC. 14.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

    A5G04 (B) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XLis 100 ohms?A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the currentB. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

    A5G05 (D) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XLis 25 ohms?A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentB. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the currentD. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

    A5G06 (C) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XLis 50 ohms?A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentB. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current

    A5G07 (A) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, andXL is 75 ohms?A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentB. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the currentD. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current

    A5G08 (D) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current

  • through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, andXL is 500 ohms?A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentB. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the currentC. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current

    A5G09 (D) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the currentthrough a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XLis 75 ohms?A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the currentB. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentC. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the currentD. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current

    A5G10 (D) What is the relationship between the current through and the voltageacross a capacitor?A. Voltage and current are in phaseB. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phaseC. Voltage leads current by 90 degreesD. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees

    A5G11 (A) What is the relationship between the current through an inductor andthe voltage across an inductor?A. Voltage leads current by 90 degreesB. Current leads voltage by 90 degreesC. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phaseD. Voltage and current are in phase

    A5H Reactive power; power factor

    A5H01 (A) What is reactive power?A. Wattless, nonproductive powerB. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductorC. Power lost because of capacitor leakageD. Power consumed in circuit Q

    A5H02 (D) What is the term for an out-of-phase, nonproductive power associatedwith inductors and capacitors?A. Effective powerB. True powerC. Peak envelope powerD. Reactive power

    A5H03 (B) In a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors, what happens toreactive power?A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuitB. It goes back and forth between magnetic and electric fields, but isnot dissipatedC. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuitD. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitivefields

    A5H04 (A) In a circuit where the AC voltage and current are out of phase, how

  • can the true power be determined?A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factorB. By subtracting the apparent power from the power factorC. By dividing the apparent power by the power factorD. By multiplying the RMS voltage times the RMS current

    A5H05 (C) What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phaseangle between the voltage and the current?A. 1.414B. 0.866C. 0.5D. 1.73

    A5H06 (D) What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 45 degree phaseangle between the voltage and the current?A. 0.866B. 1.0C. 0.5D. 0.707

    A5H07 (C) What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 30 degree phaseangle between the voltage and the current?A. 1.73B. 0.5C. 0.866D. 0.577

    A5H08 (B) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes?A. 400 wattsB. 80 wattsC. 2000 wattsD. 50 watts

    A5H09 (D) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6if the input is 200-V AC at 5 amperes?A. 200 wattsB. 1000 wattsC. 1600 wattsD. 600 watts

    A5H10 (B) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71if the apparent power is 500 watts?A. 704 WB. 355 WC. 252 WD. 1.42 mW

    A5H11 (A) Why would the power used in a circuit be less than the product of themagnitudes of the AC voltage and current?A. Because there is a phase angle greater than zero between thecurrent and voltageB. Because there are only resistances in the circuitC. Because there are no reactances in the circuit

  • D. Because there is a phase angle equal to zero between the currentand voltage

    A5I Effective radiated power, system gains and losses

    A5I01 (B) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 2-dB duplexerloss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?A. 199 wattsB. 39.7 wattsC. 45 wattsD. 62.9 watts A5I02 (C) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 50watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexerloss, 1-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain?A. 79.2 wattsB. 315 wattsC. 31.5 wattsD. 40.5 watts A5I03 (D) What is the effective radiated power of a station with 75 wattstransmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?A. 600 wattsB. 75 wattsC. 150 wattsD. 299 watts A5I04 (A) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 75watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexerloss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain? A. 37.6 wattsB. 237 wattsC. 150 wattsD. 23.7 watts A5I05 (D) What is the effective radiated power of a station with 100 wattstransmitter power output, 1-dB feed line loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?A. 350 wattsB. 500 wattsC. 20 wattsD. 316 watts A5I06 (B) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 100watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexerloss, 1-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?A. 794 wattsB. 126 wattsC. 79.4 wattsD. 1260 watts A5I07 (C) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 120watts transmitter power output, 5-dB feed line loss, 3-dB duplexerloss, 1-dB circulator loss and 6-dBd antenna gain?

  • A. 601 wattsB. 240 wattsC. 60 wattsD. 79 watts A5I08 (D) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 150watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.2-dB duplexerloss and 7-dBd antenna gain?A. 1977 wattsB. 78.7 wattsC. 420 wattsD. 286 watts A5I09 (A) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200watts transmitter power output, 4-dB feed line loss, 3.2-dB duplexerloss, 0.8-dB circulator loss and 10-dBd antenna gain?A. 317 wattsB. 2000 wattsC. 126 wattsD. 300 watts

    A5I10 (B) What is the effective radiated power of a repeater station with 200watts transmitter power output, 2-dB feed line loss, 2.8-dB duplexerloss, 1.2-dB circulator loss and 7-dBd antenna gain? A. 159 wattsB. 252 wattsC. 632 wattsD. 63.2 watts A5I11 (C) What term describes station output (including the transmitter, antennaand everything in between), when considering transmitter power andsystem gains and losses?A. Power factorB. Half-power bandwidthC. Effective radiated powerD. Apparent power

    A5J Replacement of voltage source and resistive voltage divider withequivalent voltage source and one resistor (Thevenin's Theorem)

    A5J01 (B) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltageand current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 8kilohms?A. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 8 voltsB. R3 = 4 kilohms and V2 = 4 voltsC. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 8 voltsD. R3 = 16 kilohms and V2 = 4 volts

    A5J02 (C) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltageand current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 16 kilohms, and R2 is 8kilohms?A. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 voltsB. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 voltsC. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 2.67 voltsD. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts

  • A5J03 (A) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltageand current as when V1 is 8 volts, R1 is 8 kilohms, and R2 is 16kilohms?A. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 5.33 voltsB. R3 = 8 kilohms and V2 = 4 voltsC. R3 = 24 kilohms and V2 = 8 voltsD. R3 = 5.33 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts

    A5J04 (D) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltageand current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10kilohms?A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 5 voltsB. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 5 voltsC. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 10 voltsD. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 5 volts

    A5J05 (C) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltageand current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10kilohms?A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 voltsB. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 voltsC. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 voltsD. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 3.33 volts

    A5J06 (A) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltageand current as when V1 is 10 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20kilohms?A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 voltsB. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 10 voltsC. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6.67 voltsD. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 10 volts

    A5J07 (B) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltageand current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 10kilohms?A. R3 = 20 kilohms and V2 = 12 voltsB. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 6 voltsC. R3 = 5 kilohms and V2 = 12 voltsD. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 6 volts

    A5J08 (B) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltageand current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 10kilohms?A. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 4 voltsB. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 4 voltsC. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 voltsD. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts

    A5J09 (C) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltageand current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 10 kilohms, and R2 is 20kilohms?A. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 12 voltsB. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts

  • C. R3 = 6.67 kilohms and V2 = 8 voltsD. R3 = 30 kilohms and V2 = 8 volts

    A5J10 (A) In Figure A5-1, what values of V2 and R3 result in the same voltageand current as when V1 is 12 volts, R1 is 20 kilohms, and R2 is 20kilohms?A. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 6 voltsB. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 6 voltsC. R3 = 40 kilohms and V2 = 12 voltsD. R3 = 10 kilohms and V2 = 12 volts

    A5J11 (D) What circuit principle describes the replacement of any complex two-terminal network of voltage sources and resistances with a singlevoltage source and a single resistor?A. Ohm's LawB. Kirchhoff's LawC. Laplace's TheoremD. Thevenin's Theorem

    A6 - CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [6 questions - 6 groups]

    A6A Semiconductor material: Germanium, Silicon, P-type, N-type

    A6A01 (B) What two elements widely used in semiconductor devices exhibit bothmetallic and nonmetallic characteristics?A. Silicon and goldB. Silicon and germaniumC. Galena and germaniumD. Galena and bismuth

    A6A02 (C) In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductormaterial in preference to germanium or silicon?A. In bipolar transistorsB. In high-power circuitsC. At microwave frequenciesD. At very low frequencies

    A6A03 (C) What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding someantimony atoms to germanium crystals?A. J-typeB. MOS-typeC. N-typeD. P-type

    A6A04 (B) What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding somegallium atoms to silicon crystals?A. N-typeB. P-typeC. MOS-typeD. J-type

    A6A05 (A) What type of semiconductor material contains more free electrons thanpure germanium or silicon crystals?A. N-type

  • B. P-typeC. BipolarD. Insulated gate

    A6A06 (A) What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding somearsenic atoms to silicon crystals?A. N-typeB. P-typeC. MOS-typeD. J-type

    A6A07 (D) What type of semiconductor material might be produced by adding someindium atoms to germanium crystals?A. J-typeB. MOS-typeC. N-typeD. P-type

    A6A08 (B) What type of semiconductor material contains fewer free electrons thanpure germanium or silicon crystals?A. N-typeB. P-typeC. Superconductor-typeD. Bipolar-type

    A6A09 (C) What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductormaterial?A. Free neutronsB. Free protonsC. HolesD. Free electrons

    A6A10 (B) What are the majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductormaterial?A. HolesB. Free electronsC. Free protonsD. Free neutrons

    A6A11 (B) What is the name given to an impurity atom that provides excesselectrons to a semiconductor crystal structure?A. Acceptor impurityB. Donor impurityC. P-type impurityD. Conductor impurity

    A6A12 (C) What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to asemiconductor crystal structure?A. Insulator impurityB. N-type impurityC. Acceptor impurityD. Donor impurity

    A6B Diodes: Zener, Tunnel, Varactor, Hot-carrier, Junction, Point

  • contact, PIN and Light-emitting

    A6B01 (B) What is the principal characteristic of a Zener diode?A. A constant current under conditions of varying voltageB. A constant voltage under conditions of varying currentC. A negative resistance regionD. An internal capacitance that varies with the applied voltage

    A6B02 (D) In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a Zener diode?A. 7B. 6C. 4D. 3

    A6B03 (C) What is the principal characteristic of a tunnel diode?A. A high forward resistanceB. A very high PIVC. A negative resistance regionD. A high forward current rating

    A6B04 (C) What special type of diode is capable of both amplification andoscillation?A. Point contactB. ZenerC. TunnelD. Junction

    A6B05 (C) In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a tunnel diode?A. 8B. 6C. 2D. 1

    A6B06 (A) What type of semiconductor diode varies its internal capacitance asthe voltage applied to its terminals varies?A. VaractorB. TunnelC. Silicon-controlled rectifierD. Zener

    A6B07 (D) In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a varactor diode?A. 8B. 6C. 2D. 1

    A6B08 (D) What is a common use of a hot-carrier diode?A. As balanced mixers in FM generationB. As a variable capacitance in an automatic frequency control circuitC. As a constant voltage reference in a power supplyD. As VHF and UHF mixers and detectors

    A6B09 (B)

  • What limits the maximum forward current in a junction diode?A. Peak inverse voltageB. Junction temperatureC. Forward voltageD. Back EMF

    A6B10 (D) How are junction diodes rated?A. Maximum forward current and capacitanceB. Maximum reverse current and PIVC. Maximum reverse current and capacitanceD. Maximum forward current and PIV

    A6B11 (A) Structurally, what are the two main categories of semiconductordiodes?A. Junction and point contactB. Electrolytic and junctionC. Electrolytic and point contactD. Vacuum and point contact

    A6B12 (C) What is a common use for point contact diodes?A. As a constant current sourceB. As a constant voltage sourceC. As an RF detectorD. As a high voltage rectifier

    A6B13 (D) In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a semiconductordiode/rectifier?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4

    A6B14 (C) What is one common use for PIN diodes?A. As a constant current sourceB. As a constant voltage sourceC. As an RF switchD. As a high voltage rectifier

    A6B15 (B) In Figure A6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a light-emittingdiode?A. 1B. 5C. 6D. 7

    A6B16 (B) What type of bias is required for an LED to produce luminescence?A. Reverse biasB. Forward biasC. Zero biasD. Inductive bias

    A6C Toroids: Permeability, core material, selecting, winding

    A6C01 (D)

  • What material property determines the inductance of a toroidalinductor with a 10-turn winding?A. Core load currentB. Core resistanceC. Core reactivityD. Core permeability

    A6C02 (B) By careful selection of core material, over what frequency range cantoroidal cores produce useful inductors?A. From a few kHz to no more than several MHzB. From DC to at least 1000 MHzC. From DC to no more than 3000 kHzD. From a few hundred MHz to at least 1000 GHz

    A6C03 (A) What materials are used to make ferromagnetic inductors andtransformers?A. Ferrite and powdered-iron toroidsB. Silicon-ferrite toroids and shellacC. Powdered-ferrite and silicon toroidsD. Ferrite and silicon-epoxy toroids

    A6C04 (B) What is one important reason for using powdered-iron toroids ratherthan ferrite toroids in an inductor?A. Powdered-iron toroids generally have greater initial permeabilitiesB. Powdered-iron toroids generally have better temperature stabilityC. Powdered-iron toroids generally require fewer turns to produce agiven inductance valueD. Powdered-iron toroids are easier to use with surface-mounttechnology

    A6C05 (C) What is one important reason for using ferrite toroids rather thanpowdered-iron toroids in an inductor?A. Ferrite toroids generally have lower initial permeabilitiesB. Ferrite toroids generally have better temperature stabilityC. Ferrite toroids generally require fewer turns to produce a giveninductance valueD. Ferrite toroids are easier to use with surface-mount technology

    A6C06 (B) What would be a good choice of toroid core material to make acommon-mode choke (such as winding telephone wires or stereo speakerleads on a core) to cure an HF RFI problem?A. Type 61 mix ferrite (initial permeability of 125)B. Type 43 mix ferrite (initial permeability of 850)C. Type 6 mix powdered iron (initial permeability of 8)D. Type 12 mix powdered iron (initial permeability of 3)

    A6C07 (C) What devices are commonly used as parasitic suppressors at the inputand output terminals of VHF and UHF amplifiers?A. Electrolytic capacitorsB. Butterworth filtersC. Ferrite beadsD. Steel-core toroids

    A6C08 (A) What is a primary advantage of using a toroidal core instead of a

  • linear core in an inductor?A. Toroidal cores contain most of the magnetic field within the corematerialB. Toroidal cores make it easier to couple the magnetic energy intoother componentsC. Toroidal cores exhibit greater hysteresisD. Toroidal cores have lower Q characteristics

    A6C09 (D) What is a bifilar-wound toroid?A. An inductor that has two cores taped together to double theinductance valueB. An inductor wound on a core with two holes (binocular core)C. A transformer designed to provide a 2-to-1 impedance transformationD. An inductor that uses a pair of wires to place two windings on thecore

    A6C10 (C) How many turns will be required to produce a 1-mH inductor using aferrite toroidal core that has an inductance index (A sub L) value of523?A. 2 turnsB. 4 turnsC. 43 turnsD. 229 turns

    A6C11 (A) How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductorusing a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (Asub L) value of 40?A. 35 turnsB. 13 turnsC. 79 turnsD. 141 turns

    A6D Transistor types: NPN, PNP, Junction, Unijunction

    A6D01 (B) What are the three terminals of a bipolar transistor?A. Cathode, plate and gridB. Base, collector and emitterC. Gate, source and sinkD. Input, output and ground

    A6D02 (C) What is the alpha of a bipolar transistor?A. The change of collector current with respect to base currentB. The change of base current with respect to collector currentC. The change of collector current with respect to emitter currentD. The change of collector current with respect to gate current

    A6D03 (A) What is the beta of a bipolar transistor?A. The change of collector current with respect to base currentB. The change of base current with respect to emitter currentC. The change of collector current with respect to emitter currentD. The change of base current with respect to gate current

    A6D04 (D) What is the alpha cutoff frequency of a bipolar transistor?A. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common

  • emitter configurationB. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in commonemitter configurationC. The practical lower frequency limit of a transistor in common baseconfigurationD. The practical upper frequency limit of a transistor in common baseconfiguration

    A6D05 (B) In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an NPN transistor?A. 1B. 2C. 4D. 5

    A6D06 (A) In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor?A. 1B. 2C. 4D. 5

    A6D07 (D) What term indicates the frequency at which a transistor grounded basecurrent gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz?A. Corner frequencyB. Alpha rejection frequencyC. Beta cutoff frequencyD. Alpha cutoff frequency

    A6D08 (B) What does the beta cutoff of a bipolar transistor indicate?A. The frequency at which the grounded base current gain has decreasedto 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHzB. The frequency at which the grounded emitter current gain hasdecreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHzC. The frequency at which the grounded collector current gain hasdecreased to 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHzD. The frequency at which the grounded gate current gain has decreasedto 0.7 of that obtainable at 1 kHz

    A6D09 (A) What is the transition region of a transistor?A. An area of low charge density around the P-N junctionB. The area of maximum P-type chargeC. The area of maximum N-type chargeD. The point where wire leads are connected to the P- or N-typematerial

    A6D10 (A) What does it mean for a transistor to be fully saturated?A. The collector current is at its maximum valueB. The collector current is at its minimum valueC. The transistor alpha is at its maximum valueD. The transistor beta is at its maximum value

    A6D11 (C) What does it mean for a transistor to be cut off?A. There is no base currentB. The transistor is at its operating pointC. No current flows from emitter to collector

  • D. Maximum current flows from emitter to collector

    A6D12 (D) In Figure A6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a unijunctiontransistor?A. 3B. 4C. 5D. 6

    A6D13 (C) What are the elements of a unijunction transistor?A. Gate, base 1 and base 2B. Gate, cathode and anodeC. Base 1, base 2 and emitterD. Gate, source and sink

    A6E Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR); Triac; neon lamp

    A6E01 (B) What are the three terminals of a silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)?A. Gate, source and sinkB. Anode, cathode and gateC. Base, collector and emitterD. Gate, base 1 and base 2

    A6E02 (A) What are the two stable operating conditions of a silicon controlledrectifier (SCR)?A. Conducting and nonconductingB. Oscillating and quiescentC. Forward conducting and reverse conductingD. NPN conduction and PNP conduction

    A6E03 (A) When a silicon controlled rectifier (SCR) is triggered, to what othersolid-state device are its electrical characteristics similar (asmeasured between its cathode and anode)?A. The junction diodeB. The tunnel diodeC. The hot-carrier diodeD. The varactor diode

    A6E04 (D) Under what operating conditions does a silicon controlled rectifier(SCR) exhibit electrical characteristics similar to a forward-biasedsilicon rectifier?A. During a switching transitionB. When it is used as a detectorC. When it is gated "off"D. When it is gated "on"

    A6E05 (C) In Figure A6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a silicon controlledrectifier (SCR)?A. 1B. 2C. 5D. 6

    A6E06 (B)

  • What is the name of the device that is fabricated as two complementarysilicon controlled rectifiers (SCRs) in parallel with a common gateterminal?A. Bilateral SCRB. TRIACC. Unijunction transistorD. Field-effect transistor

    A6E07 (B) What are the three terminals of a TRIAC?A. Emitter, base 1 and base 2B. Gate, anode 1 and anode 2C. Base, emitter and collectorD. Gate, source and sink

    A6E08 (A) In Figure A6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a TRIAC?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 5

    A6E09 (D) What will happen to a neon lamp in the presence of RF?A. It will glow only in the presence of very high frequency radioenergyB. It will change colorC. It will glow only in the presence of very low frequency radioenergyD. It will glow

    A6E10 (C) If an NE-2 neon bulb is to be used as a dial lamp with a 120 V ACline, what additional component must be connected to it?A. A 150-pF capacitor in parallel with the bulbB. A 10-mH inductor in series with the bulbC. A 150-kilohm resistor in series with the bulbD. A 10-kilohm resistor in parallel with the bulb

    A6E11 (C) In Figure A6-3, what is the schematic symbol for a neon lamp?A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4

    A6F Quartz crystal (frequency determining properties as used inoscillators and filters); monolithic amplifiers (MMICs)

    A6F01 (B) For single-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of agood crystal lattice band-pass filter?A. 6 kHz at -6 dBB. 2.1 kHz at -6 dBC. 500 Hz at -6 dBD. 15 kHz at -6 dB

    A6F02 (C) For double-sideband phone emissions, what would be the bandwidth of agood crystal lattice band-pass filter?A. 1 kHz at -6 dB

  • B. 500 Hz at -6 dBC. 6 kHz at -6 dBD. 15 kHz at -6 dB

    A6F03 (D) What is a crystal lattice filter?A. A power supply filter made with interlaced quartz crystalsB. An audio filter made with four quartz crystals that resonate at 1-kHz intervalsC. A filter with wide bandwidth and shallow skirts made using quartzcrystalsD. A filter with narrow bandwidth and steep skirts made using quartzcrystals

    A6F04 (D) What technique is used to construct low-cost, high-performance crystalfilters?A. Choose a center frequency that matches the available crystalsB. Choose a crystal with the desired bandwidth and operating frequencyto match a desired center frequencyC. Measure crystal bandwidth to ensure at least 20% couplingD. Measure crystal frequencies and carefully select units with lessthan 10% frequency difference

    A6F05 (A) Which factor helps determine the bandwidth and response shape of acrystal filter?A. The relative frequencies of the individual crystalsB. The center frequency chosen for the filterC. The gain of the RF stage preceding the filterD. The amplitude of the signals passing through the filter

    A6F06 (A) What is the piezoelectric effect?A. Physical deformation of a crystal by the application of a voltageB. Mechanical deforma