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    1. Satellite transmits updates on everya) 13th orbitb)9th orbitc) 2nd orbitAnswer:C

    2. Galley and cabin lighting operate ona) DC busb)AC busc) GND servicesAnswer:B

    3. Buffer amp on transmitter is betweena) modulator and power ampb)local oscillator and modulatorc) local oscillator and demodulator

    Answer:B

    4. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer pointstoa) 0b)090

    c) 180Answer:C

    5. What is power at pulse?a) Peak powerb)Pulsed powerc) Average powerAnswer:A

    6. What frequency increases radar relative range?a) Highb)Lowc) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency changeAnswer:B

    7. If radar pulse is reduced there isa) increased relative rangeb)reduced relative rangec) no effectAnswer:C

    8. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial,resistance would be

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    5. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will controla) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressureb)the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration ratec) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power settingAnswer:C

    6. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiateda) only when autopilot is engagedb)after glideslope capturec) at any timeAnswer:B

    7. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visuallyassessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known asthea) decision heightb)intercept height

    c) alert heightAnswer:A

    8. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A isa) operation down to and along the surface of the runway withoutexternal referenceb)operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters

    c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of200 meters

    Answer:C

    9. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained bya) information obtained the local Meteorological Officeb)three sets of instruments at the side of the runwayc) one set of instruments the threshold of the runwayAnswer:C

    10. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landingequipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will havea) a decision height of about 50 feetb)no decision heightc) a decision height depending upon the RVRAnswer:B

    This is exam number 5.1. The purpose of a yaw damper is toa) assist the aerodynamic responseb)produce a co-ordinated turnc) block the Dutch roll frequency

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    Answer:C

    2. In a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex systemwill disconnecta) all channelsb)the failed system and carry on with an autolandc) the failed system and continue with a manual approachAnswer:B

    3. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out bya) differentiating deviation signalb)integrating deviation signalc) integrating course errorAnswer:C

    4. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilotmodes area) VOR ARM and HDG HOLDb)IAS HOLD and ALT ARMc) V/S and ALT ARMAnswer:B

    5. Which modes are incompatiblea) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLDb)G/S + ALTITUDE HOLDc) HDG + V/S HOLD

    Answer:B

    6. To carry out an autopilot check firsta) switch off all powerb)ensure all control surfaces are unobstructedc) switch on NAV receiversAnswer:B

    7. FAIL PASSIVE meansa) system self monitors, failure does not affect systemb)system self monitors, failure does affect systemc) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue autolandAnswer:B

    8. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraftwould

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    a) fly a circleb)increase its drift anglec) fly parallel to the beamAnswer:C

    9. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland systemare laid down ina) JAR AWOb)CAIPsc) BCARsAnswer:A

    10. VOR capture can be determined bya) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from theselected radialb)is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error and radiodeviation signals

    c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from theselected radialAnswer:B

    This is exam number 61. Versine is generated bya) torque receiver synchrosb)synchros resolversc) control synchro transformersAnswer:B

    2. Automatic trim is used toa) maintain level flightb)prevents standing loads on the elevatorc) allow full authority to be regained by the aileronAnswer:A

    3. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered bya) measured radio deviationb)rate of change of radio deviationc) rate of change of courseAnswer:B

    4. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensurea) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagementb)that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditionsengagement

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    c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and levelflight when the autopilot is engagedAnswer:B

    5. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles areused fora) maintaining a computed EPRb)controlling to a maximum thrustc) correction minor speed deviationsAnswer:A

    Answer:6. The GA mode is usually initiated by

    a) pressing a button on the control wheelb)pressing a button on thrust levers

    c) making a selection on the mode control panelAnswer:B

    7. On selection of the Turbulence Modea) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillationb)the gain remains the same but signals are phase advancedc) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframeAnswer:C

    8. To know the valid data base on the FMSa) perform a BITE check

    b)call up the relevant page on the CDUc) call up the relevant current statusAnswer:B

    9. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved bya) yaw rate gyro signalsb)aileron to rudder crossfeedc) aileron to elevator crossfeedAnswer:A

    10. A yaw damper system operates ona) all yaw frequenciesb)only mid range frequenciesc) low range frequenciesAnswer:B

    This is exam number 7.1. A GCR will trip if what is detected?

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    a) Under frequency and over frequencyb)Over frequency and under currentc) Over current and over frequencyAnswer:C

    2. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables?a) 75 ohms and 25 ohmsb)25 ohmsc) 50 ohmsAnswer:C

    3. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radarreceiver)a) scan at a lower rateb)use shorter burstsc) use longer burstsAnswer:B

    4. In a vibrator type voltage regulatora) the resistor is in series with the fieldb)parallel with the fieldc) in series with the voltage coilAnswer:A

    5. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels ofemergency equipment should be carried on an aircrafta) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4

    b)JAR OPS (M)c) Maintenance ManualAnswer:A

    6. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperativea) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixedb)the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/shutoffc) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect canbe fixedAnswer:C

    7. The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have?a) 180 degreesb)120 degreesc) 140 degrees

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    Answer:C

    8. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must bebedded first, this can be donea) with the generator fitted to the aircraftb)the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the benchc) at the manufacturers onlyAnswer:A

    9. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relativedensity of a lead acid battery?a) The temperatureb)The ambient pressurec) The ambient humidityAnswer:A

    10. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided

    a) to prevent precipitation static build up

    b)to prevent the wire from corrodingc) to prevent the wire from chafingAnswer:A

    This is exam number 8.1. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes bya) the use of special conductive paintb)bonding strips

    c) special conducting or non-conducting greaseAnswer:B

    2. An elevator tab moves downa) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavyb)to make the nose go downc) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavyAnswer:A

    3. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checkinga) one cell at a time until all cells are completedb)only the end cell as all the others will be the samec) any single cell as all the others will be the sameAnswer:A

    4. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or- feeta) 400ftb)160ftc) 80ft

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    Answer:C

    5. In a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by usinga) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control surfacesb)LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfacesc) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfacesAnswer:B

    6. In a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managedand provided bya) the central warning computer (CWC)b)the electronic interface units (EIU)c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS)

    Answer:C

    7. What type of memory do CMCs have?a) Volatileb)Non-volatilec) HardAnswer:B

    8. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?a) To provide a balance for CofGb)To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor

    c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotorAnswer:B

    9. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's trueairspeed?a) Higher than its IASb)Lower than its IASc) The same as its IAS

    Answer:A

    10. The stall margin is controlled bya) EPR limitsb)speed bug cursorc) angle of attack and flap positionAnswer:A

    This is exam number 9.1. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle

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    a) only with the Flight Director selectedb)With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System (DFCS)engagedc) only after take offAnswer:C

    2. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists ofa) electronic engine control unit onlyb)electronic engine control unit and all its sensorsc) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitterAnswer:B

    3. A FADEC system does not have the following system?a) An automatic starting capabilityb)Control of thrust reverser operationc) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishersAnswer:C

    4. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?

    a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flareb)Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flarec) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude holdAnswer:B

    5. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visuallyassessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know as

    thea) decision heightb)intercept heightc) alert heightAnswer:A

    6. The ICAO weather category 3A isa) operation down to and along the surface of the runway withoutexternal referenceb)operation down to 60 m and 800 mc) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with RVR of200mAnswer:C

    7. A category II facility performance ILS has an intercept height ofa) 15 mb)60 mc) 0 mAnswer:B

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    8. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the pointa) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signalb)the localiser and glide path signals cross each otherc) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide

    path signalsAnswer:A

    9. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatalaccidents per landing greater thana) 1 x 10-6b)1 x 10-7c) 1 x 10-8

    Answer:B

    10. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing thea) ground radio aids must be at least CAT IIb)ground radio aids must be at CAT IIIc) ILS system must be workingAnswer:C

    This is exam number 10.1. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing anautothrottle system is

    a) mandatoryb)a matter of choice for the operatorc) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speedAnswer:A

    2. The overshoot or go around mode is initiateda) automaticallyb)by a selector on the throttle control panelc) by pushing the throttles forward to maximumAnswer:C

    3. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope ata) 300 ftb)the decrab phasec) start of flare phaseAnswer:C

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    4. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiateda) only when the autopilot is engagedb)at any time after autoland has been engagedc) at any timeAnswer:B

    5. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been initiatedafter the selection of autolanda) ILS localiser and IASb)IAS and glideslopec) IAS and steering or headingAnswer:C

    6. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, theaeroplane willa) increase speed

    b)rotate nose upc) increase speed and rotate nose upAnswer:C

    7. V NAV can be selecteda) aloneb)only if A/P and F/D selectedc) only if A/T selected

    Answer:C

    8. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approacha) the system degrades to CAT IIb)the autoland is continuedc) a go-around is initiatedAnswer:C

    9. The order of autoland approach isa) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLAREb)GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLAREc) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLDAnswer:A

    10. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is toa) assist with localiser trackingb)assist with glideslope trackingc) point the aircraft down the runway at touch downAnswer:C

    This is exam number 11.

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    Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10C CBBABBA BB

    1. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure thata) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever anyfailure is detectedb)the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to overshoot

    if any failure is detectedc) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event ofsingle failure2. The effective gain of the glide path receiver

    a) is increased as the aircraft descendsb)remains constant as the aircraft descendsc) is decreased as the aircraft descends3. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed bya) pitch rate gyrosb)radio altimetersc) vertical accelerometers4. An autopilot with two separate power supplies isa) fail passiveb)fail operationalc) fail redundant

    5. On touchdown, autopilota) remains engaged ready for G/Ab)drives the throttles forwardc) disconnects after a short time6. When will the decision height aural warning sounda) at D.H.b)before D.H.c) after D.H.7. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by

    a) the area navigation systemb)the runway localiserc) the airfield marker beacon8. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals froma) radio altimeterb)the glide slope receiverc) the localiser receiver9. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now,a) fail passive

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    b)fail operationalc) fail redundant10. A fail passive system in the event of failure willa) produce a significant out of trim conditionb)produce no significant out of trim conditionc) ensure the aircraft can still land automaticallyThis is exam number 12.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B CBBBAC BBA

    1. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes aa) simplex systemb)duplex systemc) dual-dual system

    2. The two parameters used for category classification area) radio height/runway visual rangeb)localiser and glideslopec) decision height and runway visual range3. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode?a) Decision heightb)Radio altimeterc) Glideslope signal

    4. CAT-3b allowsa) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVRb)approach land and RVR in the order of 50 metersc) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in theorder of 50 meters5. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system toa) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trimb)continue to control after any first faultc) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim6. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown?a) Nose down biasb)Nose up biasc) No signal7. What controls are used in response to the PFD?a) Aileronsb)Throttlesc) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals

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    8. The ground run monitor (GRM) presentsa) distance to gob)ground speed and distance to goc) take off speed and distance to go9. For a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would bemoved to correct the pitch movement?a) Lateralb)Longitudinalc) Normal10. Versine is used in which channel?a) Pitchb)Rollc) YawThis is exam number 13.Answer

    1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B AA BAACBCA

    1. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Directorengaged, a down command means your speed hasa) increasedb)decreasedc) is the same

    2. A Master Warning is issued whena) overspeed and cabin altitude occurs

    b)cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs

    c) engine fire and generator trip occurs

    3. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft isa) 50 milliohmsb)1 ohmsc) 1M - 100,000 ohms4. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircrafta) in the undercarriage bay including the doorsb)at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkheadc) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead5. Sparking in a generator would be caused bya) low spring tensionb)bedding of brushesc) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis6. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on HIRFinstallations?a) Visual inspections

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    b)Insulation testingc) CMC fault indications7. What should be done to a transformer secondary connections which areopen circuit?a) Short the terminals togetherb)Put a set resistance across the terminalsc) Leave the terminals open circuit

    8. An RMI in VOR mode, its pointer is showing a course of 000, if thecourse knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?a) Move leftb)Move rightc) Moves left then hard right

    9. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system willtotally disconnect if it is aa) Triplex systemb)Duplex systemc) Simplex system10. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce therisk of high potential differences would bea) painted in a conductive paintb)painted in a non-conductive paintc) bonded to the primary structureThis is exam number 14.

    Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A CCA CBBABC

    1. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance isa) 50 ohmsb)20 ohmsc) 20 and 50 ohms respectively2. TAS uses which inputsa) Pitot and Static

    b)Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperaturec) Mach and Temp3. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?a) On the wingb)Under the Fuselagec) Either side of the Fuselage.4. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what

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    will happen to the angle of attack?a) Tend to increaseb)Tend to decreasec) Stay the same5. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the ruddera) remains at the neutral positionb)controls the aircraft in trimc) remains in the previous position6. A poor oscillator in a receiver would causea) poor channel selectivityb)poor audio outputc) poor volume output7. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use whichinputs to issue a warning?a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeterb)A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraftc) A low range altimeter and GPS

    8. Alert Height is whena) a decision of whether to land is madeb)an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is madec) an alert of the ground proximity is made9. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done?a) Placards in the cockpit

    b)An entry in the log book and cockpit placardingc) Crew retraining10. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing wasfounda) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains waterb)a leak test must be carried out even if nothing foundc) a leak test is never requiredThis is exam number 15.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A BBBACA BAB

    1. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency ofa) 1030mhz and 1090mhz respectivelyb)1090mhz and 1030mhz respectivelyc) 1090mhz2. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carriedout it will be aligned with an error of plus or minusa) 1 degreeb)3 degree

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    b)insufficient charging currentc) excessive charging voltage2. An autopilot interlock circuit is toa) prevent the system engagement if a fault existsb)disconnect the system if a fault appearsc) both a & b3. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by aa) green colourb)amberc) red colour

    4. The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms isa) 131.55

    b)121.5c) 118.005. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried outa) on the ground onlyb)continuously when the systems are workingc) only in the air6. The electrical A/H has a movement ofa) 85 degree in pitch and rollb)360 in roll and 110 in pitchc) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch7. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible

    toa) remove/disconnect hydraulic powerb)remove/disconnect electrical powerc) pull the appropriate CB8. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found ina) CAAIPsb)Maintenance Manualc) JAR OPS9. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft whatis the distance that VHF Com cover?a) 100 nm

    b)120 nmc) 140 nm10. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature , theaircraft is at thea) 180 degree radialb)090 degree radialc) 275 degree radial

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    This is exam number 17.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A CCA CBAA BA

    1. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off isa) an accelerometerb)a gyroscopec) a tachogenerator2. The units of vibration are measured ina) phonsb)decibelsc) relative amplitude3. A fuel flow measurement system can be adjusted fora) maximum flow rateb)minimum flow ratec) cannot be adjusted

    4. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle betweena) true north and magnetic north

    b)magnetic heading and aircraft headingc) the compass north and magnetic north5. GPWS mode 1 is excessivea) terrain closure

    b)rate of ascentc) rate of descent6. How many bits make up the mode "S" addressa) 12b)24c) 367. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with thea) square of the speedb)square root of the speedc) cube root of the speed8. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because ofa) capsule elasticityb)capsule shapec) non linear pressure/height relationship9. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director systemwould causea) aircraft to underbankb)aircraft to overbankc) aircraft to remain in level flight10. The doppler VOR beacon reference signal

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    a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequencyb)amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequencyc) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequencyThis is exam number 18.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A BACC ABCA A

    1. During flare mode autothrottle willa) retard throttles to idleb)disconnect autothrottlec) select reverse thrust

    2. A CSD is monitored fora) low temperature and high oil pressureb)high temperature and low oil pressurec) high temperature and high oil pressure3. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to thereward travelling blades pitch angle?a) Increasesb)Decreasesc) No change4. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnecteda) it is centralized by a spring

    b)its control is maintained by electric trimc) it is centralised by the airflow5. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes?a) 115v ac

    b)200v acc) High voltage stepped up6. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together theoutput reading isa) zerob)full scale deflectionc) centre scale7. In a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level woulda) increase capacitive reactanceb)increase capacitancec) decrease capacitance8. Float fuel gauge system isa) adjusted when tanks are fullb)adjusted when tanks are empty

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    c) cannot be adjusted9. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls area) bulkheadsb)longeronsc) frame10. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused bya) excessive electrical loadingb)high charge currentc) low charge currentThis is exam number 19.

    Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

    B BACC BACBB

    1. With engine stopped, EPR indicator reads slightly above 1.a) This is normalb)You would change the Tx as the datum is shiftedc) You would adjust the Tx2. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you wouldcarry outa) damping and periodicity checksb)damping and pivot friction checkc) damping and alignment checks

    3. The specific gravity readings of a lead acid cell taken twice aftercharging shows substantially lower value.a) Cell is defectiveb)You top up the cell with distilled waterc) You replace the cell4. Suppressor line is required fora) ATC and DME onlyb)TCAs onlyc) all L band equipments including TCAS5. Differential GPS requiresa) 3 satellites and two ground based transmittersb)4 satellites and 2 ground based transmittersc) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitter

    6. GPS hasa) 6 satellites in 4 orbits

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    b)4 satellites in 6 orbitsc) 7 satellites in 3 orbits7. When the captain calls attendanta) a high/low chime and pink light comes onb)a low chime and blue light comes onc) a high chime and pink light comes on8. In ACARS, if an upcoming message is receiveda) a designated light comes onb)a selcall light along with a chime comes onc) a chime sounds in the cockpit9. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of taila) the authority of elevators not effectedb)the up movement authority is effectedc) the down movement authority is effected10. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is losta) aircraft continues descent with an accumulating driftb)aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway

    c) aircraft moves in a circleThis is exam number 20.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B BACC AABBB

    1. IDG output voltage

    a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant.b)voltage is regulated by GCUc) voltage is regulated by IDG2. The over-station sensor is activated bya) radio deviation signalb)rate of radio deviation signalc) deviation and course error3. When moving the control columna) sensors located under the control column produces a signalb)sensor located along the control run produces a signalc) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal4. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as showna) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail planedown forceb)there is an increases tail plane up-forcec) there is an increased tailplane down-force5. Equivalent airspeed isa) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PEb)rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility

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    c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility6. In an Autoland, autothrottle is disengageda) after reverse thrust is appliedb)after affixed period of the time after landingc) manually after landing

    7. What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon?a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in rollb)360 degrees in pitch and rollc) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll8. Acceleration error producesa) a false indication of left bankb)a false indication of right bank

    c) a false indication of climb9. The normal axis of a helicopter passes througha) the centre of rotor discb)through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral axisc) a line parallel to rotor axis10. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100a) Doorb)Left wingc) Right wingThis is exam number 21.Answer

    1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B CCA BABBAA

    1. Shock stall is a flap down stallis a flap down stalloccurs at highspeedsa) is a flap down stall occurs at high speedsb)occurs at high speeds occurs at high speeds

    c) occurs at low speeds occurs at high speedsoccurs at high speedsoccurs at high speedsoccurs at high speedsoccurs at high speedsoccurs at highspeedsoccurs at high spe2. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by centrifugal forcea) flapping entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceb)dragging entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forcec) centrifugal force entrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugalforceentrifugal force

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    c) Heading ,Course error and Deviationentrifugal forceentrifugalforceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal force9. In modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlledbyentrifugal forcea) BPCUentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal

    forceentrifugal forceb)PCDU (power control distribution unit)entrifugal forceentrifugalforceentrifugal forcec) SPCUentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugalforceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugal

    forceentrifugal force10. As you approach supersonic speedentrifugal forceentrifugalforceentrifugal forcea) total drag is increasedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugalforceentrifugal forceb)lift is reducedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugalforceentrifugal forcec) thrust is reducedentrifugal forceentrifugal forceentrifugalforceentrifugal force

    BCA AABCBBC

    1. For bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined bya) a thick metallic bonding stripb)a corrugated bonding jumperc) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends2. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostaticconducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and mainearth systema) 0.5 ohmb)1 ohmc) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is less3. Mach trim in some aircraft assistsa) longitudinal stabilityb)lateral stabilityc) vertical stability4. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central

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    Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installeda) it must be installed on LH sideb)it must be installed on RH sidec) it may be installed either on LH or RH side5. Main electric pitch trim is controlled bya) a switch on control wheelb)a switch installed on centre pedestal panelc) a wheel on the centre pedastal

    6. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meterreading would bea) higher mach numberb)lower mach number

    c) not effected7. In a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defectivea) one CDU blanksb)both CDU blanksc) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place8. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static isleaking, the VSI woulda) indicate climbb)indicate decentc) not be affected9. In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check,

    which instrument is most likely to be effected by over pressure?a) ASIb)VSIc) Altimeter10. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compassa) is to rotate clockwiseb)is to rotate anticlockwisec) It may be rotated either direction

    This is exam number 25.Answer1.23 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B ? ACCA BCCB

    1. Purpose of the bellcrank is toa) transmit motionb)reverse direction and transmit motionc) adjust friction2. In an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by meansof transformer coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is

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    a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computerb)to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failurec) to minimise power losses3. DH is based ona) aircraft characteristicsb)experience of the crewc) RVR transmitted by ATC4. In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring iscorrected bya) mercury switches on the inner ringb)mercury switches on the outer ring

    c) flux valve slaving

    5. Index error isa) coefficient Bb)Coefficient Pc) misalignment of compass lubber line6. Helicopter derives its lift froma) the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above itb)rotor acts as a airscrewc) air is pushed downward7. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is calleda) rigid rotorb)semi rigid rotor

    c) fully articulated rotor8. Use of a diplexer in a receiver isa) to enable signals to be distributed to different receiversb)to amplify the RF signalc) to impedance match the aerial and receivers9. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system failsa) the failed system stops and it remains in this positionb)the pilot feels air loads higher than normalc) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal10. Doppler flag comes on when it receivesa) excessive ground clutter

    b)no signalc) excess signalsThis is exam number 26.Answer

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    1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B BBAA ABAA A

    1. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it meansa) the max aileron angle that can be commandedb)the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilotc) maximum rudder deflection2. Servo tabsa) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutralb)move in such a way as to help move the control surfacec) provide artificial feel3. Spring Tabsa) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutralb)move in such a way as to help move the control surfacec) provide artificial feel4. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate ofa) 20 degrees per millisecond

    b)30 degrees per millisecondc) 15 degrees per millisecond

    5. Omega ground stationsa) transmit pulses of CWb)carrier modulated by three audio tonesc) series of CW

    6. During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is seta) 1013.25 mbb)sea level pressurec) prevailing pressure7. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come incontacta) before the primary stopsb)after the primary stopsc) at the same time as the primary stops8. EICAS indicatesa) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctionsb)engine performance onlyc) engine performance and aircraft status9. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the righta) rotating aerofoil tilts to the rightb)pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in anotherc) rotating aerofoil tilts forward10. Magnetic heading errors will bea) positive if easterlyb)negative if easterly

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    c) negative if northerly

    This is exam number 27.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B ABA CBBABA

    1. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new headingb)It move as the aircraft movesc) It stays fixed on magnetic north2. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1

    b)When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1c) If P2 is before P13. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMCa) records all faults in volatile memoryb)records all faults in non-volatile memoryc) all memory is erased when aircraft lands4. A helicopter autopilot usesa) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitudeholdb)barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitudehold

    c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold5. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?a) Radio deviationb)Glideslope deviationc) Course deviation

    6. Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correctsequence?a) Flare, attitude, rolloutb)Attitude, flare, rolloutc) Rollout, attitude, flare7. When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has beenselected?a) When aircraft has reached 5000ftb)When reached a desired altitudec) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system

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    8. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?a) No other pitch modes are availableb)Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beamc) All are continuously available9. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed fromabove where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move thehelicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?a) In front of the lateral axisb)Right of the longitudinal axisc) Left of the longitudinal axis10. A spring balance control system youa) can move the control surface on the groundb)can move the control surface only by moving the tabc) cannot move the control surface on the ground

    This is exam number 28.Answer1.234 5 6 7 8 9 10B ? ? BBC BCAC

    1. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene?a) To prevent corrosionb)To prevent precipitation staticc) To provide lightning protection

    2. What is a versine signal attenuated with?a) Increase in airspeedb)Increase in altitudec) Decrease in altitude3. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you dowith the control switch? Select it toa) OFFb)AMc) either USB or LSB4. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?a) 21 micro secondsb)8 micro secondsc) 17 micro seconds

    5. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000

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    degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate?a) TOb)FROMc) Neither6. What does the Radar contour button do?a) Alter the beam shapeb)Alter the transmitter powerc) Alter the video amplifier7. A radar response takes 309 micro seconds. How far away is thetarget?a) 12 milesb)25 milesc) 40 miles8. On a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speedb)Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the groundc) Tip vortex build-up during hover

    9. What controls are used in response to PVD display?a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedalsb)Control wheelc) PVD control unit10. DME transponder transmits on receipta) of any interrogationb)of pilot input command requestc) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds

    This is exam number 29.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A CCBC BAABC

    1. The best design of a MRB is where the C of Pa) does not moveb)moves freely along the length of the bladec) is insignificant2. The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter isa) 16ftb)12ftc) 28ft3. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code ofa) 12bitsb)64bitsc) 24bits4. The rotor cone is formed by

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    a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4b)24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 93. Audio select panel voice switcha) allows voice ident of DMEb)cuts "beeps" from DME signalc) disables DME voice ident4. GPS frequency isa) 1575 GHzb)1575 MHzc) 1525 MHz5. Radio switches are normallya) sprung on R/T, latched on I/Cb)latched on R/T, sprung on I/Cc) latched on R/T, latched on I/C

    6. On GPWS, with aircraft below 1700fta) systems is disabledb)no traffic will be shownc) all traffic produces aural alert7. Mode S pulses. Which are used?a) F1,F2,F4,F5b)s1,p1,p3,p4c) s1,s2,p1,p2

    8. In a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier isa) it amplifies output stagesb)it improves signal to noise ratioc) it couples noise factors9. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered froma) 115 volts from ac busb)200 volts from ac busc) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units10. The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one movinga) one moving in direction of relative air flowb)highest bladec) one moving forward into relative airflowThis is exam number 31.Answer1.2345678910

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    B A CABBBBB

    1. In air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight directorpitch command bar signifiesa) speed increaseb)speed decreasec) height decrease2. Back beam is captureda) by manually selecting the back beam modeb)this automatically trips the L NAV modec) by manually selecting the L NAV mode3. With a bonding metera) the long lead is attached to the aircraft airframe and short lead toitemb)the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the itemc) it does not matter which lead goes where4. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ

    a) higherb)lowerc) higher or lower5. Flight director incompatible modes area) VOR and glideslopeb)heading and altitude holdc) VOR and altitude hold6. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?

    b)120 nmc) 130 nm7. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?a) c/a code onlyb)c/a code and P codec) P code only8. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on ahelicopter. The primary control method isa) inspect loose fixtures and fittingsb)design of engine and gearbox supportsc) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft9. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings froma) rad alt to barometricb)rad alt decreasec) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold10. On power up, the IRS obtains positiona) latitude from previous positionb)longitude from previous position

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    c) latitude and longitude from previous positionThis is exam number 32.Answer 1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10C A A B A B C C B C

    1. Krueger flaps make up part of thea) 110 nm

    a) wing upper surface leading edgeb)wing lower surface trailing edgec) wing lower surface leading edge2. Electronic stab trim switches are found on the

    a) control columnb)flight control panelc) behind thrust levers3. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known asa) apparent Ab)real Ac) true A4. Emergency electronic equipment for the cabin is referred to ina) BCARsb)JAR OPS subpart Mc) maintenance manual

    5. Carbon microphones requirea) DC supplyb)AC supplyc) no supply6. Microwave landing systems are modulated witha) FMb)phase drift keyingc) Manchester code

    7. A CVR is found to be unserviceablea) flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are notcombinedb)flights must not continue after four daysc) flights must not continue after 72 hours8. The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility isa) +/- 35 degrees

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    b)+/-40 degreesc) +/-60 degrees9. The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative toaircraft heading of 030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicatesa) 30 degreesb)90 degreesc) 60 degrees10. Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and dangerousvoltages bya) non conductive paintb)conductive paintc) earth primary conductorsThis is exam number 33.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10C CBBCA CCAA

    1. In MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists ofa) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits informationb)5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits functionc) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier

    2. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users isa) the y code

    b)the p codec) the c/a code3. The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and videoamplifier, for good pulse shape, should bea) wide and narrowb)narrow and widec) wide and wide4. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is losta) the aircraft flies in a circleb)aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set headingc) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle5. 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requiresa) pitot onlyb)static onlyc) pitot and static6. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will applycorrective rudder toa) the rightb)the leftc) the left with some aileron assistance

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    7. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional toa) amount of aircraft disturbance

    b)attitude of aircraftc) rate of yaw8. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployeda) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the aileronsb)in unison with both the up going and down going aileronsc) to assist the up going aileron9. Glideslope deviation signals area) DC polarity sensitiveb)AC phase sensitivec) DC positive going only

    10. A triplex system loses one channela) pilot can continue with autolandb)pilot can use auto approachc) pilot must make a full manual approach and landThis is exam number 34.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10C AA AACC ABC

    1. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system hasa) full authority

    b)50% authorityc) 10% authority2. Stall warning will be givena) before stallb)after stall

    c) at stall3. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of centralmaintenance function (CMF) is toa) log relevant maintenance datab)transmits to the CMCc) provides details of defect action4. How are spoilers normally operated?a) Hydraulic actuatorb)Air pistonsc) Electrical motors

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    5. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is topermit thea) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitudewithout having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feelsystem forcesb)pilot to move the collective to obtain a power changec) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered6. A differential relay in a twin generator system will causea) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a timeb)one generator always comes on line before the otherc) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are paralleled7. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkalinebatterya) in the aircraftb)when the battery is fully chargedc) in the charging room only

    8. When removing the load from a current transformera) short the terminalsb)place a resistor across each terminalc) leave the terminals open9. Wing steady light must be visible througha) 70 degreesb)110 degrees

    c) 180 degrees10. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pinsa) a and bb)c and dc) e and fThis is exam number 35.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B ACC CABBBB

    1. When paralleling two AC generatorsa) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on insequence ABCb)it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on ineither ABC or CBAc) they do not need to be in phase2. The neutral shift sensor ensures thata) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the

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    stabiliserb)after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the elevatorc) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with theelevator3. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems toa) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yawb)prevents slip and skid in yawc) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn4. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out bya) differentiating deviation signalsb)integrating deviation signalsc) integrating course error signals5. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC ratiometerwould cause

    a) the pointer to read zerob)the pointer to read mid scalec) the pointer to read full scale6. The instantaneous VSI is designed toa) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometerb)use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descentc) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g7. With a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate ofprecession willa) increase with a higher rotor speedb)decrease with a higher rotor speed

    c) decrease with a lower rotor speed

    8. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motorlocated about the gyroscope'sa) lateral axisb)longitudinal axisc) vertical axis9. The glideslope equipment operates in thea) HF bandb)UHF bandc) VHF band10. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director systemwould causea) aircraft to underbankb)aircraft to overbankc) aircraft to remain in level flight

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    This is exam number 36.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A BBABBA BAC

    1. In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from thenavigation receiver area) DCb)ACc) pulsed DC2. Fuel quantity test set consists ofa) resistance decade

    b)capacitance bridgec) inductance decade3. EICAS provides the followinga) engine parametersb)engine parameters and system warningsc) engine warnings and engine parameters4. The stabiliser is set to high setting whena) the flaps are moving downb)the flap are moving upc) the flap are moving up or down5. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the

    systema) operationalb)passivec) simplex6. DSR TK (desired track) meansa) the bearing to capture the trackb)a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way pointsc) distance left or right from desired track7. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal froma) the barometric alt capsuleb)a rad alt outputc) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height

    8. In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal isa) FM Modulatedb)AM Modulated

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    c) modulated with a 9960Hz9. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle willa) retard the throttleb)reverse thrustc) control throttle for a IAS10. If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of theaudio would relate to thea) amplitudeb)frequencyc) rate of frequency changeThis is exam number 37.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A ACC CAA ACB

    1. The normal axis on a helicopter isa) straight down the rotor head

    b)at 90o to the C of Gc) at 90o to the rotor head2. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is useda) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RXb)make the audio signal clearerc) an Americanisum for volume

    3. A GPS aerial is polariseda) verticallyb)horizontallyc) right hand circular4. Mach trim threshold are set by thea) pilotb)engineer using aircraft maintenance manualc) manufacture5. An O ring in a wave guide is used toa) correct the VSWRb)stop arcing between the wave guidec) stop moisture entering the wave guide6. An RMI requires the following inputs:a) Heading and radio deviationb)Course and radio deviationc) Radio deviation only7. The versine signal is used in thea) pitch channel onlyb)roll channel onlyc) pitch and roll channel

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    8. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall.This is calleda) transient droopb)static droop

    c) under swing9. Loran C Usesa) 16 Khzb)20 Mhzc) 100 Khz10. The amount of travel of a series actuator isa) 50% of control movementb)10% of control movement

    c) full control movementThis is exam number 38.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B ABA BCBABC

    1. GPS Telemetry consists ofa) week number and time labelb)satellite position informationc) 8 bits of preamble and position information2. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at maximum

    flap ata) 90ob)180oc) 0o3. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved bya) Aircraft Maintenance Manual

    b)JAR (OPS) Mc) BCAR A4-84. The rotor disc isa) the distance between tip to tipb)the rotor head hubc) the ground cushion5. A DME is in auto stand by whena) the ATC transponder is transmittingb)the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second

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    c) the TCAS is transmitting6. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90o Whatis a RMI display?a) 90ob)0oc) 180o7. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviationsignal is lost the aircraft woulda) continue on flying on the localizerb)fly parallel to the localizerc) drift of from the localizer on the same heading8. Cat-2 autoland DH limits area) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ftb)below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft.c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.

    9. Cat-1 autoland DH limits area) not less than 100 ft.b)not less than 200 ft.c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft.10. When GA is initiated?a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will levelb)Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the throttlesc) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust

    This is exam number 39.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A ABBA AABBB

    1. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode area) integrated pitch and radio altitude.b)G/S deviation and radio altitude.c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation2. Rollout guidance after touch down is bya) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steeringb)visual indication and nosewheel steeringc) visual indication and rudder control3. During autoland failure of one channel is detecteda) all channels will disconnect in triplex system.b)all channels will disconnect in dulpex system.c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.

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    4. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel willa) disconnect all channelsb)disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approachc) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual approach5. During the flair mode the A/T throttle willa) retard throttle to idle.b)disconnect autothrottlec) select reverse thrust.6. Roll out mode occursa) after flareb)before flarec) at alert height7. High and low signal to voter area) averagedb)removed

    c) added8. Basic monitoring is function ofa) votingb)signal comparisonc) signal summing9. In series rudder systema) the pilot cannot input to the systemb)the pilot can input to the systemc) yaw damping is only possible signal input

    10. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means thata) the indicator is not serviceableb)the control system is out of trimc) the system is trimmedThis is exam number 40.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B CAC ABABAA

    1. In parallel rudder system,a) the pilot can input on rudder pedalsb)The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movementc) The rudder pedals are disconnected2. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channelamplifier. This means it isa) ACb)DC

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    C BBABAABCB

    1. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?a) Height Deviationb)Radio deviationc) Course deviation2. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correctsequence?a) Flare, attitude, rolloutb)Attitude, flare, rolloutc) Rollout, attitude, flare3. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has beenselected?a) When aircraft has reached 5000ftb)When reached a desired altitudec) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system4. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are available?

    a) No other pitch modes are availableb)Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam

    c) All are continuously available5. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from abovewhere would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopterbackwards, 90 degrees to what?

    a) In front of the lateral axisb)Right of the longitudinal axisc) Left of the longitudinal axis6. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent area) lift, drag thrust, weightb)lift, drag, thrustc) weight, drag, lift7. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm?a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torquerotorb)Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopterc) Provide directional control8. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?a) 21 microsecondsb)8 microsecondsc) 17 microseconds9. What does the Radar contour button do?a) Alter the beam shapeb)Alter the transmitter power

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    c) Alter the video amplifier

    10. A radar response takes 329 microseconds. How far away is thetarget?a) 12 milesb)25 milesc) 40 milesThis is exam number 42.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A AA CBAAA BB

    1. With a spring balance control system you can

    a) move the control surface on the groundb)move the control surface only by moving the tabc) not move the control surface on the ground2. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance isa) 50 ohmsb)20 ohmsc) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively3. Alert Height is whena) a decision of whether to land is madeb)an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is madec) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made

    4. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the ruddera) remains at the neutral positionb)controls the aircraft in trimc) remains in the previous position

    5. For a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would bemoved to correct the pitch movement?a) Lateralb)Longitudinalc) Normal6. Versine is used in which channel?a) Pitchb)Rollc) Yaw7. A Master Warning is issued whena) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs

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    3. The neutral shift system augments control of thea) stabiliserb)elevatorc) spoilers4. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causesa) thetwo elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move upb)all the elevators on each wing to move upc) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up

    5. What are ground spoilers used for?a) To dump liftb)To assist the aircraft coming to a stopc) To slow the aircraft

    6. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilotfeed in this command?a) Control Wheelb)Control Columnc) Rudder Pedals7. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure?a) 3000 psib)1000 psic) 300 psi8. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailableyou must

    a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but largerb)defer the defect until correct spares are availablec) splice the broken lead9. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all thecurrent from a primary structure?a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cableb)0.25inch wide by 26AWG cablec) No smaller than 18AWG10. What is the bonding value between secondary structure?

    a) 0.5 ohmsb)1 ohmc) Between 1Megohm and 500,000 ohmsThis is exam number 45.Answer1. 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

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    A A B B B A A B A

    1. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called?a) Drag Strutb)Drag Wirec) Shock Absorber2. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?a) Increasing in liftb)Going to the highest pointc) Increasing in drag3. In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority doesit have?a) 10% approximatelyb)100%c) 50%4. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver?a) Polarity sensitive AC

    b)Polarity sensitive DCc) Either

    5. What does an INS calculate on power up?a) Last Known Longitudeb)Last Known Latitudec) Last Known Longitude & Latitude

    6. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of ahelicopter what effect will an autopilot input have?a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot inputb)The cyclic lever will not movec) The flight director bars only will move7. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system pages?a) Through the ground test functionb)Through the Existing faults functionc) Through the Present Leg faults function8. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication?a) The voltage activity in the servo ampb)Trim tab positionc) Control surface position9. What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-?a) 62b)42c) 2010. When using a bonding tester youa) use the 6ft lead for testing different pointsb)use the 60ft lead for testing different points

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    c) use either leads for the testing

    This is exam number 46.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A CCA ACBA BA

    1. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for?a) Control of the pitch of the rotor bladesb)Control of the speed of the rotor bladesc) Control of the flap of the rotor blades2. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect?a) Disturbances

    b)Velocityc) Pressure changes3. With a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens whenthe control surface is moved?a) It remains in the neutral positionb)It moves in the same direction as the control surfacec) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface4. What should be carried out prior to working on or near controlsurfaces?a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected offb)Pull & tag circuit breakers

    c) Wear ear protection5. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of VerticalSpeed bya) blocking off static and by using an accelerometerb)using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator

    c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer6. What is the glide slope frequency range?a) 108 - 112 Mhzb)108 - 112 Ghzc) 329 - 335 Mhz7. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyteb)Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolytec) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage8. Upwash on a helicopter would result in

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    a) increase in lift without an increase in powerb)decrease in liftc) decrease in speed9. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed?a) Bell soundb)Clacking soundc) Horn sound10. What is a slot used for?a) To reinforce the boundary layerb)Increased angle of attack during approachc) Increase the speed of the airflowThis is exam number 47.Answer

    1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B BABCBA BAC

    1. ADF isa) Rhob)Thetac) Rho-Theta2. A Boost Gauge readsa) above or below ambient atmospheric pressureb)absolute pressure

    c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure3. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line anda) relative air flowb)tip path planec) horizontal axis4. If cyclic is moved to the righta) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on anotherb)the rotor blades on the right flap downc) the rotor blades on the left flap down5. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 systema) 2.3 - 23 Mhzb)2 - 6 GHzc) 100 KHz6. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of attack

    had an aileron going down?

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    a) Decrease stall speedb)Increase stall speedc) Have no effect on the stall speed7. A high lift device is used fora) take off and landingb)take off onlyc) landing only8. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a loadbearing part of the structure that can be used as walls or partial walls?a) Frameb)Bulkheadc) Stringer9. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission?a) To make an installati on recognise its own transmissionb)To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense areac) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area10. What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon?

    a) 100b)50c) 20This is exam number 48.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B BABA CBCCB

    1. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer?

    a) Material of the coilb)Material of the sensing elementc) Material of the indicator needle2. After a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, thehelicopter woulda) roll back to the horizontalb)continue to roll furtherc) remain at the position that it had rolled to3. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems?a) Spoiler to aileronb)Spoiler to flapc) Spoiler to elevator4. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication?a) To enable vowels to be heard betterb)To enable consonants to be heard betterc) To enable numbers to be heard better5. The difference between transient droop and static droop is

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    a) underswingb)overswingc) a hole in one6. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at thesame level above sea level thena) it will not need resetting and will read zerob)it will display the airfield height above sea levelc) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero

    7. capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connecteda) by replacing capacitance probesb)in parallel with capacitance probesc) in series with capacitance probes

    8. What is aileron droop?a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflowb)One aileron loweredc) The droop of ailerons with no hydraulics on9. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generatorcontrolled?a) Hydraulic feedback to a governorb)No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drivec) By a swashplate10. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight?a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation

    b)The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotationc) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction ofrotationThis is exam number 49.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A ABA CAABBB

    1. With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it isa) semi rigidb)rigid

    c) fully articulating2. Earths atmosphere isa) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogenb)4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen

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    c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen3. A thermocouplea) capacitance and inductance cannot be addedb)cannot be shortenedc) can be shortened4. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a compass?a) Bellows and diaphragmb)Alcohol is used as it does not get effected by temperaturec) Press relief valve5. When installing an aerial, added support is needed for the structure.This is achieved bya) websb)outer platec) inner plate6. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse frequency?a) 60b)63

    c) 10007. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade

    a) increases at the tipb)increases at the rootc) is unaffected by blade position8. TCAS II is

    a) 1 aircraft per square nautical mileb)24 aircraft per 5 nautical mile radiusc) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square9. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by aa) servomotorb)loop voltagec) Chinaman10. FMC changes movement viaa) A/P actuatorb)flight control computerc) straight to the actuatorThis is exam number 50.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A AB? BCAA BA

    1. Aircraft condition monitoring monitorsa) certain parametersb)with a fault detector and tells master warning computerc) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC

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    2. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere

    a) increase with the frequencyb)decrease with frequencyc) is not affected by frequency3. What is lapse rate?a) Pressure changes with altitudeb)Temperature changes with altitudec) Density changes with altitude4. Increase in speed of spoilers is needed whena) the flaps are loweredb)at higher speedsc) the landing gear is extended

    5. What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a battery?a) The outside temperatureb)Electrolyte temperaturec) Charge state of the battery6. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?a) Elevator up, left aileron downb)Elevator down, right aileron downc) Elevator up, right aileron down7. Where is the placement of a mercury switch?a) Outer gimbalb)Gyro case

    c) Instrument case8. DC power into the GCU comes from

    a) main battery busb)main battery bus and ground servicec) ground service9. In a boost gauge system the sensing element containsa) 1 capsuleb)2 capsulesc) 3 capsules10. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, thecontrol surface willa) move upb)move downc) remain at the same placeThis is exam number 51.

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    Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10C ACBC ABABA

    1. Spring tabsa) cannot be adjusted in flightb)can be adjusted in the flight deckc) cannot be adjusted2. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoAwilla) increaseb)decreasec) remain

    3. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about thea) normal axisb)lateral axisc) longitudinal axis4. LOC signal modulation isa) 50 %b)20 %c) 10 %5. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , thehelicopter would

    a) continue to rollb)increases rollc) come back to level flight6. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure?a) ASIb)altimeterc) VSI7. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS willa) decreaseb)increasec) remain the same8. A Master Warning is issued whena) overspeed and low cabin altitude occursb)cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs

    c) engine fire & trip occurs

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    8. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen tothe precession?a) Increaseb)Remain unaffectedc) Decrease9. A q feel system supplies

    a) aerodynamic dampingb)the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speedc) control movement effort relief10. ADF operates within which frequencies?a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHzb)118 MHz - 132 MHz

    c) 32KHz - 64 KHzThis is exam number 53.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B CAA ? A AACC

    1. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used?a) Roll outb)Flarec) Touchdown2. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is

    a) DME Freqb)LNAVc) CRZ3. Mode C response isa) 21 microsecondsb)12 microsecondsc) 8 microseconds4. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitudereporting system?

    a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panelb)Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binaryc) Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table5. An uncorrected ADI is affected bya) climbb)descent

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    b)indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSIc) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude indicator

    5. API Trim pointers are fed bya) a synchrob)an RVDTc) an LVDT6. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for maximumpower transfer isa) 50 ohmsb)25 to 75 ohmsc) 129 ohms7. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director computer

    isa) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failureb)to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failurec) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure8. In audio clippinga) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signalb)vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signalc) there is no change in relative strength of vowels9. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals usesa) attenuation first then amplificationb)amplification first then attenuation

    c) no attenuation but amplification

    10. DME how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?a) Decoderb)Blocking oscillatorc) IntegratorThis is exam number 55.Answer1.23 4 5 6 7 8 9 10C ? BBAAA ACB

    1. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected to adipole of 120 ohms. While checking with ohmmeter the reading will bea) 80 ohmsb)200 ohmsc) more than 20 megohms

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    c) +/- 62This is exam number 56.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B AA ABCBAA A

    1. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMIindicatesa) 90b)180c) 02. In an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is whena) flaps are retractedb)landing gear up and lockedc) flaps extended3. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236 microsecondsafter transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant range to the

    station?a) 96 nautical milesb)100 nautical milesc) 104 nautical miles

    4. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is theaircraft?

    a) 10b)5c) 2.55. What frequency range does ACARS operate in?a) 2-30 MHzb)118-136 MHzc) 4-5 GHz6. An FM signal would have it's sideband signalsa) above the carrier signalb)below the carrier signalc) No sidebands present7. On an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warninga) would initiate a Go Aroundb)audio and Visual warningc) visual warning only8. A Doppler VOR station's transmissionsa) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiverb)can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR receiverc) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR receiver9. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying

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    pressurea) to the control wheel

    b)to the control columnc) to the rudder pedals10. On a modern aircraft about to stalla) the outboard slats extend automaticallyb)engine power increases automaticallyc) the flaps retract automaticallyThis is exam number 57.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B BCBCBBBBA

    1. Wing can spoilers be useda) to assist the respective down going aileron in a turnb)as ground spoilers on landingc) to assist the elevators2. When checking the altitude reporting of the transpondera) set the barometric altimeter to local pressureb)set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mbc) set the rad alt to 0 feet3. Dutch Roll affectsa) pitch and roll simultaneously

    b)pitch and yaw simultaneouslyc) yaw and roll simultaneously4. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the

    vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antennaa) will move upb)will move downc) will not move5. Standing waves in a co-axial feeder cable are proportional toa) length of the cableb)transmitter power outputc) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna6. When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where aD.R. compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compassa) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out andremaining compasses are adjusted with master compass

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    b)all readings and adjustments for each compass should be madesimultaneously on each headingc) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made atany one heading only7. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is usedfor entry on the deviation card should not exceeda) 2 degreesb)3 degreesc) 5 degrees8. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is calleda) apparent errorb)residual errorc) index error

    9. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted withcover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reducea) Parallax errorb)Surface reflectionc) Static to avoid dust attraction10. Versine signal is governed bya) rollb)pitchc) yawThis is exam number 58.

    Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B BAA CCCCA A

    1. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speedbya) 4%b)7%c) 10.321%2. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance forelectrical cables carrying electrical current isa) 20 inchesb)24 inchesc) 28 inches3. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot

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    head is carried out witha) an inclinometerb)micrometerc) spirit level4. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented bya) Tachogeneratorb)Feedback from control surfacec) Feedback from servo motor5. When an hydraulic system is un pressurised, the position of flightcontrol surfaces area) downb)neutralc) droop6. Radar beamwidth improvesa) range resolutionb)range accuracyc) bearing resolution

    7. A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the outputvoltage?a) 115Vb)345Vc) 460V8. The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2

    inches dia. This is thea) opening dia. of pitot headb)internal dia of pitot head where air stagnatesc) external dia of pitot head9. On a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indicationa) a set screw is provided for zero adjustmentb)it does not have any adjustmentc) a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments10. A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft, a presetpotentiometer is fitteda) in series with the field windingb)in parallel with the field windingc) in series with the generator outputThis is exam number 59.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B CCA ABBAC C

    1. Battery trays area) metal for earthing purposes

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    b)metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paintc) absorbent to soak up electrolyte2. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected ina) parallelb)seriesc) either parallel or series and switched between as an option

    3. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?a) Ground or earthb)Positive to battery relayc) Positive to external power relay4. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuitstarts is

    a) 115 Degrees Fb)144 Degrees Fc) 144 Degrees C5. If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged bya) constant voltageb)constant currentc) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automaticallyswitches to constant voltage6. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATAa) Chapter 24 Section 21b)Chapter 24 Section 31

    c) Chapter 31 Section 217. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element isa) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing lengthb)in series with the field and changes resistance with surface areacontactc) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changinglength

    3 1. 2 4 5 6 7 8 9 10CC CA CAA AAC

    8. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading isa) stationaryb)fluctuatingc) pulse width modulating9. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by

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    a) transformers and transistorsb)diodes and transformersc) zeners and transistors10. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected bya) voltage coilb)current coilc) voltage and current coilThis is exam number 60.Answer1. Increasing the real load primarilya) decreases frequencyb)decreases output voltagec) increases output voltage and increases frequency2. Inductive reactive load causesa) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipatedb)increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated

    c) increase in torque only3. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion ofa) apparent power from the generator that does workb)reactive power from the generator that does workc) real power from the generator that does work4. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical generatorfrequency is bya) angle of swash plate

    b)IDGc) restriction valve5. Differential protection in an AC system protects againsta) A reverse current flowing from the batteryb)short circuitsc) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults6. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should bea) stationaryb)rotating at idlec) rotating at Nsync7. One of the main purposes of a CSD is toa) enable generators to be paralleledb)prevent engine overloadc) maintain constant load on the generator8. In a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likelyconsequence is

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    a) activation of the time delay circuitb)de-activation of the field regulatory TRsc) energise the bus tie relay9. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, itwould be an indication that thea) CSD drives shaft had shearedb)phase sequence detection circuit has operatedc) bus tie interlock is inoperative10. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electricalload increases, generator output voltage willa) decrease and amperage output increasesb)increases and amperage output increasesc) remain constant and amperage output increasesThis is exam number 61.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10

    B BBAA BBBBB

    1. Directional property is exhibited bya) the sense antennab)the loop antennac) both the sense and loop antenna2. In ADF system, Goniometera) combines the signals from fixed loop antenna and sense antennab)effectively simulates a rotating loop antennac) alternately selects signals from loop antenna and sense antenna

    3. In an aircraft VOR receivera) 108 MHz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz variable phasesignalb)30 Hz modulated reference signal is compared with 30 Hz variable phasesignalc) 30 Hz reference signal is compared with 9960 Hz variable phasesignal4. In CVOR, 9960 c/s FM subcarrier is used ina) VAR phaseb)REF phasec) station identification Morse code5. The DVOR is preferred in comparison to CVOR becausea) DVOR is relatively insensitive to SITE errorsb)DVOR ground installation is relatively simplerc) DVOR is compatible for digital processing6. A secondary surveillance radar (SSR) interrogation operates on

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    a) a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing of 20.3 microsecondsb)a frequency of 1030 MHz and pulse spacing depending on mode ofinterrogationc) a frequency of 1090 MHz and pulse spacing 20.3 microseconds7. In ILS, the glide slope providesa) lateral steeringb)vertical steeringc) distance checks

    8. The components of an ILS are:a) A localizer and a glide slopeb)A localizer, a glide slope and the marker beaconsc) A localizer and the marker beacons

    9. If the 90 Hz tone predominates in a localizer receiver, the deviationindicator will showa) the flagb)fly rightc) fly left10. Localizer modulation depth isa) 2%b)20%c) 50%This is exam number 62.Answer

    1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A BBAA BBABA

    1. The aerial element of a VHF comms transmitter/receiver should have amidband length ofa) /4b)/2c) 2. The short circuit stub that is used for broadbanding a VHF whip musthave a length of about

    a) 29cmb)59cmc) 70cm3. An isotropic radiatora) is an end fed /2 unipole

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    b)has a perfectly spherical radiation patternc) has a cardiod shaped polar diagram4. The VSWR of a VHF system with a forward power of 100W and a reflectedpower of 4W will bea) 1.5:1b)2:1c) 2.5:15. When an ADF antenna is repositioned from the bottom of the fuselageto the top, the wiring of the bearing indicator must bea) reverse R1+R2 connections onlyb)reverse R1+R2 and S1+S2 connectionsc) reverse R1+S2 connections6. The mode S squitter pulse willa) trigger the TCAS mode S all call interrogationb)contain the aircraft identityc) contain the aircraft range and altitude information7. When using the GPS

    a) database card must be replaced every 28 daysb)once the database card has expired the system will continue to operate

    with a warning messagec) once the database expires the system will not operate8. When the ILS marker hi/lo switch is set to loa) receiver sensitivity is reduced by 10 to 12db

    b)increased by 10 to 12dbc) marker lamps are illuminated by a lower signal level9. In a CVR system hot micsa) are as selected by the boom/mic switchesb)is a term applied to all the aircrafts micsc) get their power supply from the selected Tx via the r/t switch10. A DME receives a ground transponder reply after 2472 microseconds,the slant range to the transponder is approximatelya) 196 nmb)200 nmc) 200 statute milesThis is exam number 63.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A ACA ACC CBB

    1. The most common type of gyro used in an INS isa) a single rate integrating gyro with viscosity dampingb)a single rate gyro with a spring restrained gimbal and eddy currentdamping

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    10. When a compass is in the slave modea) the azimuth gyro will wander uncompensatedb)azimuth gyro will be corrected by long term monitoring of the fluxvalvec) the azimuth gyro is slaved to the annunciator or synchronisercircuitThis is exam number 64.Answer1.2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B CAA ABAA BC

    1. Dome lights on the flight deck are powered by thea) battery bus barb)battery bus bar or ground services

    c) ground services2. Bandwidth of HF transmission isa) 1khzb)1.5khzc) 3khz3. A flux valve becomes permanently magnetized. What will be the effect?a) More deviationb)More variationc) Remote compass will indicate in one direction only

    4. GPSa) uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbitsb)uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbitsc) uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits5. During a system overload, load sharing will first affecta) galley servicesb)IFEc) first officers transfer bus6. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to makea) TAb)RAc) either RA or TA7. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?

    a) White diamonds, red squares and amber circlesb)White squares, red diamonds and amber circles

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    a) aircraft are within 6 nautical miles laterally and 1200 feetvertically of each otherb)a collision is within 25-35 seconds of occurringc) a collision is within 35-40 seconds of occurring

    7. A split flapa) forms part of the leading edge's lower surface when retractedb)forms part of the trailing edge's upper surface when retractedc) forms part of the trailing edge's lower surface when retracted8. When carrying out an autoland approach, VNAV is de-selected. Theaircraft will enter MCP SPD mode whena) APP switch is pressedb)the aircraft captures the glideslope

    c) the aircraft receives the first ILS signal9. The auto gain voltage of a weather radar is seta) in the workshopb)by the manufacturerc) by adjusting the gain control until optimum picture quality isobtained10. Airspeed hold is aa) pitch modeb)lateral modec) heading modeThis is exam number 66.

    Answer1.234 56 7 8 9 10? ? ? A ? B BCC?

    1. When servicing an RVSM aircrafta) all pitot/static instruments must be serviceableb)the alt alert must be serviceablec) the alt hold must be serviceable2. An ASI compressibility error correction will bea) Positiveb)Negativec) Both3. A GNS satellite system transmissions area) vertically polarisedb)horizontally polarisedc) right hand circular

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    4. An anti-servo taba) assists the pilot to move the controls back to neutralb)moves in the same direction as the control surface to assist thepilotc) moves in the opposite direction to the control surface to assistthe pilot5. A typical Ratiometer indicating system would usea) 3 phase ACb)Single phase AC for the indicator and transmitterc) Single phase AC for the indicator and DC for the transmitter6. Cat 2 RVR if the alert height is 100 feet will bea) 300mb)400mc) 800m7. ADF quadrantal error will be ata) 0 Degreesb)45 Degrees

    c) 90 Degrees8. Slats, when stowed, make up part of the winga) trailing edgeb)leading edge lower surfacec) leading edge upper surface

    9. A plain flapa) When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge lower surfaceb)When stowed makes up part of the wing trailing edge upper surfacec) when deployed increases the camber of the wing

    10. Compass error Q corrections correcta) A errorb)B errorc) C error