Easa Module 7

MODULE 7 : MAINTENANCE PRACTICE

1. Small instrument terminations may be made by a) Soldering a split wire loopb) Soldering half loopc) Unsoldered split wire loop

2. A suitable cable for use in fire protection system would be?a) Flameb) Glacialc) Unifire F

3. Heavy duty cable runs can be reduced by using

a) Heavy duty relaysb) Lower voltagesc) Superior voltages

4. The sequence of tests carried out on an aircraft electrical circuit is alwaysa) Continuity, bonding, functionalb) Continuity, insulation, functionalc) Bonding, insulation, continuity

5. The minimum insulation value allowed on a 28V DC machine isa) 2.0 mega ohmsb) 0.2 mega ohmsc) 0.5 mega ohms

6. A meter has a resistance of 10000 ohms/volt when selected to the 10V range. Reading 0.5V load is

a) 1 000 ohmsb) 100 000 ohmsc) 50 000 ohms

7. The conductor in tensile cablea) Copperb) Silver plated copperc) Nickel plated copper

8. Copper cable fittings area) Not fitted to aluminium cablesb) Fitted to aluminium cablesc) Available in 4-10 A rang only

9. The current rating of 14 gauge cable compared to a 18 gauge cable isa) Lessb) Morec) Same

10. The advantage of copper cable isa) High permeabilityb) No magnetic fieldc) Low resistance to current flow

11. Over twisting of multi-strand cable causesa) The strands to flareb) The diameter to increasec) A gap between insulation and conductor

12. Bonding is used toa) Isolate lightning strike damageb) Isolate components electrically and make static potential constantc) Safely dissipate static discharges

13. When crimping using a hydraulic crimping tool the crimp is completed correctly whena) The pressure relieve valve openb) The ratchet releasesc) The correct imprint is on the crimp

14. Bonding measurement of a material with an anodic coating the resistancea) Is taken into accountb) The coating must be penetratedc) Is neglible

15. Loss of electrical insulation will showa) Open circuit between supply and earthb) Open circuit in supplyc) Short circuit between supply and earth

16. Correct bend radius for a cable loom is not less thana) 3 times outside diameter of cable loomb) 5 times outside diameter of cable loomc) 8 times outside diameter of cable loom

17. A cable is marked to ATA 100 standard 1E6B22N B indicatesa) B phase of 3 phase supplyb) Circuit functionc) Cable segment

18. The diameter of an aluminium electrical cable isa) Greater than a copper cable of the same current ratingb) The same as a copper cable of the same current ratingc) Less than a copper cable of the same current rating

19. A coaxial cable is used fora) Small DC signalsb) Sensitive AC signalc) Square wave signals only

20. The hole in the base of a Daniels crimp is fora) To allow visual inspection of soldered jointsb) To allow solder to enter holec) To ensure correct length of cable

21. A high resistance crimped connection can be found bya) Continuity testb) Milivolt drop testc) Insulation test

22. If a white powder is formed on aluminium this makes the metala) A better conductorb) An insulatorc) A worse conductor

23. High resistance in heavy current connections causesa) Excess power dissipation at connectionb) Damage to power sourcec) Breakdown of cable insulation

24. The requirements for the design of cable looms are stated ina) CAIPsb) BCARsc) Airworthiness notices

25. To prevent electrical interference an unscreened aerial should be separateda) 28 inchesb) 8 inchesc) 18 inches

26. A cable routed outside the pressurized area of an aircraft could be subjected to a temperature of

a) Minus 80°Cb) Minus 56°Cc) Minus 180°C

27. Where ever possible cables connected to apparatus shall be arranged to run from the apparatus

a) Upwardsb) Parallelc) Downwards

28. Where possible the distance from the terminal to the nearest point of support should not exceed

a) 6 inchesb) 8 inchesc) 10 inches

29. The length of strapping supplied for use with a binding tool isa) 24 inchesb) 24 feetc) 12 inches

30. The size of a drain hole provided in a cable conduit should bea) ½ inchesb) 1/16 inchesc) 1/8 inches

31. Wire splices in a loom should be staggered to keep the looma) Of equal resistanceb) As small as possiblec) A standard capacitance

32. The resistance and continuity of a cartridge is tested usinga) Insulation testerb) Lamp and batteryc) Safety ohmmeter

33. The cartridge insulation test is carried out by connecting the testera) To all pins and the cartridge bodyb) Between connectionsc) To any connection and the cartridge body

34. When a cartridge is life expired thea) Cartridge and head are replaceb) Cartridge only is replacedc) Cartridge and extinguisher are replaced

35. A 250 V megger should never be used ona) AC motorsb) Lead acid batteriesc) Electronic equipment

36. Electrical symbols are found ina) Standard practicesb) Introductionc) Chapter 24 electrical power

37. Securing wire bundles information is found ina) Introductionb) Chapter 24 electrical powerc) Standard practices

38. Which type of diagram shows cable codes or wire numbers? a) Wiring diagram onlyb) Schematic diagramc) Both schematic and wirings diagram

39. Zone numbers which help to locate a particular component are found in a) Wiring diagram onlyb) Both schematic and wirings diagramc) Schematic diagram

40. Which part of the structural repair manual gives information on special protective treatments

a) Fuselage Chapter 53b) Wings Chapter 57c) Structures- General Chapter 51

41. An AVO meter measures AC square wave. What is indicated? a) True RMSb) Higher than RMSc) Lower than RMS

42. ATA 100 manual layout the airframe SYSTEM group occupiesa) 51-57b) 5-12c) 20-49

43. Which element in the ATA number 24-16-01 refers to the chapter? a) 24b) 01c) 16

44. Service bulletins are issued by thea) CAAb) Manufacturerc) Aircraft operator

45. In maintenance manual description and operation is covered in page blocka) 101-199b) 201-299c) 1-99

46. Overhaul manuals are compiled and supplied bya) The aircraft manufacturerb) The component manufacturerc) Chapter 24 Electrical Power

47. Securing wire bundles information is found ina) Introductionb) Chapter 24 electrical powerc) Standard practices

48. Which type of diagram shows cable codes or wire numbers? a) Wiring diagram onlyb) Schematic diagramc) Both schematic and wirings diagram

49. Zone numbers which help to locate a particular component are found ina) Wiring diagram onlyb) Both schematic and wirings diagramc) Schematic diagram

50. Which part of the structural repair manual gives information on special protective treatments

a) Fuselage Chapter 53b) Wings Chapter 57c) Structures- General Chapter 51

51. Overhaul manuals are compiled and supplied bya) The aircraft manufacturerb) The component manufacturerc) Chapter 24 Electrical Power

52. Bonding of metal for lightning strike on composite materialsa) Does not need bonding as frame is an insulatorb) Have cages with secondary bonding arrangementsc) Is bonded by connecting together with primary bonding connections

53. When using a bonding testera) The single probe is permanently connectedb) The dual probe is permanently connectedc) Both probes is permanently connected

54. Before conducting an insulation test all filaments should bea) Bridgedb) Removedc) Earthed

55. An acceptable resistance value for a galley lighting circuit isa) 2 mega ohmsb) 1 mega ohmsc) 5 mega ohms

56. To find details of electrical connector assembly you would refer toa) Chapter 20 and 91 of the appropriate manualb) Chapter 20 of the appropriate manualc) Chapter 20 and 94 of the appropriate manual

57. Standard circuit symbols will be found ina) ATA 200 specificationb) ATA 100 specificationc) British Standard 3939

58. In practice circuit symbols used in production of aircraft wiring diagrams willa) Always be found in aircraft maintenance manual chapter 20b) Always be found in standard specificationc) Normally be found in standard specification

59. The final element of a schematic wiring diagram will normally bea) Issue 1, 2, 3 etcb) Sheet 1, 2, 3c) 101, 201, 301 etc

60. A service bulletin with a red topa) Originates from company quality departmentb) Is an alert bulletin from the manufacturerc) Originates from CAA

61. Which of the following parts of an ATA 100 series code for wires and cables refers to an ATA chapter number

a) The wire numberb) The wire number prefixc) The code suffix letters

62. Two wires are connected to a common terminal. Which part of their ATA 100 wire codes will be different?

a) The segment letterb) The wire number prefixc) The wire number

63. If an ATA 100 wire code has a five digit wire number it means thata) The wire is part of parallel systemb) The wire is part of a very large systemc) The wire is not part of the system

64. If a wire has a V suffix it means that it is part ofa) An earth workb) A single phase systemc) A three phase system

65. Another name for a crimping barrel is a a) Bushb) Itonguec) Ferrule

66. A properly crimped cable should have good electricala) Resistanceb) Conductivityc) Insulation

67. A crimp barrel extension is provided to secure thea) Eye endb) Conductivityc) Insulation

68. Which of the following cables is most flexible throughout its temperature range? a) Efglasb) Unifire Fc) Tersil

69. Which of the following cables has a conductor of tinned copper strands? a) Tersilb) Nyvinc) Efglas

70. A cable is marked Tersil 22 the 22 refers toa) The current ratingb) The current/weight ratioc) The America Wire Gauge of the conductor

71. Which one of the following cables if heated excessively could give off toxic fumesa) Nyvinb) Efglasc) Tersil

72. Which of the following cables is most flexible throughout its temperature range? a) Unifire Fb) Tersilc) Efglas

73. Which of the following cables it has a conductor of tinned copper strandsa) Nyvinb) Efglasc) Tersil

74. Copper cables end fittings area) Fitted to aluminium cablesb) Not fitted to aluminium cablesc) Available in 4-10 Amp rangesonly

75. The preferred method of terminating cables isa) Solderingb) Clampingc) Crimping

76. Silver soldering may be used ona) Bonding jumper leadsb) EGT compensating leadsc) Gyroscoping instruments

77. The Nyvin type of cable used on aircraft will normally be used fora) High temperature areasb) High frequency circuitc) General wiring

78. When aluminium cables are being crimped it is essential to use an inhibitor toa) Prevent oxidationb) Form a bond between lug and cablec) Prevent interaction between metals

79. An AMP hand crimping tool has insulation adjustment pins. Position 1 indicatesa) Loosestb) Tightestc) Medium

80. The use of in-line splices in aircraft electrical circuits isa) Unrestricted provided the task is carried out using approved toolsb) Permitted in all circuits except fire and thermocouplesc) Restricted by an associated design authority

81. Crimping tools are periodically tested on the basis ofa) Elapsed calendar time onlyb) Elapsed calendar time or number of crimps performedc) A combination of numbers of crimps and the year of manufacturer of the tool

82. High voltage checks on identification marked thin walled cables are called for bya) BCAR section Jb) A civil airworthiness inspection procedurec) Airworthiness Notices

83. Aircraft cable identification purposes letter coding of cable manufacturer will be listed ina) British Standardsb) BCAR section Jc) BCAR section D or JAR 25

84. Aircraft cable current ratings go down when cables are mounted in looms becausea) Of high induced EMF’s between conductorsb) Conductor cores get hotter if cables are bunchedc) Insulation properties will be increased between conductors

85. A cable is marked 2426-0021 in ATA 100 series stylea) The cable is part of the air conditioning system’b) The cable is part of the fire warning systemc) The cable is part of the electrical circuits

86. When preparing cable for fixing terminations the conductor strands are twisteda) Tightly with pliersb) To reform the original layc) Tightly by hand

87. Cables should be marked at intervals of not more thana) 15 inches throughout their lengthb) 18 inches throughout their length and 6 inches at each endc) 15 inches throughout their length and 3 inches at each end

88. The spacing between any unscreened cable and any aerial lead should bea) 18 inchesb) 12 inchesc) 24 inches

89. If no tail connection is required the metal braid screening on cables should bea) Frayed turned back and bound with tinned copperb) Carefully cut offc) Pricked out folded lack and bound with copper

90. Crimped terminals are more satisfactory becausea) Less skill is required to make the connectionb) Special tools are not requiredc) Connections are stronger

91. A non-destructive testing technique which is suitable for light aluminum alloys isa) Magnetic flowb) Ultrasonicc) Electro-flux

92. When inspecting a component which is subjected to the hot fluid process, the examination for defects should be carried out

a) Immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinetb) When the item is quite hotc) When the item is quite cool

93. The NDT not used on austenitic steel is a) Magnetic fluxb) Electro fluxc) Dye penetrate

94. After completion of electro-magnetic crack detection, the test piece must bea) Allowed to cool room temperatures as slowly as possibleb) De-magnetized before returning to servicec) Allow to lose any residual magnetism over a long a period possible

95. When using dye penetrate at +4°Ca) The temperature has no effectb) The canister must be locally warmed before usec) The penetrate tends to precipitate




98. The NDT not used on austenitic steel isa) Magnetic fluxb) Electro fluxc) Dye penetrate



101. The higher the gauge number, the .................. the wire diameter. a) Largerb) Smallerc) Longer

102. PVC insulated wiring is no longer used due to its flammability and production of toxic gases, which are corrosive, during combustion.

a)b) Falsec) True

103. A fuse is wired in parallel with the circuit loada) Falseb) Truec)

104. The term ............ as applied to circuit breakers, means the breaker cannot be reset as long as the overload condition exists.

a) Trouble-freeb) Trip-freec) Won’t reset

105. Reed switch contacts open or close as a function of being placed in close proximity to a

a) Fluid substanceb) Electrical sourcec) Magnetic field

106. Hydraulic pressure can be restored bya) The use of a pressure/ heat exchangeb) Compressing the air charge in accumulatorc) Compressing the fluid in the reservoir

107. The purpose of an accumulator in a hydraulic system is toa) Collect air from the hydraulic fluid, thus reducing the requirement for frequent

bleedingb) Relieve excess pressurec) Store hydraulic fluid under pressure

108. If the hydraulic system accumulator has a low air pressure, it will causea) Rapid pressure fluctuations during operation servicesb) Rapid movement of the operating jacksc) Slow build up of pressure in the system

109. When checking a hydraulic accumulator initial air pressure, the hydraulic system pressure

a) Should be at the normal working pressureb) Should be releasedc) Is not important

110. If 1500 psi hydraulic pressure is pumped into an accumulator, with a pre-charge air pressure of 1000 psi the gauge will read

a) 2500 psib) 1000 psic) 1500 psi

111. If the insulation is split on a flexible hydraulic-pipe, the pipe is a) Unserviceable and must not be usedb) Serviceable and can remain in usec) Scrap

112. Bleeding of a hydraulic system is carried out a) To completely drain the systemb) To remove foreign matter from the systemc) To remove air from the system

113. In a hydraulic system, sluggish operation of the services may be caused bya) Air in systemb) Air in the accumulator at too high a pressurec) Air trapped in the reservoir under pressure

114. Hydraulic systems are normally flushed with a) Methylated spiritsb) The same type of hydraulic fluid as use in the systemc) Any clean hydraulic fluid

115. The symbol with the skull and crossbones attached to pipelines indicatesa) That these pipelines are only used to carry oxygenb) The such pipelines must never be used in pressurized areasc) The injury or damage could result if the laid down precautions are not observed

before disconnecting such a pipe

116. Some types of quill drive incorporate a wasted portion in their lengtha) To provide clearance of the splinesb) To allow the drive to shear in the event of component failurec) To keep the weight factor low

117. To check a flexible pipe for obstruction, fluid should be passed through the pipea) In direction of normal flow, at a pressure equivalent to 1.5 times normal working

pressureb) In the direction indicated on the outer casing at a pressure equal to a 12 inch head

of fluidc) In both directions, at a pressure equal to a 12 inch head of fluid

118. A liquid is said to be more viscous than anothera) When it offers more resistance to flow under the same condition than the otherb) When it offers less resistance to flow under the same condition than the otherc) When it will float on top of the other

119. In a variable delivery hydraulic pump, lubrication is provided bya) A self contained oil system from the engineb) An internal fluid bleed across the pumpc) Greased packed bearing

120. What would be used to check the bore of a flexible hydraulic pipea) A ball bearing 90% of the bore of the end fittingb) A ball bearing 95% of the bore of the pipec) A ball bearing 90% of the bore of the pipe

121. _____________ is used to identify bronze, it produces white powdera) Citric acidb) Nitric acidc) Phosphoric acid

122. ____ is used to identify aluminum, it turns black when copper is in alloy.a) Boric acidb) Nitric acidc) Caustic soda

123. The three principle types of hydraulic fluid (ester, mineral and vegetable) a) Are distinguishable by colourb) Are not distinguishable by colourc) Are distinguishable by colour only when they come from the same manufacturer

124. A high pressure relief valve, incorporated in a hydraulic system will operate ata) Normal working pressure to control the hydraulic pump output]b) A pressure higher than normal working pressure, if the normal pressure limiting

devicec) Less than normal working pressure, to prevent over loading the hydraulic pump

125. A hydraulic metering valve, or one way restrictor, in a hydraulic systema) Meters the flow in both directionsb) Allows to flow in one direction onlyc) Gives full flow in one direction and restricted flow in the opposite direction

126. Adding too much accelerator to a composite mix willa) Have no effect on its strengthb) Decrease the mix strengthc) Increase the mix strength

127. What material is used for cargo bay linersa) Nomexb) Kevlarc) Resin reinforced fibre glass

128. What does an embossed ring on the head of a bolt indicate? a) High tensile steel, cold forgedb) Low tensile steelc) High tensile steel, machined

129. Normalizing of solid rivets used in the construction of metal airplanes require heat treatment at temperature of

a) 359 ± 5°Fb) 495 ± 5°Cc) 495 ± 5°F

130. What is the indication of fretting corrosion on aluminum alloy? a) White powderb) Brown powderc) Black powder

131. What chemical is used to identify aluminum alloya) Copper sulphateb) Caustic sodac) Nitric acid

132. When is a locking plate used as a locking device in preference to a tab washer? a) When the nut is removed from an inaccessible placeb) When the nut is removed infrequentlyc) When the nut is removed frequently

133. An aluminum alloy, snap head rivet, violet anodic finish with the identification 'O' has a material specification

a) L 86b) L 18c) L 37

134. Alclad can be identified by usinga) Nitric acidb) Caustic sodac) Selenious acid

135. Civil aircraft manufactured in the UK are constructed from parts that have beena) Tested to destructionb) Manufactured by British Aerospacec) Manufactured to approved drawings

136. Corrosion on aluminum: Remove with nylon brush, neutralize with _____________, protect with aluchrome 1200 and paint 2 layers of zinc chromate.

a) Citric acidb) Phosphoric acidc) Nitric acid

137. To remove corrosion from steel use a wire brush anda) Boric acidb) Nitric acidc) Caustic soda

138. For corrosion on _________ use 2 oz chromic & 2 drops of sulphuric acida) Magnesiumb) Titaniumc) Aluminium

139. _____ ____on aluminum alloy produces black and on steel brown powdera) Filiform corrosionb) Freeting corrosionc) Exfoliation corrosion

140. Filiform corrosion is/area) Layers of corrosionb) Dissimilar corrosionc) Worm casts

141. Exfoliation corrosion is/area) Worm castsb) Layers of corrosionc) Fretting corrosion

142. Inter granular corrosion is caused by false heat treatment. On stainless steel exhaust to detect

a) Measure tensile strengthb) Test material hardnessc) Measure magnetic permeability

143. Crevice corrosion due bad design anda) Bad sealingb) Wrong heat treatmentc) To close spacing

144. On aluminum corrosion remove corrosion with aluminum woola) And steel woolb) But no steel woolc) And a wire bush

145. After aluminum corrosion is removed treat first witha) Paintb) Sealantc) Aluchrome 1200

146. Less noble material is anodized duea) Filiform corrosionb) Dissimilar corrosionc) Fretting corrosion

147. Standard Aircraft paint is _________ painta) Dopedb) Enamelc) Polyeurethan

148. Acid paint remover is ____________ on Aircraftsa) Not allowedb) Allowedc)

149. _____________ paint remover on composite materiala) You may useb) Do not usec)

150. Prior to install a de-iced boot roughen surface and clean witha) Acetoneb) Varsolc) MEK

151. Control cables 7x7 or 7x19 are lubed with ________ based lubea) Carbonb) Lanolinc) Ester

152. Control cable spool is ___ times diameter of cablea) 20b) 25c) 40

153. Preload a control cable by ___ and cut with a chisela) 50%b) 150%c) 200%

154. Load proof of chains is ___ of max loada) 75%b) ½c) 50%

155. To check if rollers in chain are seized, checka) Use magnifying glassb) Individual rollersc) Deformation of teeth

156. Chains have no quick detach they are riveted or bolted. Maximum elongation isa) 10%b) 2%c) 5%

157. Chains must not be twisted. To change direction use aa) Revision linkb) Pulleyc) Bi-planar block

158. Blue bearingsa) Are overheatedb) Are acceptablec) Must be x-rayed

159. Brown bearingsa) Are overheatedb) Are acceptablec) Must be x-rayed

160. Radial load = journal load bearings are e.g. a) Brass bearingsb) Needle bearingsc) Wheel bearings

161. Thrust bearing carrya) Radial loadb) Axial loadc) Torque load

162. 'Fill in slot' in bearing ________ the load carrying capacitya) Equalizeb) Increasec) Decrease

163. V-marks on bearing meana) Bearing comes in set of 2 or 3b) Bearing can be used for axial and radial loadc) Bearing is for high rotational speed

164. Dots on bearings: 1 to 5 dots define _________ of bearinga) Hardnessb) Oversizec) Load capacity

165. Pipes: bend radii is ____ times diametera) 4-5b) 2-3c) 3-4

166. Flareless B-Nut tighten by hand plus 1/6 to 1/3. Pressure test is _______ working pressure.

a) Same asb) 1.5 timesc) 2 times

167. A ___ diameter steel ball must pass on pipesa) 75%b) 90%c) 80%

168. A ___ diameter steel ball must pass on a flex hosea) 90%b) 80%c) 75%

169. Hose must be _______________ distancea) 5% longer thanb) 3% longer thanc) the same length as the

170. Leather must not be used near pipesa) Because it will not skydrol resistanceb) It is not strong enough for clampsc) Because of corrosion

171. UK flare is 32° on British AGS union. US flare isa) 60°b) 37°c) 50°

172. Flaring tool: pipe musta) Extend the cone by 2%b) Extend the cone by 2mmc) Be flush with cone

173. Bending tubes: Fusible alloy to bend (100°C) lubricate before using with _______. Block bottom and pour melted fusible alloy and immerse in water - let bubbles out.

a) Oilb) Naphtac) Kerosene

174. Tank sealant use PR1431 for surface & PR1422 for filling ; A=_____ B=____ , ½ must be worked within ½ hour. Cover with EC776 rejuvenator.

a) A = Thick, B = Softb) A = Soft, B = Thickc) A = hard in 1 hour, B = hard in 2 hours

175. Taper pins are used in tubular sections - _____ reamers are used for holesa) Adjustableb) Standardc) Tapered

176. Rivets: A rivet = generic for cabin = plain ; AD rivet 2117 Alu = dimple ; D rivet 2017 Alu = raised dot ;

a) DD rivet 2024 Alu = raised circleb) DD rivet 2024 Alu = 2 raised dashesc) DD rivet 2024 Alu = raised X

177. D & DD rivets need to be heat treated maxa) Onceb) 2 timesc) 3 times

178. Solution treat rivets and drive withina) 2 hoursb) 3 hoursc) 90 minutes

179. MS20470AD5-12 is mil std 20470 is head shape ; AD = 2117 Alu ; ____ dia ; 12/16" length.

a) 5/8”b) 5/32”c) 5/16”

180. Rivet size is __ x metal gaugea) 2b) 2.5c) 3

181. Rivet length is total thickness plus allowance. The allowance depends on a) The materialb) The type of shop headc) The required strength

182. Reaction and snap area) 1 Db) 2 Dc) 1.5 D

183. Snap on countersink isa) 0.75 Db) 0.8 Dc) 1 D

184. AVDEL rivets area) Jo-boltsb) Pop rivetsc) Deutsch rivets

185. British rivets have e.g.a) Dimplesb) Dotc) Colour coding

186. To drill holes for cutting thread use ______________ for drill size to drill hole

a) Caliperb) Zeus book or tablec) Ruler

187. Cutting thread: BA = British Association Tab hasa) 4 tabsb) 3 tabsc) only 2 instead of 3

188. Max bow of a straight tubular member isa) 1:600b) 1:500c) 1:800

189. Carbon is added to steel toa) Increase ductilityb) Increase hardnessc) Decrease brittleness

190. TIG welding Tungsten Inert Gas welding or MIG use e.g. a) Oxygen as inert gasb) Hydrogen as inert gasc) Argon as inert gas

191. Soldering: 60% lead & 40% tin plus flux. Soldering iron tip is made ofa) Brassb) Copperc) Steel

192. Silver solder is used for ____________ it consists of tin, lead, antimony and silver

a) General purpose solderb) Low temp solderc) High temp solder

193. Brazing: Stick together anda) Fill gapsb) Weld togetherc) Use inert gas to prevent oxidation

194. O2 cylinders for welding are black and hoses are blue - Acetylene cyl are maroon and have _______ and hose is red.

a) Withword threadb) LH threadc) RH thread

195. Nitrogen bottles are grey with a black neck - air bottles area) Black with a white collarb) Bluec) gray

196. Nitrogen for tires is required for aircrafta) Over 2730 kgb) Over 5700 kgc) Over 13, 600 kg

197. O2 filling station may be LH thread ; O2 cyl is ____________________ for A/C use

a) Black and has a silver neckb) Green and has a white neckc) Black and has a white neck

198. Duraluminum is Alu-copper alloy = hard ; y-alloy of aluminum is used fora) Pistonsb) Gearsc) Flexible brackets

199. 2024 = alu/copper ; 7075 = Alu/Zinc ; T2 = _______ ; heat treatment T2 to T10a) Age hardenedb) Annealedc) Surface hardened

200. Alu patches: Solution treat rivets and drive within ________, heat maximum ________.

a) 2 hours and 2 timesb) 3 hours and 2 timesc) 2 hour and 3 times

201. Testing Alu use 10% caustic soda a) Duraluminum turns white and aluminum turns blackb) Aluminum turns white and duraluminum turns blackc) Aluminum turns brown and duraluminum turns black

202. To identify steel use copper sulphate a) Steel turns black and stainless does not changeb) Stainless steel turns red and steel does not changec) Steel turns red and stainless does not change

203. To identify bronze use Nitric acid a) It has white precipitationb) It has golden precipitationc) It bubbles

204. After cold working use __________ to relief stress a) Age hardeningb) Normalizingc) Tempering

205. Heat treatment: Anneal = ______, ______ & Temper a) Increase brittleness and increase ductilityb) Harden and softenc) Soften and harden

206. Brinell, Rockwell & Vickers are hardness test methods. Brinell test uses aa) Diamondb) Ballc) Cone

207. When installing V-clamps. Re-inspect for a) Proper nut usedb) Proper gapc) Proper seating of seal

208. Split pins and tab washers can be reused a) Neverb) After inspectionc) Only once

209. _________ is maximum length of unsupported safety wire a) 2.5 inchb) 3 inchc) 4 inch

210. Drilling titanium use a) Low feed and low speedb) High speed and low feedc) High feed and low speed

211. __ teeth minimum should always contact when using a hack saw. Teeth should point forward.

a) 4b) 3c) 5

212. Hack saw blades are measured ina) Teeth per metreb) Teeth per cmc) Teeth per inch

213. Chalk when used with a file a) Gives a fine finishb) Gives a gray colourc) Make less noise

214. Taper ratio for large drills is a) 1:50b) 1:20c) 1:30

215. If large drills do not fit in machine a) Lathe drill shaft till it fitsb) Use an extensionc) use morse adapter

216. Store rubber away froma) Motors and air conditioningb) Motors and lightc) Air conditioning and light

217. Rate of cooling and temperature are _________ points of heat treatment a) Are non-essentialb) Non-criticalc) The critical

218. A caliper with a scale is in inches 0.1" and in 40th 0.025" ; Main scale divisions = 0.6" (24 x 0.025) = 24/25 is

a) An Old English Caliperb) A New English Caliperc) A metric caliper

219. A caliper with 49/25 - 1.2 : 25 is a) Old English Caliperb) The current English Caliper System

220. New English Caliper is a) 24/25b) 49/25c) 49/50

221. Metric micrometer accuracy is a) 0.002mm 49/50b) 0.02mm 49/50c) 0.2mm 49/50

222. Micrometer: Barrel is _____ and thimble ______ a) Fixed and floatsb) Turns and fixedc) Fixed and turns

223. A metric micrometer has ___ on thimble a) 50b) 40c) 30

224. Calipers and Micrometers are calibrated a) Every 12 monthb) Every 6 monthc) Every 8 month

225. Calipers and Micrometers prior to use a) Use test pieceb) Assure temperature is within normal rangec) Check for 0 alignment

226. Internal micrometers (stick micrometers) expand and have a) T-handleb) Replaceable extension rodsc) Replaceable gap rods

227. Drawings: For latest drawing see design companiesa) General drawing bookb) Drawing bookc) Master drawing book

228. British Standard for drawings is a) BS 308b) BS 328c) BS 318

229. A drawing has 4 signatures: Drawer, Stress engineer, double check for stress & a) Design engineerb) Approvalc) Company

230. A drawing must have: Title, Drawing number, issue number and a) CAA approvalb) Issuing companyc) Date of issue

231. Any changes to a drawing must be accompanied by a new issue number and a) Approvalb) Datec) Old issue number

232. Drawings: In all cases where interchangeability is affected _____ drawing is required

a) A new drawing may be usedb) No newc) A new

233. Orthographic projection -single part- ha minimum ________ views for drawings a) 2 dimensionb) 3 dimensionc) 1 dimension

234. First angle orthographic projection = UK looking from _____ unfolded a) Topb) Frontc) Left

235. US Plan view is from a) Leftb) Frontc) Top

236. Sections have hatching lines a) At 60° spaced 4mmb) At 45° spaced 4mmc) At 45° spaced 6mm

237. Third orthographic projection is topa) Leftb) In frontc) On top

238. Pictorial drawing: Oblique is a) 30°, 40°, 60°b) 30°-30°c) 30°-70°

239. Pictorial drawing: Isometric is a) 30°-70°b) 30°-30°c) 30°, 40°, 60°

240. Dimension line in new system number is a) Below lineb) Above linec) On line

241. Information about NDT is found in a) AWN 45b) AWN 94c) AWN 96

242. Dye check with field kit only , Temp limit is a) Above 0°Cb) 4°Fc) 4°C

243. Dye check: on a pressure vessel spray penetrate a) Inside and developer on outsideb) Outside and developer insidec) Outside and developer outside

244. After penetrate has been cleaned off apply developer and check for crack anda) Make a decisionb) Recheck after 20 minutesc) Recheck after 5 minutes

245. Magnetic particle check fluid is a) Engine oilb) Kerosenec) Paraffin oil

(For question no 246 – 250, please refer to this diagram)

246. The Point angle of a standard drill isa) 118° on either side of centreb) 59° on either side of centrec) 70° on either side of centre

247. Drill size E isa) 3/8 inchb) 5/15 inchc) ¼ inch

248. The chisel edge angle is a) 125 to 135°b) 118°c) 59° on either side

249. The lip relief angle or heel angle is a) 25 to 25°b) 12 to 15°c) 6 to 10°

250. If large drills do not fit in machine a) Lathe drill shaft till it fitsb) Use an extensionc) use morse adapter

251. What is the purpose of the cutting edge on the flute of a drill? a) To assist in coolingb) To reduce frictionc) To prevent drilling oversize holes

252. When filing _________ gives a fine finish.a) Light oilb) Talcumc) Chalk

253. Taper ratio of larger drills is a) 1:20b) 1:30c) 1:40

254. ______________ on a bearing 1 to 5 define over size of bearing. a) X-esb) Dotsc) Dashes

255. For radial load or journal load a ______________ is used. a) Shoulder bushingb) Thrust bearingc) Wheel bearing

256. For weight and balance passengers, cargo and fuel are a) Variable loadb) Disposable loadc) Basic weight

257. For weight and balance crew and special equipment are part ofa) Basic weightb) Disposable loadc) Variable load

258. For weight and balance aircraft and basic equipment are part of a) Basic weightb) Disposable loadc) Variable load

259. The leads of a bonding tester a) Are standard leadsb) Have critical lengthc) Must be colour coded

260. TIG and MIG welding: IG stands for ______________ welding.a) Intense gasb) Isolated groupc) Inert gas

261. Maintenance action which brings units to approved standard to extend operation life is

a) Repairb) Overhaulc) Modification

262. Maintenance action which restores units to a serviceable condition as per an approved standard is

a) Modificationb) Overhaulc) Repair

263. Examination of a unit to establish conformity with approved specification isa) Inspectionb) Controllingc) Checking

264. Removal and replacement of an approved part is a) Repairb) Replacementc) Renewal

265. Another word for modification isa) Renewalb) Overhaulc) Alteration

266. Stress is thea) Indicate the aircraft has reached Mach 1b) Load per unit area acting on a materialc) Permit a high rate of descent from cruise level, in emergency

267. A symmetrical airfoil accelerating through Mach 1. The shock wave formsa) At the leading edge and moves to the highest point of the chamberb) At the leading edge and moves to the trailing edgec) On top and bottom surface and moves aft to the trailing edge

268. A symmetrical airfoil accelerating through Mach 1. The shock wave formsa) At the highest chamber on both upper and lower surfaces, then travels rearwards

to the trailing edgeb) At the leading edge, then travels along the upper surface to the trailing edgec) At the leading edge, then travels along the lower surface to the trailing edge

269. The effect at high speed of vortex generators fitted to the upper surface of an airfoil is

a) Increase M crit.b) To promote mixing in the boundary layer and delay boundary layer separationc) To reduce sensitivity to strong gusts

270. On subsonic aircraft when approaching M crit.a) The C of P moves forward causing nose to pitch upb) Aircraft altitude does not changec) The C of P moves rearward causing a nose down pitch

271. The web angle of a twist drill isa) 59°b) 130°c) 12°

272. Buttress threads are useda) Transmit power in both directionsb) On nuts and boltsc) To transmit power in one direction

273. The electroplating process that forms oxide film on the surface of aluminium alloy is known as

a) Anodizingb) Galvanizingc) Electroplating

274. The Vernier Height Gauge uses the same principle as the a) Micrometerb) Vernier caliperc) Bevel protractor

275. Design drawings of aircraft components are produced by organizations approved by

a) SBACb) British Standard Institutec) CAA in accordance with BCAR

276. Reamers are used toa) Drill accurate holesb) Enlarge holes to an accurate dimensionc) To make holes oversize

277. Expanding reamers are used to reama) Holes in metal that as been heatedb) Tapered holesc) Holes of different diameters by adjusting the position of the blades

278. Multi-Start threadsa) Increase the lead without increasing the pitchb) Increase the lead and pitchc) Increase the lead and decrease the pitch

279. Pure aluminium isa) Not resistance to corrosionb) Highly resistant to corrosionc) Reasonably resistant to corrosion

280. Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing, are painteda) Grey with a white collarb) Black with grey collarc) Black with white collar

281. Hatching lines are usually drawn ata) 60°b) 45°c) 70°

282. If a design amendment is made on a drawinga) No change in issue number or date is necessaryb) The old issue number is retained, with the amendment date addedc) A new issue number and date must be allocated to the drawing

283. In third angle projections, each viewa) Represents the side of the object nearest to it in the adjacent viewb) Is drawn with the axis inclined, usually at 30°c) Represents the side of the object removed from it in the adjacent view

284. Which pictorial projection one face in true elevation and lines in depth normally drawn 30° or 45° to the horizontal

a) Perspectiveb) Obliquec) Isometric

285. A spring washer is useda) With a tab washerb) By itselfc) With a plain washer

286. Nickel alloy steel split pins can be used,a) Repeatedly provided they remain a good fitb) Only once because the legs are spread and bentc) With a spring washer and stiff nut

287. One revolution of the thimble of the English Micrometer produces a linear movement of the spindle of

a) 0.001 inb) 0.040 inc) 0.025 in

288. The pitch of a metric micrometer screw thread isa) 0.5mmb) 0.2mmc) 1.0mm

289. The thimble of a metric micrometer is divided intoa) 25 equal divisionsb) 50 equal divisionsc) 40 equal divisions

290. The standard taper isa) 1:20b) 1:600c) 1:46

291. ATA Specification 100 is thea) American FAA specification and controlling the manufacturer of aluminum and

its alloysb) International standardization of manuals, illustrated parts catalogue, overhaul and

repair manuals, service bulletins and lettersc) Procedures which must be complied with before an aircraft can be given a C of A

in the transport category (passengers)

292. When wiring an electrical component to a plug, the live wire is coloureda) Green/yellowb) Bluec) Brown

293. When lifting a bulky component with a wire rope sling, the component can be protected from damage by the sling by

a) Using a spreader bars and packingb) Using a suitable shaped slingc) Fabricating alternative lifting points

294. A dry powder extinguisher is coloureda) Redb) Bluec) Green

295. A pre-load indicating washer is correctly located whena) The inner ring is rotatedb) The inner ring is grippedc) The outer ring is gripped

296. When torque loading, a wrench should be selected where required value falls at the

a) Bottom of the rangeb) Top end of the rangec) Middle of the range

297. Torque loading is carried out to providea) As tight as possibleb) Flexibilityc) Sufficient clamping without overstressing

298. High temperature solder consists of a) Tin/lead/antimony/silverb) Lead/copper/antimonyc) Tin/zinc/antimony/silver

299. Acetylene gas forms an explosive compound witha) Tin and silverb) Copper and silverc) Tin and copper

300. A flux is used in soldering toa) Etch the metals surface for more adhesionb) Prevent solder spikesc) Dissolve oxides

301. When manufacturing aircraft control cables, the cable should be cut bya) A hack saw with the cable under tensionb) Using a chisel on a flat metal surfacesc) Oxy-acetylene torch

302. When fitting a ball bearing to a shaft it should be carefully positioned usinga) A soft steel or brass tube driftb) A steel drift with light blowsc) A soft steel brass tube drift

303. A roller bearing is cleaned by soaking and swilling ina) White spiritb) Trichloroethetylenec) Petroleum spirit

304. To allow for shrinking, vibration and whip all straight hoses must bea) 2% longer than distance between fittingsb) 3% longer than distance between fittingsc) 5% longer than distance between fittings

305. A feather key locates a gear on a shaft and permitsa) A positive and strong drive for transmissionb) Positive drive with the gear firmly lockedc) Positive drive and axial movement

306. What is the purpose of the developer in a dye penetrate inspection?a) It is drawn to crack by electrostatic attractionb) It acts as a blotter to draw out the penetrate has seeped into the crackc) It seeps into the crack and makes it show up

307. What action is taken to protect integral tanks from corrosion due to micro-biological growth?

a) The inside of the tank is coated with yellow chromateb) Rubber liners are installed in the tanksc) A biocidal additive is used in the fuel

308. What action should be taken on finding inter granular corrosion?a) Replace complete component partb) De-corrode and re-protectc) Renew corroded area by patching

309. Corrosion may be regarded as the destruction of metal bya) Electro-mechanical actionb) Electro-chemical actionc) Hydro-electro action

310. Tempering steel givesa) Greater brittlenessb) Greater hardnessc) Relief of internal stress after hardening

311. When dissimilar metals are brought together, or the same metal in different states, one metal forms the anode and the other the cathode. Which one will suffer from corrosion?

a) The cathodeb) The anodec) Both will corrode equally

312. After welding, stainless steel is susceptible to corrosion known asa) Weld deteriorationb) Weld rotc) Weld decay

313. Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed toa) High temperatureb) Dry climatesc) Cold climates

314. Select the metal on which corrosion forms a greenish filma) Aluminum and its alloyb) Copper and its alloyc) Titanium and its alloy

315. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion is

a) Trans granulationb) Electrolysisc) Exfoliation

316. The artificial production of a film of hydroxide on the surface of aluminum or any of its alloys is commonly called

a) Alodizingb) Anodizingc) Parco lubrizing

317. Inter granular corrosion in structural aluminum alloy partsa) Is not likely to occur in parts fabricated from heat-treated sheet aluminumb) May be detected by white powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metal’c) Cannot always be detected by surface indications

318. Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal contact my be best prevented bya) Priming both surfaces with a light coat of zinc chromate primerb) Applying a non-porous dielectric material between the surfacesc) Special precautions are not required if they are properly bonded

319. Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the result ofa) Excessive anodizationb) Contact between two unlike metalsc) The wrong quenching agent

320. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries of aluminum alloys which are improperly or inadequately heat treated?

a) Surfaceb) Stressc) Inter granular

321. The main advantage of dye penetrate inspection is thea) Part is to be inspected does not require cleaningb) Penetrate solution works on any non-porous materialc) Defect must be opened to the surface

322. In order for dye penetrate to be effective, the material being checked musta) Be non-magneticb) Be magneticc) Have surface cracks

323. Which of the following metals can be inspected using magnetic particle check? a) Iron alloysb) Aluminum alloysc) Magnesium alloys

324. In the fluorescent penetrate crack test, what period should elapse between applying the developer and viewing?

a) 5 minutesb) 15 minutesc) 10 minutes

325. How are defects indicated in the dye penetrate crack detection test?a) Yellowish green marksb) Green lines and dotsc) Red lines on a white background

326. The British standard for engineering drawings isa) B.S. 306b) B.S. 308c) B.S. 309

327. Third angle orthographic projection has the plana) Above the side elevationb) Below the front elevationc) Above the front elevation

328. Bonding is the connection of a cable from the fuel lorry toa) The approved bonding point on the aircraftb) A grounding rod in the rampc) The aircraft wing

329. Grounding is the connection of a cable from the fuel lorry toa) The aircraft wingb) A grounding rod in the rampc) The approved bonding point on the aircraft

330. A dead man control in fueling is a device thata) Holds the fueling hose in placeb) Opens the fuel panelc) Controls the fuel flow

331. The effects of frozen precipitation adhering to an aircraft area) Degraded aerodynamic performanceb) Both answer are correctc) Degraded instrument indication

332. Frost, Ice, Snow and Slush will destroy the capability of an airfoil to createa) Heatb) Dragc) Lift

333. De-icing is the _________ of frozen precipitation from aircraft critical surfacesa) Removalb) Protectionc) Correction

334. Another word for anti-icing isa) Removalb) Protectionc) Correction

335. Glycol testers test thea) Outside air temperatureb) Viscosity of the fluidc) Freeze point of the fluid

336. When de-icing an aircraft, frozen precipitation is removed or melted by thea) Alcohol in the glycolb) Heat and pressurec) Anti icing fluid

337. Types II and IV fluids in a two step de/anti-icing at 100% are used fora) Both de and anti icingb) De-icingc) Anti-icing

338. Holdover time beginsa) When starting the second step in a two step de/anti-icingb) When de-icing beginsc) When anti-icing is completed

339. Anti-icing fluid is always applied toa) The wings onlyb) A clean aircraftc) All aircraft during the de-icing season

340. A means to check for clear ice on a wing is to perform aa) Blank checkb) Cockpit checkc) Tactile check

341. Corrosion which attacks the crystals of the metal is calleda) Filiform corrosionb) Inter granular corrosionc) Surface corrosion

342. The three phases of eliminating corrosion area) Cleaning, treatment and rinsingb) Removal, treatment and rinsingc) Cleaning, removal and treatment

343. Microbiological corrosion is usually presenta) In tanksb) In the cabinc) At the rivets of the lower fuselage

344. The most corroded part in galvanic corrosion isa) The most noble materialb) The less noble materialc) At zero potential

345. Corrosion by erosion and cavitations is caused bya) Increases velocity and decrease pressure pittingb) Frettingc) Movement of fluid

346. Passivation is what kind of protection type?a) Electro-chemicalb) Chemicalc) Heat treatment

347. Cathodes protection consists ofa) Creating a layer of aluminumb) Applying a layer of phosphatec) Deviating a galvanic element

348. One of the three corrosion protection methods is not a chemical processa) Anodic oxidationb) Passivationc) inhibition

349. Dye penetrate is used fora) Passivationb) NDT testingc) Anodic oxidation

350. Ultrasonic is useda) To detect blockingsb) For measurementc) To detect cracks

351. The tap test is used to detecta) Corrosionb) Debonding or bad assembling of compositesc) Water in a composite structure

352. An eddy current NDT detection system uses for indicationa) A plotterb) A photoc) An oscilloscope

353. For which of the following tests paint stripping is not requireda) Eddy currentb) A normal dye penetrate checkc) An ultra violet light dye penetrate check

354. MTOM meansa) Mean Take Off Massb) Maximum Take Off Massc) Maximum Taxi Operating Mass

355. Basic Mass consists ofa) Airplane + Crew + Baggageb) Airplane + Fuel + Loadc) Airplane + Crew + Load

Module 7.7 Electrical Cables and Connectors 1 3 3

356. Using a testmeter on an anodised parta) anodic film does not need to be removedb) consider resistance of anodic filmc) always remove the anodic film

357. The minimum bonding for secondary structure isa) 1 ohmb) 0.05 ohmc) 0.005 ohms

358. To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be sprayed witha) metallic paintb) enamelc) aluminium paint

359. To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry outa) use a meggerb) use a bonding meterc) a continuity check

360. The maximum bonding resistance on a primary stucture a) should be 0.05 ohmsb) should be 0.5 ohmsc) should be 1 ohm

361. One megohm is a) 1,000 ohmsb) 100,000 ohmsc) 1000,000 ohms

362. The leads of a bonding testera) are made of cromel and alumelb) have critical length and their resistance must be consideredc) have critical no length and their resistance does not need to be considered

363. The test equipment normally used to carry out a continuity test on an electrical cable is

a) a low reading ohmmeterb) a meggerc) a bonding meter

364. If all the prongs of a bonding meter were held together a) this should not be done, as it would destry the meterb) the meter would read full scale rightc) the meter would read zero

365. The leads of an ohmmeter should be replaced if their resistance is greater thana) 0.5 ohmsb) 1 ohmc) 1.5 ohms

366. The resistance between a flexible hose and a component should not exceeda) 1 ohmb) 0.5 ohmsc) 0.05 ohms

367. The bonding resistance of primary structure isa) 0.05 ohmb) 0.5 ohmsc) 1 ohms

368. Before using a bonding tester, the 6 foot lead has the two prongs shorted together with a piece of metal. What would the the indicator read?

a) The needle is centeredb) Zero to the leftc) Full scale to the right

369. In order to maintain HIRF protection, bonding tests between airframe and electrical components carrying voltages greater than 50V RMS ac or dc should not exceed

a) 0.05 ohmsb) 0.5 ohmsc) 1 ohm

370. What is the maximum resistance between the main earth system and a metal plate on which the earth device is resting?

a) 1 kiloohm / 10 megohmb) 1 megohm / 10 megohmc) 0.5 ohms / kiloohm

371. What is the primary purpose of bonding of metallic parts of an aircrafta) To ground the chasisb) To earthen the metallic parts c) To prevent high potential differences between metallic parts

372. What is the reason for a primary bonding connection of a large cross-sectional area?

a) To provide a better bondingb) To carry lightening discharge if neededc) To improve insulation

373. When an engine is not in direct electrical contact with its mounting, it should be bonded

a) With at least 2 primary connectors, one each side of the engineb) With at least 3 primary connectorsc) With at least one primary connector

374. When carrying out a serviceability check on a bonding tester short together the three prongs of both probes and assure the reading is

a) Centeredb) Infinityc) Zero

375. When an earth return terminal assembly has to be replaced which check must be carried out

a) Bonding testb) Bonding and multivolt testc) Multivolt drop test

376. If the leads of a bonding tester are damaged, what is the procedurea) Replace leads onlyb) Leads should be replaced and testedc) Leads and tester should be returned to manufacturer for repair and calibration

377. If bridging strips or bonding cards are fractured, what action should be taken?a) A new conductor should be fittedb) Should be replaced and testedc) Should be returned to manufacturer for repair calibration

378. When carrying out a multi-volt drop check on a circuit, what is an approximate reading?

a) 2 mV for every 10 A flowingb) 3 mV for every 10 A flowingc) 5 mV for every 10 A flowing

379. Why is a low voltage supply used for continuity testing?a) To have less current flowb) High voltage may destroy the unitc) For breaking down a high resistance film that might exist between contacting

surfaces

380. When refueling an aircraft from a tanker, why are the aircraft and the tanker bonded together?

a) For lightening strike protectionb) To maintain aircraft and tanker on the same electrical potentialc) This is not sufficient, they must also be grounded

381. Effective continuity is not possible unlessa) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple parallel circuit with no

series portsb) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple parallel circuit c) The portion of the circuit under test constitute a simple series circuit with no

parallel ports

382. How would you reduce or remove electrostatic charges which may build up on fibre glass surfaces?

a) By using bonding studsb) By using a special conductive paintc) By imbedding a grounding wire mesh

383. When replacing a bonding connection and the original connector cannot be matched exactly

a) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, but with a greater cross-sectional area

b) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, same sizec) Use one manufactured from the same type of material, but with a smaller cross-

sectional area

384. If an insulation resistance tester is operated and the leads are suspended in free air, what will it read

a) Centeredb) Zeroc) Infinity

385. An insulation test is carried out on a group of cables and a low reading is obtained

a) Low reading is normal on a group of cablesb) Break down the circuit and do further checksc) You cannot test a group of cables

386. What is a typical minimum insulation resistance value of an aircraft undercarriage bay?

a) 0.5 megohmsb) 1 megohmc) 2 megohms

387. Immediately after carrying out an insulation check, which of the following applies

a) The reading observed and the atmospheric conditions at the time should be noted and compared to the previous reading

b) Atmospheric conditions play only a role in air data computer related circuitsc) Atmospheric conditions do not play a role in insulation testing

388. When carrying out a continuity test on a circuit when a known resistance exists, what instrument would you use?

a) Meggerb) Ammeterc) An ohmmeter

389. Whenever using a megger to test insulation resistance, capacitive filters should be disconnected for what reason?

a) They do not need to be disconnectedb) To prevent capacitive influence on readingc) To prevent damage to filters

390. An open circuit on an ohmmeter would indicatea) Centeredb) Infinite resistancec) Zero

391. Which electrical measuring device needs a power source?a) Ammeterb) Voltmeterc) Ohmmeter

392. When measuring voltage or current with a digital multimeter, the indication is a) Max valuesb) RMS valuesc) Normal values

393. On a multimeter, what colour lead is connected to the common socket?a) Blackb) Red c) Blue

394. A voltage drop across a component is measured by placing a meter ina) Parallel to the voltage sourceb) In series with the componentc) In parallel with the component

395. An ohmmeter can measure ac because it has aa) AC coilb) Bridge rectifierc) Moving iron vane

396. Insulation resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheel wells should normally be not less than

a) 0.5 megohmsb) 1 megohmc) 2 megohms

397. A 250 Volt megger should not be used a) On electronic equipmentb) In wheel wellsc) On capacitive equipment

398. If the leads of a megger are held apart if the handle was turned it would reada) Centeredb) Zeroc) Infinity

399. When measuring current in a circuit, the ammeter is placeda) In parallel to the power sourceb) In parallel to the circuitc) In series

400. Unused holes in an electrical multi-pin connector should be a) Left emptyb) Fitted with blanksc) Sealed

401. In a front release connector the pin will bea) Released from the rear and extracted from the frontb) Released from the front and extracted from the front c) Released from the front and extracted from the rear

402. The number of dots impressed on the insulation of the pre-insulated connectors during crimping indicates

a) One dot is ok, more than one dot is no-go!b) The correct tool was used to effect the connectionc) The incorrect tool was used to effect the connection

403. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool can be changed by

a) Changing the positions of the pinsb) By using the adjustment screwc) By changing the head only

404. A hole in the lowest part of an electrical cable conduit isa) To be sealed with sealantb) To allow ventilationc) To allow drainage of moisture

405. The minimum distance between electrical cable splices isa) 50mmb) 500mmc) 10cm

406. When clamping cable looms containing co-axial cablesa) They must be routed separatelyb) They are handled like all other cablesc) Avoid distortions to maintain the dielectric constant

407. When fitting co-axial cable connectors it is importanta) Not to damage any seals fittedb) To seal them with sealantc) To install the bonding wires

408. Ribbon cables affected by mutual impedance and current loop leakage should be protected by

a) By using RF filtersb) By using bridgesc) Earth each alternate conductor to separate points

409. What is the minimum bend radius of loom adequately supported at a terminal block?

a) 2xb) 2.5xc) 3x

410. If a co-axial cable clamp is over tightened so as to compress the dielectric, capacitance

a) Increasesb) Decreasesc) Remains unchanged

411. What is the minimum bend radius of a single co-axial cable?a) 6 x diameterb) 8 x diameterc) 10 x diameter

412. What is wet arc tracking?a) Submerged cable routingb) A fault caused by insulation damage and fluid contaminationc) Improve area insulation

413. When inserting pins into a forward facing connector the inserting tool should be used with the gap facing

a) The outside of the connectorb) The inside of the connectorc) To the center

414. Which of the following could be a primary cause of HIRF protection failurea) A running engineb) The ignition systemc) Broken or missing static wicks

415. A crimped electrical connection is suspected to be high resistance. Corrective action should start with

a) Use a meggerb) Measure the millivots drop with a millivolts meterc) Use a bonding meter

416. What cable may be used in a temperature environment above 200°Ca) Copper wireb) Monel wirec) Nickel clad plated copper wire

417. A wire clamped vertically at one end and horizontally at the other end should have a bend radius of no less than

a) 3 times the diameter of the wireb) 4 times the diameter of the wirec) 5 times the diameter of the wire

418. Glycol de-ice fluid in contact with a silver cable can causea) Corrosionb) Brittleness of insulationc) Fire

419. With a rear release connector, the pin will bea) Released from the rear and extracted from the frontb) Released from the front and extracted from the rearc) Released from the rear and extracted from the rear

420. Circuit test on aircraft should be carried out in the following ordera) Continuity, bonding, insulation, functionb) Bonding, continuity, insulation, functionc) Insulation, bonding, continuity, function

421. After the normal function of an individual circuit has been completed and the circuit is switched off

a) You can work right away on the circuitb) The fuse should be removed and you can work right away on the circuitc) The fuse should be removed and the circuit again switched on to check the

isolation of the circuit

422. The maximum operating temperature for a nickel plated copper or aluminium connector is

a) 220°Cb) 260°Cc) 280°C

423. What gauge of pin is a yellow plastic insert/extract tool used ona) 12b) 14c) 16

424. When using a heat shrink gun, the gun should get to a) Above the heat shrink valueb) 50° above the heat shrink valuec) 100° above the heat shrink value

425. The type of binding tape used for cables in temperatures above 360° is a) Nylonb) Nomexc) Teflon

426. Can an insulation grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp toola) No, they are presetb) Depends on the manufacturerc) Yes, by adjusting the pins

427. Hydraulic crimping tooling after completing crimping, release the crimp a) When the bypass valve opensb) Automatically when satisfactoryc) Depends on the manufacturer

428. At which frequency is the calibration of the crimping tools requireda) Every 6 monthb) Every 12 monthc) 1000 crimps

429. When carrying out a bonding check on an anodized nuta) Has no effectb) Resistance of the anodizing should be considered c) Remove anodizing

430. Which device is most sensitive to electrostatic discharge a) CMOSb) MOSFETc) SCR

431. ESDS charge is dissipated bya) Using wrist strapsb) Using suitable footwearc) Using wrist straps or suitable foot wear

432. A wrist strap has a built in resistor of a) 1 kiloohmb) 1 megohmc) 10 kiloohms

433. What gauge of pin is a red plastic insert/extract tool used ona) 22-18b) 14-12c) 18-16

434. Walking on a carpet in a low humidity air environment may build up a potential of

a) 1,500 Voltsb) 3,500 Voltsc) 35,000 Volts

435. Once an ESDS LRU has been removed a) Standard caps may be installedb) Only ESDS approved caps may me installedc) Only PVC caps may be installed

436. If measuring an outside measurement with a vernier caliper youa) Add the nib dimensionsb) Disregard the nibsc) Subtract the nib dimensions

437. On Weight and Balance calculationsa) Values fwd of the CG are positiveb) Values fwd of the CG are positive, aft of the CG are negativec) Values aft of the CG are positive, fwd of the CG are negative

438. Remove corrosion on a clad alloy sheet bya) With phosphoric acidb) Using trichoathelenec) Need buffering wheel

439. Remove corrosion on a clad alloy sheet bya) Using trichoatheleneb) Nylon wheel or alu-wool and alodine 1200 treatmentc) Need buffering wheel

440. Dermatitis is caused bya) Inhaling of catalystb) Inhaling of resinc) Contact with skin to resin

441. Taper reamers are identified bya) Diameter of large endb) Numbers and fractionsc) Diameter of small end

442. Vital point inspections are donea) After scheduled maintenanceb) On flight controls and engine controlsc) By installation which can cause fatal failures

443. A fitness of flight certificate is requireda) After modification to seek approvalb) After CMR is raisedc) For any work done

444. If a bearing cage is damageda) Get cage out and place itb) Reject bearingc) Replace balls and grease bearing

445. A release to service for aircrafts above 5730 KG is required whena) If you install the same part which was previously removedb) Using a test setc) If you replace a part

446. By testing with a VOR/ILS test set if tone delete is pusheda) Full deflectionb) Flag in viewc) Needles are pointing north

447. After indicator replacement a test with an EGT test set it has to bea) Not necessary to soak the test setb) Soaked at ambient and calculate temp allowancec) Soaked to ambient and calibrate to 20°

448. Wire identification "x" by ATA 100 meansa) A/C powerb) Warning circuitc) Ground network

449. To confirm correct combination of terminal and crimping tool has been selecteda) Use go-no-go gaugeb) Check for dot cod markc) Inspect insulation

450. Standard PIDG crimp tools havea) 1 adjustment positionb) 2 adjustment positionc) 3 adjustment position

Module 7 Maintenance Practices

451. How do you arrange the spacing of the rivets? a) 1.5 x diameter of the rivet shank b) By measuring the thickness of the materialc) 2 times the diameter of the rivet head

452. Worm gears are used to connect shafts a) At right angles which lie on same planes b) At right angles which lie on different planes c) At acute angles which lie on same planes

453. What is the material on the upper and bottom surface of Alclad a) Magnesiumb) Aluminium Alloyc) Aluminium

454. What is monel? a) Non ferrous metal containing nickel and copperb) Ferrous metal containing nickel and copperc) Non ferrous metal containing nickel and brass

455. What is Kevlar? a) An aramid fibreb) A carbon fibrec) A glass fibre

456. When you need to remove a rivet what you do? a) You chop the head off with a chissel and drill the shank out b) You drill the rivet completely outc) You drill the head of the rivet and remove the head with chisel and the shank

with a punch

457. When you measure internal diameter with vernier caliper? a) You subtract the thickness of the nipsb) You add the thickness of the nipsc) You just read the caliper

458. Joining two dissimilar metals what chemical action is created? a) Galvanic action b) Ionic actionc) Caustic action

459. How do clean the chain when removed? a) Use degreaserb) Use white spiritc) Use linen cloth with paraffin

460. How do check the condition of the roller bearings? a) By holding the outer race and rotating the outer race slowly b) By holding the inner race and rotating the outer race slowly c) By using magnetic flux inspection

461. An ac current sinusoidal wave the frequency is 1000Herts what is the periodic time?

a) 1msb) 1000msc) 1000s

462. Photovoltaic converts light into electricity by? a) Chemical actionb) Sunlightc) Heat

463. Lead acid cells produce electricity by a) Sunlightb) Heatc) Chemical action

464. Seebeck effect produces electricity by a) Heatb) Sunlightc) Chemical action

465. How do you measure the electrolyte?a) Hydrometerb) Manometerc) Hygrometer

466. What is the unit of measure of electromotive force?a) Wattsb) Amperes c) Volts

467. On convectional current how are the electrons moves?a) From minus to plusb) Opposite to the organized movement of electrons in a metal conductorc) From negative to positive

468. On primary surface the maximum allowable resistance is? a) 50 mOhms b) 70 mOhmsc) 120 mOhms

469. The CRS on Air Transports Aircraft can be signed by? a) An engineer in an approved Organization.b) A type rated engineerc) A type rated engineer authorized by an approved Organization.

470. Duplicate inspection is carried out when upsetting controls surface or engine controls or anything that upset’s the safety of the aircraft by?

a) By aircraft licensed maintenance engineerb) By aircraft licensed maintenance engineer having CRS coveragec) By any inspector

Module Rivets , Fasteners , Bolts & Nuts

471. Brown or black streaks coming from a rivet head would indicatea) Residue of lubricationb) Rivets have been inserted with sealantc) Loose rivets

472. Rivet snap is used a) To form the rivet headb) To cut off excessive rivet lengthc) To hold the plates together whilst riveting

473. Drill size for 3/32 inch rivet isa) Fb) # 30c) # 40

474. Drill size for 1/8 inch rivet isa) # 30b) # 40c) F

475. Drill size for 5/32 inch rivet is a) # 20b) # 21c) F

476. Drill size for 3/16 inch rivet is a) Fb) # 10c) # 11

477. Drill size for 1/4 inch rivet isa) # 1b) Fc) O

478. Drill size for 5/16 inch rivet isa) Ob) Fc) V

479. Drill size for 3/8 inch rivet is a) Ob) Fc) V

480. Whilst riveting, "clearance" is necessary toa) Form the rivet headb) Prevent pocketing (puckering) of the sheet when the rivet head is formedc) Prevent the rivet tearing through the edge of the sheet


481. How many incorrect rivets are in the pictures abovea) 5b) 6c) 7

482. Image B: Rivet swelled between sheets because a) Parts have not been properly held together during rivetingb) There is a filler installedc) There is sealant in the gap

483. Image B: Rivet swelled between sheets becausea) Driving was too weakb) There is sealant in the gapc) There are chips between the sheets

484. Image B: Rivet swelled between sheets. a) Remove rivet and correct conditionb) Drive until sheets are flatc) Rivet is ok for service

485. Image C: Rivet a) Drive until shape is okb) Bucking bar was not held at the proper angle when rivetingc) Must not be driven to get correct shape

486. Image C: Rivet a) Drive until shape is okb) Must not be driven to get correct shapec) Cannot be hammered to proper shape when head is too thin on one side

487. Image D: Riveta) Is ok for serviceb) Rivet is too shortc) Drive upper side to get the same shape as on the lower side

488. Image D: Riveta) Was hit too hard during drivingb) Drive upper side to get the same shape as on the lower sidec) Does not need to be replaced

489. Image E: Rivet head clinched because a) Wrong tipe of bucking bar was usedb) Rivet gun bar held at an angle when rivet was drivenc) Bucking bar held at an angle when rivet was driven

490. Image E: Rivet head clincheda) Form the rivet headb) Rivet needs to be removedc) Rivet is ok, as rivets bearing surface is within normal range


491. For interior furnishing where no high strength is required type ____ rivets are used.

a) DDb) Bc) A

492. Type A rivet is made of aluminium alloy of. a) 1100 or 3003 compositionb) 2117-T compositionc) 2017-T composition

493. For interior furnishing where medium strength is required type ____ rivets are used.

a) Ab) Bc) AD

494. Type AD rivet is made of aluminium alloy of a) 2117-T compositionb) 2017-T compositionc) 2024-T composition

495. Which of the following rivets are normally heat-treated before installation a) A - Aluminium alloy, 1100 or 3003 compositionb) DD - Aluminium alloy, 2024-T compositionc) AD - Aluminium alloy, 2117-T composition

496. Ice-box rivets: DD - Aluminum alloy, 2024-T rivets should be installed if exposed to room temperature for a period not exceeding

a) 1 hourb) 30 minutesc) 10 minutes

497. Ice-box rivets: D - Aluminum alloy, 2017-T should not be exposed to room temperature for more than

a) 10 minutesb) 1 hourc) 2 hours

498. Ice-box rivets stored at below 0°C should be used withina) 2 weeksb) 1 monthc) 3 month

499. If Ice-box rivets have not been used within two weeks they should be a) Discardedb) Inspected and usedc) Re-heat treated

500. Heat treatment of rivets may be a) Done only onceb) Repeated a number of timesc) Done maximum 3 times

Module Rivets , Fasteners , Bolts & NutsTypes of rivets and heat treatmentA - Aluminium alloy, 1100 or 3003 composition - plain head. AD - Aluminium alloy, 2117-T composition - dimpled head. D - Aluminium alloy, 2017-T composition, air-heat treated for 1 hour at 925°F - 950°F & quenched at 70°F water - raised teat. DD - Aluminium alloy, 2024-T composition, air-heat treated for 1 hour at 910°F - 930°F & quenched at 70°F water - raised double dash. B - Aluminium alloy, 5056 composition - raised cross . C - Copper - colour. M - Monel - two raised teats. Heat treated rivets must be used immediately after quenching or else be placed in cold storage below 32°F (Ice-box rivets) for max two weeks.If not used within two weeks, they should be removed for reheat treating. Ice-box rivets (D - Aluminium alloy, 2017-T) exposed to room temperature for 1 hour or longer, they must be reheat treated. DD - Aluminium alloy, 2024-T rivets should be installed if exposed to room temperature for a period not exceeding 10 minutes. Heat treatment of rivets may be repeated a number of times if done properly.

AN426 or MS20426 - countersunk head rivets (100°). AN430 or MS20430 - roundhead rivets. AN441 - flathead rivets. AN456 - brazier head rivets. AN470 or MS20470 - universal head rivets.

501. To install flush rivets or screws a) Use dimpling onlyb) Use countersinke onlyc) Use dimpling or countersink method

502. The strenth of a riveted joint is determined by a) The pitch and the tensile strenth of the rivetsb) The pitch of the rivetsc) The tensile strenth of the rivets

503. When two components are joined together and the back is not accessiblea) Blind rivets are usedb) Pop rivets are usedc) Jo-Bolts are used

504. The absence of a letter following the AN standard number indicates a rivet manufactured from

a) Mild steelb) Copperc) Monel

505. When identifying rivet they have a standard number and part number, the standard number

a) Describes type of head, material and finishb) Describes length, diameter, type of headc) Describes type of head and finish

506. On a rivet the last number(s), separated by a dash from the preceding number, expresses the length of the rivet shank in

a) 8ths of an inchb) 32nds of an inchc) 16ths of an inch

507. On rivets the first number following the material composition letters expresses the diameter of the rivet shank in

a) 8ths of an inchb) 32nds of an inchc) 16ths of an inch

508. On a rivet there are letters and numbers added to a part number. The letters designate

a) Alloy contentb) Diameterc) Shape of head

509. Temper designator T of aluminium alloy indicates a) The metal cannot be heat treatedb) The metal has been annealedc) The metal may be heat treated

510. Temper designator H of aluminium alloy indicates a) The metal may be heat treatedb) The metal cannot be heat treatedc) The metal has been annealed


511. Rivet pitch is a) The distance between rows of rivets in a multirow seamb) The distance between the centre of the rivet hole and the edge of the sheet of

metalc) The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets installed in the same row

512. Rivet gage or transverse pitch is a) The distance between rows of rivets in a multirow seamb) The distance between the centre of the rivet hole and the edge of the sheet of

metalc) The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets installed in the same row

513. Rivet edge distance isa) The distance between rows of rivets in a multirow seamb) The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets installed in the same rowc) The distance between the centre of the rivet hole and the edge of the sheet of

metal

514. Pilot holes for 1/8 inch rivet is a number a) 40 drillb) 30 drillc) 20 drill

515. The correct size drill to use for a 1/8 inch rivet is a number a) 20b) 30c) 30

516. The shank of a rivet should stick out of the sheet by ____ times the rivet shank a) 2.5b) 2c) 1.5

517. A riveted joint should be designed so it will break in a) Bearingb) Shearc) Tensile

518. A properly formed shop head on a rivet should have a diameter of _____ times the diameter of the rivet shank

a) 1.5b) 2c) 2.5

519. A properly formed shop head on a rivet should have the thickness of _____ times the shank diameter

a) 1.5b) 1c) 0.5

520. The limits for the distance between the centres of adjacent rivets in a stressed skin patch are between

a) 3 & 10 Db) 3 & 12 Dc) 4 & 12 D

521. MS Rivets: A rivets are used ____________ and is a plain rivet.a) In high stress areab) In cabinc) Pressurized area

522. MS2117 Rivets: AD aluminium rivets have a ________ heada) Plainb) Raised dotc) Dimple

523. MS2017 Rivets: D aluminium rivets have a _______ and must be heat treated.a) Raised dotb) Dimplec) Two raised dot

524. MS2024 Rivets: DD aluminium rivets have ________________ and must be heat treated.

a) A raised dotb) Two raised dashesc) A dimple

525. D & DD rivets require heat treatment maximuma) Onceb) Twicec) Three time

526. What is the minimum edge distance when rivetinga) 1.5Db) 2Dc) 3D

527. If a repair has a double riveted lap joint, what is the shear strength of the sheeta) 58%b) 65%c) 74%

528. If a repair has a double riveted butt joint, what is the shear strength of the sheeta) 82%b) 74%c) 58%

529. What do you use a rivet shaver fora) Cut rivets to lengthb) Mill rivets flush with skinc) To remove the extra shank after forming the rivet

530. What is the cause of a grey streak coming from the head of a riveta) Oil leakb) Corrosionc) Fretting

531. The main advantage of dye penetrate inspection is thea) Part is to be inspected does not require cleaningb) Penetrate solution works on any non-porous materialc) Defect must be opened to the surface

532. In order for dye penetrate to be effective, the material being checked musta) Be non-magneticb) Be magneticc) Have surface cracks

533. Which of the following metals can be inspected using magnetic particle check?a) Iron alloysb) Aluminum alloysc) Magnesium alloys

534. In the fluorescent penetrate crack test, what period should elapse between applying the developer and viewing?

a) 5 minutesb) 15 minutesc) 10 minutes

535. How are defects indicated in the dye penetrating crack detection test?a) Yellowish green marksb) Green lines and dotsc) Red lines on a white background

536. Information about NDT is found in a) AWN 45b) AWN 94c) AWN 96

537. Dye check with field kit only , Temp limit is a) Above 0°Cb) 4°Fc) 4°C

538. Dye check: on a pressure vessel spray penetrate a) Inside and developer on outsideb) Outside and developer insidec) Outside and developer outside

539. After penetrate has been cleaned off apply developer and check for crack anda) Make a decisionb) Recheck after 20 minutesc) Recheck after 5 minutes

540. Magnetic particle check fluid is a) Engine oilb) Kerosenec) Paraffin oil




543. The NDT not used on austenitic steel is a) Magnetic fluxb) Electro fluxc) Dye penetrate



Module 7.18 Inspection and Repair Techniques

546. When carrying out dye penetrant inspection, how soon after applying the developer do you check the results

a) 25 - 90 minutesb) 15 - 30 minutesc) 5 - 60 minutes

547. Why do you joggle a surface sheeta) To have a Smooth Surface Finishb) For Tear Protectionc) To increase strength

548. What types of bonding adhesion are therea) Mechanical and Specificb) Chemical and Specificc) Chemical and Mechanical

549. What are faying surfacesa) Metal surfacesb) Opposed surfacesc) Mating surfaces

550. When joining metals together what do you usea) Compoundb) Greasec) Paint

551. Dye penetrant at –15° a) Needs a longer penetrating timeb) Work as normalc) Will not flow

552. Dye penetrate developer goes pink on application because a) Colour depends on manufacturerb) Excess penetrate has not been cleaned properlyc) It is normal

553. Magnetic flux detection will show a) Longitudinal onlyb) Lateral onlyc) Longitudinal and lateral deflection

554. Dye penetrate kits should be stored a) In a Dark damp cupboardb) In direct sunlight to keep it dryc) Out of sunlight in a dry place

555. For an eddy current inspectiona) Paint needs to be removedb) Paint does not need to be removedc) Special grease must be applied

556. Corrosion which attacks the crystals of the metal is calleda) Magnetic flowb) Ultrasonicc) Electro-flow

557. The three phases of eliminating corrosion area) Immediately on removal of the item from the chalk cabinetb) When the item is quite hotc) When the item is quite cool

558. Microbiological corrosion is usually presenta) Magnetic fluxb) Electro-fluxc) Dye penetrate

559. The most corroded part in galvanic corrosion isa) Allowed to cool room temperature as slowly as possibleb) De-magnetised before returning to servicec) Allowed to lose any residual magnetism over a long a period possible

560. Corrosion by erosion and cavitations is caused bya) The temperature has no effectb) The canister must be locally warmed before usec) The penetrate tends to precipitate

561. The artificial production of a film of hydroxide on the surface of aluminium or any of its alloys is commonly called

a) Alodizingb) Anodizingc) Parco lubrizing

562. Inter granular corrosion in structural aluminium alloy partsa) Is not likely to occur in parts fabricated from heat-treated sheet aluminumb) May be detected by white powdery deposit formed on the surface of the metalc) Cannot always be detected by surface indications

563. Galvanic action caused by dissimilar metal contact my be best prevented bya) Priming both surfaces with a light coat of zinc chromate primerb) Applying non-porous dielectric material between the surfacesc) Special precautions are not required if they are properly bonded

564. Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the result ofa) Excessive anodizationb) Contact between two unlike metalsc) The wrong quenching agent

565. What type of corrosion attacks grain boundaries of aluminium alloys which are improperly or inadequately heat treated?

a) Surfaceb) Stressc) Inter granular













576. When dissimilar metals are brought together, or the same metal in different states, one metal forms the anode and the other the cathode. Which one will suffer from corrosion?

a) The cathodeb) The anodec) Both will corrode equally

577. After welding, stainless steel is susceptible to corrosion known asa) Weld deteriorationb) Weld rotc) Weld decay

578. Corrosion will spread more rapidly when metals are exposed toa) High temperatureb) Dry climatesc) Cool climates

579. Select the metal on which corrosion forms a greenish filma) Aluminum and its alloyb) Copper and its alloyc) Titanium and its alloy

580. The lifting or flaking of the metal at the surface due to delamination of grain boundaries caused by the pressure of corrosion is

a) Trans granulationb) Electrolysisc) Exfoliation

581. Nitric Acid is used to identify bronze,a) It produces black powderb) It produces white powderc) It produces brown powder

582. To remove corrosion from steel usea) Sulphuric acidb) Chomic acidc) Phosphoric acid

583. Crevice corrosion is duea) Bad sealingb) Vibrationc) Wrong heat treatment

584. Less noble material is anodized: with steel and aluminiuma) Steel is sacrificedb) Aluminium is sacrificedc) Both are equally noble

585. Aluminium corrosion should never be removed witha) Nylon wheelb) Aluminum woolc) Steel wool

586. Filiform corrosion area) Layers of corrosionb) Worm castsc) Exfoliation corrosion

587. Exfoliation corrosion area) Inter granular corrosionb) Due rubbing against each otherc) Layers of corrosion

588. Inter granular corrosion is due false heat treatment. On stainless steel exhaustsa) Measure magnetic permeabilityb) Perform a magnetic particle checkc) Dye check is sufficient

589. Chemical removal of corrosion on aluminium: use __________ , reprotect with Aluchrome 1200 and 2 layers of primer.

a) Selenic acidb) Phosphoric acidc) Chromic acid

590. For magnesium use 2 oz of chromic and 2 drops of __________ acida) Nitricb) Seleniousc) Sulphuric

591. Corrosion on aluminum: Remove with nylon brush, neutralize with _____________, protect with aluchrome 1200 and paint 2 layers of zinc chromate.

a) Citric acidb) Phosphoric acidc) Nitric acid

592. To remove corrosion from steel use a wire brush anda) Boric acidb) Nitric acidc) Caustic soda

593. For corrosion on _________ use 2 oz chromic & 2 drops of sulphuric acida) Magnesiumb) Titaniumc) Aluminium

594. _____ ____on aluminum alloy produces black and on steel brown powdera) Filiform corrosionb) Freeting corrosionc) Exfoliation corrosion

595. Filiform corrosion is/area) Layers of corrosionb) Dissimilar corrosionc) Worm casts

596. Thrust bearings are used fora) Radial loadb) Axial loadc) Journal load

597. V-mark on a bearing meansa) Over size bearingb) High speed wheel bearingc) Bearing comes is set of 2 or 3

598. 'Fill in slot' _____________ load carrying capacity.a) Increasesb) Decreasesc) Does not influence

599. ______________ colour on bearings means they are overheateda) Brownb) Bluec) White

600. Brown colour on bearings means they area) Rustyb) Overheatedc) Brown from oil

601. Thrust bearing carrya) Radial loadb) Axial loadc) Torque load

602. 'Fill in slot' in bearing ________ the load carrying capacitya) Equalizesb) Decreasesc) Increases

603. V-marks on bearing meana) Bearing comes in set of 2 or 3b) Bearing can be used for axial and radial loadc) Bearing for high rotational speed

604. Dots on bearings: 1 to 5 dots define _________ of bearinga) Hardnessb) Oversizec) Load capacity

605. Pipes: bend radii is ____ times diametera) 4-5b) 2-3c) 3-4

606. Thrust bearings are used fora) Radial loadb) Axial loadc) Both axial and radial loads

607. Brinelling on bearings is caused bya) Loose wheel nutb) Heavy landingsc) Over tight wheel nut

608. Blue bearingsa) Are overheatedb) Are acceptablec) Must be x-rayed

609. Brown bearings a) Are overheatedb) Are acceptablec) Must be x-rayed

610. Radial load = journal load bearings are e.g.a) Brass bearingsb) Needle bearingsc) Wheel bearings

Module 7.11 Bearings 1 3 -

611. On a thrust bearing the loads taken are a) Axial and slight radialb) Axial and radialc) Radial only

612. On a spherical bearing it transmitsa) Predominantly radial loads with moderate axial loadsb) Predominantly axial loads with moderate radial loadsc) Axial and slight radial loads

613. After an aircraft lightning strikea) Bearings do not need to be checkedb) Don’t carry out an inspection unless hole is over the maximum diameter allowedc) Check full range of movement to check bearings and control surfaces

614. What do you call the effect of light dimpling on a surface of a bearinga) Calorizingb) Austenitingc) Brinelling

615. Tapered roller bearings take a) Radial loads onlyb) Radial and axial loadsc) Axial loads only

616. Roller bearings for _________ radial loads than ball bearingsa) Smallerb) Samec) Greater

617. A typical use of needle bearings is fora) Wheelsb) Rod endsc) Gears

618. Bearings are cleaned witha) White spiritb) Oilc) Solvent

619. To prevent corrosion on cleaned bearings they area) Dryed with dry compressed air and oiled b) Greasedc) Oiled

620. Bearings should be stored _________________ and reinspected for corrosiona) Verticallyb) Horizontallyc) Vertically or horizontally

Module 7.12Transmissions 1 3 -

621. A chain is removed bya) Springs clipsb) Nuts and boltsc) Removing chain links on an endless chain

622. If light corrosion is found on a chain it isa) Dye checkedb) To be replacedc) To be cleaned insp and re lubed

623. Three things which are used to classify a chaina) Diameter of roller, pitch, distance between inner platesb) Diameter of roller, pitch, distance between outer platesc) Diameter of roller and pitch

624. If you remove a chain for routine inspectiona) You are not required to proof load itb) You are required to proof load itc) You are required to replace the chain

625. How do you remove a chain a) Remove clipb) Remove rivetsc) Only at screwed and bolted attachment parts

626. With a new chain do youa) Clean lubrication and fitb) Clean lubrication and pack in grease proof paperc) Clean and lubricate after fitting

627. With a new chain you a) Clean lubrication and fitb) Do not remove initial lubricationc) Clean lubrication and pack in grease proof paper

628. When dismantling chains, disconnect ata) Spring Clipb) Bolted jointsc) Riveted joints

629. Chains have no quick detatch they are riveted or bolted. Maximum elongation isa) 10%b) 5%c) 2%

630. Chains must not be twisted. To change direction use aa) Pulleyb) Bi-planar blockc) Reversion link

631. A or an _______ of pipe diameter steel ball must pass through pipes when bent or dented

a) 70%b) 80%c) 90%

632. A or an _______ of flex hose diameter steel ball must pass through when bent or at dents

a) 70%b) 80%c) 90%

633. When making flare the pipe must ________________ conea) Be flush withb) Slightly protrudec) Slightly recess

634. UK flare on British AGS isa) 37˚b) 32˚c) 60˚

635. US Flare isa) 64˚b) 60˚c) 37˚

636. Flareless B-Nut tighten by hand plus 1/6 to 1/3. Pressure test is _______ working pressure.

a) Same asb) 1.5 timesc) 2 times

637. A ___ diameter steel ball must pass on pipesa) 75%b) 90%c) 80%

638. A ___ diameter steel ball must pass on a flex hosea) 90%b) 80%c) 75%

639. Hose must be _______________ distancea) 5% longer thanb) 3% longer thanc) The same length as the

640. Leather must not be used near pipesa) Because it will not skydrol resistantb) It is not strong enough for clampsc) Because of corrosion

Module 7.9 Pipes and Hoses 1 3 -

641. Flare angle on an ags pipe isa) 32 °b) 37 °c) 45 °

642. Flare angle on an American aircraft pipe isa) 44 °b) 74 °c) 37 °

643. If a hydraulic pipe required shaping, how would you carry this outa) After age hardeningb) After annealingc) As supplied

644. If a flexible hydraulic hose outer cover was crackeda) The pipe is still serviceableb) The pipe is unserviceable because it might have restricted flow c) The pipe is unserviceable because of fire protection

645. When pressure testing a pipe it is ata) 2 x working pressure for 2 minutesb) 2 x working pressure for 5 minutesc) 1.5 x working pressure

646. When pressure testing a flexible hydraulic pipe you test it ata) Its normal axisb) 15° in either directionc) Straight plus and minus 15 degrees

647. Reaming aluminium tube is done with a) Oil and lubrication used for cuttingb) No tubec) Hard base tube

648. A pressure test on a rigid pipe may bea) 1 and a half working pressure till no leak foundb) 2 times the working pressure for 2 minutesc) 2 times the working pressure for 5 minutes

649. High strength 3000 PSI tubing bend radii preferred isa) 2.5Db) 3Dc) 4D

650. Permissible wrinkles in pipes with pressure over 500 PSI isa) no wrinkle allowedb) 1%c) 2%

651. Control cables 7x7 or 7x19 are lubed with ________ based lubea) Carbonb) Lanolinc) Ester

652. Control cable spool is ___ times diameter of cablea) 20b) 25c) 40

653. Preload a control cable by ___ and cut with a chisela) 50%b) 150%c) 200%

654. Load proof of chains is ___ of max loada) 75%b) ½c) 150%

655. To check if rollers in chain are seized, checka) Use magnifying glassb) Individual rollersc) Deformation of teeth

656. Small instrument terminations may be made bya) Soldering a split wire loopb) Soldered half loopc) Unsoldered unsplit wire loop

657. A suitable cable for use in fire protection system would be ?a) Flametb) Glasilc) Unifire F

658. Heavy duty cable runs can be reduced by usinga) Heavy duty relaysb) Lower voltagesc) Superior cables

659. The sequence of tests carried out on an aircraft electrical circuit is alwaysa) Continuity, bonding, functionalb) Continuity, insulation, functionalc) Bonding, insulation, continuity

660. The minimum insulation value allowed on a 28V DC machine isa) 2.0 mega ohmsb) 0.2 mega ohmsc) 0.5 mega ohms

Module 7.1 Safety precautions-Aircraft and Workshop 3 3 3

661. If Glycol contacts silver wires a) Insulation will break downb) Electrical fires may be initiatedc) Wet arc tracking will occur

662. Welding oxygen bottle colour isa) Blackb) Bluec) Green

663. Aviation breathing oxygen bottles in US aircraft are a) Greenb) Blackc) Blue

664. Acetylene bottles for welding area) Yellowb) Blackc) Maroon

665. Acetylene bottles for welding havea) Right hand threadb) Left hand threadc) Bayonett connectors

666. Oxygen connections are a) Are lubricated with greaseb) Are not lubricated at allc) Are lubricated with a special oxygen lubricant

667. When paint remover gets in your eyes youa) Rinse them and see a doctorb) Flood them repedetly with water repedetly and see a doctorc) Rinsing is sufficient

668. Acid spillage removal use a) Approved rubber glovesb) Household glovesc) PVC gloves

669. Battery accid is neutralised with a) Waterb) 5% solution of sulphuricd acidc) 5% solution of Sodium Bicarbonate

670. When working on electrica power systems youa) Tag systemb) Must remove power and tag systemc) Remove power

Module 7.2 Workshop Practices 3 3 3

671. The benefits of a kett sawa) Allows single handed operation due to less torqueb) Can cut thicker metal than is usually required for a repairc) It comes in two versions pneumatic and electric

672. The drill bit cutting angle for titanium isa) 90-100 degreesb) 105-120 degreesc) 118 degrees

673. Calibration of equipmenta) Done once a yearb) Varies on equipmentc) Done bi-annually

674. Cutting faces of a twist drill for optional cut area) 12°b) 130°c) 59°

675. Electric weight pads need to be calibrated per JAR OPS everya) 24 monthb) 36 monthc) 48 month

676. When removing a rivet do you use a a) Over size drillb) Drill bit the same size as the rivet shankc) Under size drill

677. What is a rivet shaver used fora) Reduce the diameter of the rivet shaftb) Shave the head off the rivetc) Reduce the length of the rivet shaft

678. Calibration of aircraft hydrostatic weighing equipment isa) Carried out every time before an aircraft is weighed and adjusted by operatorb) Done once a yearc) Every "$ month

679. When installing a hack saw blade the teeth area) Does not matterb) Facing aftc) Facing forward

680. Double ended stone wheel grinders can be used for aluminium, brass and magnesium on one side

a) Trueb) False

Module 7.15 Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding

681. When soldering or brazing using active flux, the fluxa) Cleans Onlyb) Protects Onlyc) Cleans and Protects

682. What kind of flux is used in soft solderinga) Activeb) Passivec) Both

683. When brazing, the flux is a mixture of water anda) Hydrochloric Acidb) Borax powderc) Zinc Chloride

684. What is a dry solder joint caused bya) Melting the solder and flux on the iron and transfer itb) Using the wrong fluxc) Using the wrong type of iron

685. After welding it is good practice to a) X-rayb) Clean the weldc) Normalise the weld

686. Silver solder comprises of a) Zinc, copper and silverb) Copper, zinc and tinc) Lead, copper and silver

687. When splicing cable with a soldered joint, the operation is finished whena) The solder has meltedb) Solder and insulation have formedc) When solder sleeve disappears

688. An acceptable method of aircraft welding isa) TIG weldingb) Gas Weldingc) FIG Welding

689. Some flux make the oxides and impuritiesa) Disappearb) To burn offc) To float to the surface as slag

690. The temperature for brazing isa) 400-550°Cb) 600-850°Cc) 850-950°C

691. Soldering: 60% lead & 40% tin plus flux. Soldering iron tip is made ofa) Brassb) Copperc) Steel

692. Silver solder is used for ____________ it consists of tin, lead, antimony and silver

a) General purpose solderb) Low temp solderc) High temp solder

693. Brazing: Stick together anda) Fill gapsb) Weld togetherc) Use inert gas to prevent oxidation

694. O2 cylinders for welding are black and hoses are blue - Acetylen cyl are maroon and have _______ and hose is red.

a) Withword threadb) LH threadc) RH thread

695. Nitrogen bottles are grey with a black neck - air bottles area) Black with a white collarb) Bluec) Grey

Module 7.3 Tools 3 3 3

696. A 0.625 “drill is identified bya) Letter Ab) Letter Ec) 5/8

697. On a static leak tester pressure is released bya) Slowly open release knob for 3 minutesb) Tester has an internal balance valvec) Tester has bleed valve in body

698. Taper reamers are classified bya) Diameter of large endb) Diameter of small endc) Number of fractions size or letter

699. A micrometer of 40 tpi is turned 3 times, what is the readinga) 0.005b) 0.020c) 0.025

700. The output of a tacho-generator, used in a servo system for rate feed back, depends on

a) The resistance of the servo-motorb) 1control pump output USc) The speed of rotation of the servo-motor

701. The passenger address systema) Is operated by the cabin crew,and overrides the entertainment systemb) Is operated by the flight crew,and overrides the entertainment systemc) Is operated by either the flight or cabin crew, but not opposing each other, and

overriding the entertainment system

702. Fibre-Glass areal masts are covered with neoprene toa) Dissipate any static chargeb) Protect against mast erosionc) Improve areal insulation

703. Lowering the undercarriage and flaps increases the profild drag bya) Raising the minimum drag speed and making slow speed flight more stableb) Reducing the minimum drag speed and tending to make slow speed flight, more

speed stablec) Raising the minimum drag speed and making slow speed flight more unstable

704. The drag of a smooth polished aerofoil over which air is passing , is low due toa) A thicker boundary layer and less skin frictionb) The reduction of induced dragc) A thinner and less turbulent boundary layer

705. The charging nozzle in a pneumatic system is fitted betweena) Relief valve and the oil/water separatorb) Compressor and the oil/water separatorc) Pressure regulator and the oil/water separator

706. __ teeth minimum should always contact when using a hack saw. Teeth should point forward.

a) 4b) 3c) 5

707. Hack saw blades are measured ina) Teeth per metreb) Teeth per cmc) Teeth per inch

708. Chalk when used with a filea) Gives a fine finishb) Gives a gray colourc) Makes less noise

709. Taper ratio for large drills isa) 1:50b) 1:20c) 1:30

710. If large drills do not fit in machinea) Lathe drill shaft till it fitsb) Use an extensionc) Use morse adapter

711. Store rubber away froma) Motors and air conditioningb) Motors and lightc) Air conditioning and light

712. Rate of cooling and temperature are _________ points of heat treatmenta) Are non-essentialb) Non-criticalc) A critical

713. A caliper with a scale is in inches 0.1" and in 40th 0.025" ; Main scale divisions = 0.6" (24 x 0.025) = 24/25 is

a) An Old English caliperb) A New English caliperc) A metric caliper

714. A caliper with 49/25 - 1.2 : 25 isa) The Old English Caliperb) The current English Caliper System

715. New English Caliper isa) 24/25b) 49/25c) 49/50

716. Metric micrometer accuracy isa) 0.002mm 49/50b) 0.02mm 49/50c) 0.2mm 49/50

717. Micrometer: Barrel is _____ and thimble ______a) Fixed and floatsb) Turns and fixedc) Fixed and turns

718. A metric micrometer has ___ on thimblea) 50b) 40c) 30

719. Calipers and Micrometers are calibrateda) Every 12 monthsb) Every 6 monthsc) Every 18 months

720. Calipers and Micrometers prior to usea) Use test pieceb) Assure temperature is within normal rangec) Check for 0-alingment

Easa Module 7

Documents

wet arc tracking

heavy duty

noise taper

based lube

special protective

shock wave

destructive

symmetrical