CASP Practice QuestionsQuestion 1.
During a routine security assessment of a network, the security
administrator discovers a user workstation with multiple SSH
connections to servers outside the corporate network. Using a
protocol analyzer, the administrator identifies hundreds of
gigabytes of information being transferred to an external server
via SCP. After identifying the user, the administrator discovers
that today is the users last day of employment, and that the
employee is going to work for a competitor. Which of the following
tactics is being used to steal company secrets?a) Logic bombb) SSH
wormc) Data exfiltrationd) Privilege escalatione) SAML exploit
Question 2.
When considering security requirements which require third party
vendor requests, which of the following is a correctly ordered set
of events from start to finish?a) RFP, RFQ, RFCb) RFI, RFQ, RFPc)
RFP, RFQ, RFId) RFC, RFT
Question 3.
As a condition of being awarded a new contract, an organization
must increase the security of its VPN ensuring that one compromised
SA session key cannot be used to compromise any other sessions.
Which of the following could be configured to meet this
requirement? a) Opportunistic encryptionb) Pseudo-random number
generatorc) Dual-factor authenticationd) Perfect forward
secrecy
Question 4.
A new Chief Information Officers (CIOs) primary initiative is to
reduce risk and the number of vulnerabilities affecting an
organization. Which of the following reduces the number of
locations to patch internal applications? a) Provide application
access through a VDIb) Host applications using terminal servicesc)
Implement an enterprise patch management solutiond) Convert
applications to leverage hosted cloud computing
Question 5.
Which of the following practices is MOST likely employed during
e-discovery? a) Legal hold and chain of custodyb) Risk mitigation
and policy generationc) Network enumeration and fingerprintingd)
Data deduplication and hashing
Question 6.
A new system has recently been built using the SSDLC process and
is in the validation process to ensure the system is behaving
correctly. During this process, the development team notices that
the system is behaving as it should, except for a few minor
internal application bugs. Which of the following validation types
would be a result of this issue? a) Application interface
validationb) Code validationc) Functional validationd) Requirements
validation
Question 7.
A security administrator notices a network intrusion and quickly
solves the problem by closing an unused port. Which of the
following should be completed? a) After action reportb) ELAc) MOAd)
Reverse engineering incident report
Question 8.
A server administrator needs to find a web service that will
allow most systems to communicate over HTTP using an XML based
protocol. Which of the following communication methods will allow
this? a) SOAPb) XACMLc) SSOd) SAML
Question 9.
An IT Manager has requested that specific files stored on the
company SAN containing data which is not protected by patent law,
but is classified as trade secret encrypted with a block cipher
which is both secure and fast. Which of the following BEST
satisfies the request? a) Blowfishb) MD5c) Triple-DESd) RC4
Question 10.
An administrator uses an iSCSI unencrypted connection over the
corporate network. Which of the following vulnerabilities would be
present in regards to iSCSI authentication? a) Authentication uses
the older TACACS protocol and is vulnerable to a botnet attack.b)
Authentication is vulnerable to a dictionary attack.c) iSCSI uses
LDAP authentication in plain text, which can be easily
compromised.d) Kerberos authentication would not be supported on
Linux hosts.CASP Practice QuestionsQuestion 1.
During a routine security assessment of a network, the security
administrator discovers a user workstation with multiple SSH
connections to servers outside the corporate network. Using a
protocol analyzer, the administrator identifies hundreds of
gigabytes of information being transferred to an external server
via SCP. After identifying the user, the administrator discovers
that today is the users last day of employment, and that the
employee is going to work for a competitor. Which of the following
tactics is being used to steal company secrets?a) Logic bombb) SSH
wormc) Data exfiltrationd) Privilege escalatione) SAML exploit
Question 2.
When considering security requirements which require third party
vendor requests, which of the following is a correctly ordered set
of events from start to finish?a) RFP, RFQ, RFCb) RFI, RFQ, RFPc)
RFP, RFQ, RFId) RFC, RFT
Question 3.
As a condition of being awarded a new contract, an organization
must increase the security of its VPN ensuring that one compromised
SA session key cannot be used to compromise any other sessions.
Which of the following could be configured to meet this
requirement? a) Opportunistic encryptionb) Pseudo-random number
generatorc) Dual-factor authenticationd) Perfect forward
secrecy
Question 4.
A new Chief Information Officers (CIOs) primary initiative is to
reduce risk and the number of vulnerabilities affecting an
organization. Which of the following reduces the number of
locations to patch internal applications? a) Provide application
access through a VDIb) Host applications using terminal servicesc)
Implement an enterprise patch management solutiond) Convert
applications to leverage hosted cloud computing
Question 5.
Which of the following practices is MOST likely employed during
e-discovery? a) Legal hold and chain of custodyb) Risk mitigation
and policy generationc) Network enumeration and fingerprintingd)
Data deduplication and hashing
Question 6.
A new system has recently been built using the SSDLC process and
is in the validation process to ensure the system is behaving
correctly. During this process, the development team notices that
the system is behaving as it should, except for a few minor
internal application bugs. Which of the following validation types
would be a result of this issue? a) Application interface
validationb) Code validationc) Functional validationd) Requirements
validation
Question 7.
A security administrator notices a network intrusion and quickly
solves the problem by closing an unused port. Which of the
following should be completed? a) After action reportb) ELAc) MOAd)
Reverse engineering incident report
Question 8.
A server administrator needs to find a web service that will
allow most systems to communicate over HTTP using an XML based
protocol. Which of the following communication methods will allow
this? a) SOAPb) XACMLc) SSOd) SAML
Question 9.
An IT Manager has requested that specific files stored on the
company SAN containing data which is not protected by patent law,
but is classified as trade secret encrypted with a block cipher
which is both secure and fast. Which of the following BEST
satisfies the request? a) Blowfishb) MD5c) Triple-DESd) RC4
Question 10.
An administrator uses an iSCSI unencrypted connection over the
corporate network. Which of the following vulnerabilities would be
present in regards to iSCSI authentication? a) Authentication uses
the older TACACS protocol and is vulnerable to a botnet attack.b)
Authentication is vulnerable to a dictionary attack.c) iSCSI uses
LDAP authentication in plain text, which can be easily
compromised.d) Kerberos authentication would not be supported on
Linux hosts.CompTIA Network+ Practice QuestionsQuestion 1.
The IEEE standard 802.3af states the specifications for which of
the following?a) Quality of Serviceb) VLANsc) Routing tablesd)
Power over Ethernet
Question 2.
A user's remote marketing server has changed IP address schemes
and now the user can no longer access it. The user further
discovers that the distant end still has access to them. Which of
the following is a possible cause?a) SNMP strings need to be
addedb) Firewall rules need to be configuredc) Port bonding on the
interface needs to be enabledd) The switch has lost power
Question 3.
Which of the following is a network device that allows remote
users access to a network?a) DNS serverb) Content filterc) Load
balancerd) VPN concentrator
Question 4.
A technician suspects that a virus has been introduced on the
network. Which network resource is BEST used to confirm this
problem?a) Syslogb) SNMPc) Network snifferd) Environmental
monitor
Question 5.
A user reports a network connectivity problem. Which of the
following steps should the technician perform FIRST?a) Determine a
probable causeb) Implement the solution of the causec) Test the
theory of the caused) Identify the problem
Question 6.
Which of the following protocols is used by a web browser to
display a web page?a) SMTPb) FTPc) HTTPd) IMAP4
Question 7.
Which of the following record types is required for every server
in a DNS environment?a) AAAb) MXc) SFPd) A
Question 8.
The frequency of the 802.11b and 802.11g is which of the
following?a) 2.4GHzb) 900MHzc) 5GHzd) 1800MHz
Question 9.
Which of the following uses port 22 by default?a) TELNETb) SSHc)
FTPd) DNS
Question 10.
A user is unable to connect to a network with encryption. The
user is able to see the network and has the correct passphrase.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?a) Encryption
typeb) SSID mismatchc) Standard mismatchd) Signal strength
Question 11.
A technician is troubleshooting a UTP cable that has been
suspected of having problems due to EMI. Which of the following
cables should the technician use without adding new equipment to
the network? a) Singlemode fiberb) STPc) Plenumd) Multimode
fiber
Question 12.
Which of the following network topologies describes a network
where packets of data are transmitted from one computer to another
in a circular fashion?a) Ringb) Meshc) Busd) Star
Question 13.
Which of the following defines the length of time a device
retains its IP address for?a) Scopeb) Reservationc) Subnetd)
Lease
Question 14.
Which of the following virtual devices is the BEST to use to
host a company's website?a) PBXb) Serverc) Switchd) Desktop
Question 15.
A cable standard that includes a fire-retardant jacket is:a)
coaxial cableb) fiber cablec) plenum cabled) UTP cable
Question 16.
A new drop is active according to the network administrator. A
technician takes a laptop to the new drop to test connectivity and
gets an intermittent signal. Which of the following tools could the
technician use to test the line?a) Environmental monitorb) Toner
probec) Protocol analyzerd) Cable tester
Question 17.
An administrator works for a law firm in an office building in a
major city. After installing a new wireless access point, the
administrator secures the device using WPA and then connects to it
using a laptop. Which of the following would be the logical NEXT
step in securing the device?a) Add a second SSID broadcast to the
access point and name it the same as a neighboring companyb) Change
the wireless encryption type to WEPc) Remove the antennasd) Check
neighboring offices for connectivity and reduce the signal strength
appropriately
Question 18.
An administrator is asked to set up a home office for a user who
would like to connect to the Internet and share files with all six
computers in the home. Which of the following are the MINIMUM
requirements if the user refuses to install wireless devices and
all computers contain working network cards?a) Hub, Cables,
Firewallb) Firewall, Router, Cablesc) Switch, Firewall, Cablesd)
Router, Switch, Cables
Question 19.
The command netstat n will display which of the following?a)
Ethernet statisticsb) IP addressc) Address and port numbers in
numerical formd) Protocol statistics
Question 20.
A business has expanded to additional floors in the building.
The expansion only calls for switches and patch panels to be
installed. Which of the following would the network manager need to
locate?a) MDFb) Demarcc) Smart jackd) IDF
Question 21.
A network administrator needs to implement a new wireless
network for a coffee shop. The shop wants to allow users wireless
access from anywhere in the shop, but not outside. Which of the
following should be the GREATEST concern for the administrator?a)
Channelb) Compatibilityc) WAP placementd) Interference
Question 22.
A user receives an information message on their computer stating
a duplicate address exists. A technician would discover that which
of the following is true?a) Wrong gatewayb) Evil twinc) IP address
conflictd) Wrong subnet mask
Question 23.
Which of the following layers is the presentation layer?a) Layer
3b) Layer 5c) Layer 6d) Layer 7
Question 24.
When differentiating hubs from switches, which of the following
is FALSE?a) Hubs have multiple collision domains.b) Switches have
multiple collision domains.c) Switches have a single broadcast
domain.d) Hubs have a single broadcast domain.
Question 25.
Which of the following connector types are MOST commonly
associated with phone jacks?a) RJ-11b) STc) RJ-45d) SC
Question 26.
Which of the following 802.11 channels operates above 5GHz?a)
ab) bc) gd) i
Question 27.
Which of the following allows the LONGEST distance using
single-mode fiber?a) 10GBaseSRb) 10GBaseERc) 10GBaseSWd)
10GBaseLW
Question 28.
A switch can separate different subnets by configuring:a) VTP on
each switchb) trunking on all portsc) VLANs throughout the portsd)
STP on the main ports
Question 29.
At which of the following layers does the HTTP protocol
operate?a) Layer 1b) Layer 4c) Layer 5d) Layer 7
Question 30.
Which of the following WAN technology types provides the FASTEST
speeds?a) OC3b) SDSLc) ADSLd) T3CompTIA Network+ Practice Question
AnswersQuestion 1.
Objective: Given a scenario, install and configure routers and
switches.
The IEEE standard 802.3af states the specifications for which of
the following?a) Quality of Serviceb) VLANsc) Routing tablesd)
Power over Ethernet
Question 2.
Objective: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common router and
switch problems.
A user's remote marketing server has changed IP address schemes
and now the user can no longer access it. The user further
discovers that the distant end still has access to them. Which of
the following is a possible cause?a) SNMP strings need to be
addedb) Firewall rules need to be configuredc) Port bonding on the
interface needs to be enabledd) The switch has lost power
Question 3.
Objective: Explain the purpose and features of various network
appliances.Which of the following is a network device that allows
remote users access to a network?a) DNS serverb) Content filterc)
Load balancerd) VPN concentrator
Question 4.
Objective: Given a scenario, use the appropriate network
monitoring resource to analyze traffic.A technician suspects that a
virus has been introduced on the network. Which network resource is
BEST used to confirm this problem?a) Syslogb) SNMPc) Network
snifferd) Environmental monitor
Question 5.
Objective: Given a scenario, implement the following network
troubleshooting methodology.A user reports a network connectivity
problem. Which of the following steps should the technician perform
FIRST?a) Determine a probable causeb) Implement the solution of the
causec) Test the theory of the caused) Identify the problem
Question 6.
Objective: Explain the function of common networking
protocols.Which of the following protocols is used by a web browser
to display a web page?a) SMTPb) FTPc) HTTPd) IMAP4
Question 7.
Objective: Summarize DNS concepts and its components.
Which of the following record types is required for every server
in a DNS environment?a) AAAb) MXc) SFPd) A
Question 8.
Objective: Compare and contrast different wireless
standards.
The frequency of the 802.11b and 802.11g is which of the
following?a) 2.4GHzb) 900MHzc) 5GHzd) 1800MHz
Question 9.
Objective: Identify common TCP and UDP default ports.
Which of the following uses port 22 by default?a) TELNETb) SSHc)
FTPd) DNS
Question 10.
Objective: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common wireless
problems.
A user is unable to connect to a network with encryption. The
user is able to see the network and has the correct passphrase.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?a) Encryption
typeb) SSID mismatchc) Standard mismatchd) Signal strength
Question 11.
Objective: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common physical
connectivity problems.
A technician is troubleshooting a UTP cable that has been
suspected of having problems due to EMI. Which of the following
cables should the technician use without adding new equipment to
the network? a) Singlemode fiberb) STPc) Plenumd) Multimode
fiber
Question 12.
Objective: Describe different network topologies.
Which of the following network topologies describes a network
where packets of data are transmitted from one computer to another
in a circular fashion?a) Ringb) Meshc) Busd) Star
Question 13.
Objective: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common physical
connectivity problems.
Which of the following defines the length of time a device
retains its IP address for?a) Scopeb) Reservationc) Subnetd)
Lease
Question 14.
Objective: Identify virtual network components.
Which of the following virtual devices is the BEST to use to
host a company's website?a) PBXb) Serverc) Switchd) Desktop
Question 15.
Objective: Categorize standard media types and associated
properties.
A cable standard that includes a fire-retardant jacket is:a)
coaxial cableb) fiber cablec) plenum cabled) UTP cable
Question 16.
Objective: Given a scenario use appropriate hardware tools to
troubleshoot connectivity issues .
A new drop is active according to the network administrator. A
technician takes a laptop to the new drop to test connectivity and
gets an intermittent signal. Which of the following tools could the
technician use to test the line?a) Environmental monitorb) Toner
probec) Protocol analyzerd) Cable tester
Question 17.
Objective: Given a scenario, implement appropriate wireless
security measures.
An administrator works for a law firm in an office building in a
major city. After installing a new wireless access point, the
administrator secures the device using WPA and then connects to it
using a laptop. Which of the following would be the logical NEXT
step in securing the device?a) Add a second SSID broadcast to the
access point and name it the same as a neighboring companyb) Change
the wireless encryption type to WEPc) Remove the antennasd) Check
neighboring offices for connectivity and reduce the signal strength
appropriately
Question 18.
Objective: Given a scenario and a set of requirements, plan and
implement a basic SOHO network.
An administrator is asked to set up a home office for a user who
would like to connect to the Internet and share files with all six
computers in the home. Which of the following are the MINIMUM
requirements if the user refuses to install wireless devices and
all computers contain working network cards?a) Hub, Cables,
Firewallb) Firewall, Router, Cablesc) Switch, Firewall, Cablesd)
Router, Switch, Cables
Question 19.
Objective: Given a scenario use appropriate software tools to
troubleshoot connectivity issues.
The command netstat n will display which of the following?a)
Ethernet statisticsb) IP addressc) Address and port numbers in
numerical formd) Protocol statistics
Question 20.
Objective: Identify components of wiring distribution.
A business has expanded to additional floors in the building.
The expansion only calls for switches and patch panels to be
installed. Which of the following would the network manager need to
locate?a) MDFb) Demarcc) Smart jackd) IDF
Question 21.
Objective: Given a scenario, install and configure a wireless
network.
A network administrator needs to implement a new wireless
network for a coffee shop. The shop wants to allow users wireless
access from anywhere in the shop, but not outside. Which of the
following should be the GREATEST concern for the administrator?a)
Channelb) Compatibilityc) WAP placementd) Interference
Question 22.
Objective: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common router and
switch problems.
A user receives an information message on their computer stating
a duplicate address exists. A technician would discover that which
of the following is true?a) Wrong gatewayb) Evil twinc) IP address
conflictd) Wrong subnet mask
Question 23.
Objective: Compare the layers of the OSI and TCP/IP models.Which
of the following layers is the presentation layer?a) Layer 3b)
Layer 5c) Layer 6d) Layer 7
Question 24.
Objective: Explain the purpose and properties of routing and
switching.When differentiating hubs from switches, which of the
following is FALSE?a) Hubs have multiple collision domains.b)
Switches have multiple collision domains.c) Switches have a single
broadcast domain.d) Hubs have a single broadcast domain.
Question 25.
Objective: Categorize standard connector types based on network
media.
Which of the following connector types are MOST commonly
associated with phone jacks?a) RJ-11b) STc) RJ-45d) SC
Question 26.
Objective: Compare and contrast different wireless
standards.
Which of the following 802.11 channels operates above 5GHz?a)
ab) bc) gd) i
Question 27.
Objective: Compare and contrast different LAN technologies.
Which of the following allows the LONGEST distance using
single-mode fiber?a) 10GBaseSRb) 10GBaseERc) 10GBaseSWd)
10GBaseLW
Question 28.
Objective: Given a scenario, install and configure routers and
switches.
A switch can separate different subnets by configuring:a) VTP on
each switchb) trunking on all portsc) VLANs throughout the portsd)
STP on the main ports
Question 29.
Objective: Classify how applications, devices, and protocols
relate to the OSI model layers.
At which of the following layers does the HTTP protocol
operate?a) Layer 1b) Layer 4c) Layer 5d) Layer 7
Question 30.
Objective: Categorize WAN technology types and properties.
Which of the following WAN technology types provides the FASTEST
speeds?a) OC3b) SDSLc) ADSLd) T3CompTIA Security+ Practice
QuestionsQuestion 1.
Which of the following BEST describes both change and incident
management?a) Incident management is not a valid term in IT,
however change management isb) Change management is not a valid
term in IT, however incident management isc) Incident management
and change management are interchangeable terms meaning the same
thingd) Incident management is for unexpected consequences, change
management is for planned work
Question 2.
Which of the following account policy controls requires a user
to enter a 15 character alpha-numerical password?a) Disablementb)
Lengthc) Expirationd) Password complexity
Question 3.
Which of the following information types would be considered
personally identifiable information?a) First nameb) Email addressc)
Date of birthd) Last name
Question 4.
Which of the following is the benefit of single file versus full
disk encryption?a) Encryption is preserved in full disk encryption
when a file is copied from one media to anotherb) Encryption is
preserved in single file encryption when a file is copied from one
media to anotherc) Single file encryption provides better security
when decrypting single files than full disk encryption when
properly implemented and usedd) Full disk encryption provides
better security when decrypting single files than single file
encryption when properly implemented and used
Question 5.
Which of the following is another name for a CAC?a) Tokenb)
RFIDc) MACd) PIV
Question 6.
Which of the following operating systems offers Trusted OS
capabilities by default?a) Windows Vistab) Windows 7c) SE Linuxd)
Backtrack
Question 7.
Which of the following describes a common operational problem
when using patch management software that results in a false sense
of security?a) Conflicts with vulnerability scans impede patch
effectivenessb) Distributed updates may fail to apply or may not be
active until a rebootc) Vendor patches are released too frequently
consuming excessive network bandwidthd) It is resource intensive to
test all patches
Question 8.
Which of the following is BEST identified as an attacker who has
or is about to use a Logic bomb?a) Grey hatb) Malicious insiderc)
White hatd) Black box
Question 9.
Which of the following is the BEST choice in regards to training
staff members on dealing with PII? a) PII requires public access
but must be flagged as confidentialb) PII data breaches are always
the result of negligent staff and punishable by lawc) PII must be
handled properly in order to minimize security breaches and
mishandlingd) PII must be stored in an encrypted fashion and only
printed on shared printers
Question 10.
Which of the following processes are used to avoid employee
exhaustion and implement a system of checks and balances?a) Job
rotationb) Incident responsec) Least privileged) On-going
security
Question 11.
When designing secure LDAP compliant applications, null
passwords should NOT be allowed because:a) null password can be
changed by all users on a networkb) a null password is a successful
anonymous bindc) null passwords can only be changed by the
administratord) LDAP passwords are one-way encrypted
Question 12.
A security administrator visits a remote data center dressed as
a delivery person. Which of the following is MOST likely being
conducted?a) Social engineeringb) Remote accessc) Vulnerability
scand) Trojan horse
Question 13.
Mobile devices used in the enterprise should be administered
using:a) encrypted networks and system loggingb) full disk
encryption and central password managementc) vendor provided
software update systemsd) centrally managed update services and
access controls
Question 14.
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to implement
widespread network and hardware changes within the organization.
The CIO has adopted an aggressive deployment schedule and does not
want to bother with documentation, because it will slow down the
deployment. Which of the following are the risks associated with
not documenting the changes?a) Undocumented networks might not be
protected and can be used to support insider attacksb) Documenting
a network hinders production because it is time consuming and ties
up critical resourcesc) Documented networks provide a visual
representation of the network for an attacker to exploitd)
Undocumented networks ensure the confidentiality and secrecy of the
network topology
Question 15.
Which of the following could mitigate shoulder surfing?a)
Privacy screensb) Hashingc) Man trapsd) Screen locks
Question 16.
Which of the following passwords is the MOST complex?a)
5@rAru99b) CarL8241gc) j1l!1b5d) l@ur0
Question 17.
Which of the following is being utilized when the BIOS and
operating systems responsibility is platform integrity?a) SSLb) USB
encryptionc) Data loss preventiond) TPM
Question 18.
Which of the following BEST describes a Buffer Overflow attack
that allows access to a remote system?a) The attacker attempts to
have the receiving server run a payload using programming commonly
found on web serversb) The attacker overwhelms a system or
application, causing it to crash and bring the server down to cause
an outagec) The attacker attempts to have the receiving server pass
information to a back-end database from which it can compromise the
stored informationd) The attacker overwhelms a system or
application, causing it to crash, and then redirects the memory
address to read from a location holding the payload
Question 19.
A company fails to monitor and maintain the HVAC system in the
datacenter. Which of the following is the MOST likely to affect
availability of systems?a) Employee productivity in a hot
datacenterb) Premature failure of componentsc) Decreased number of
systems in the datacenterd) Increased utility costs
Question 20.
Which of the following protocols is defined in RFC 1157 as
utilizing UDP ports 161 and 162?a) SNMPb) IPSecc) SSLd) TLS
Question 21.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to have a legitimate
business purpose?a) Metasploitb) Vulnerability scannerc)
Steganographyd) Port scanner
Question 22.
Which of the following does full disk encryption on a laptop
computer NOT protect against?a) Confidentiality of the datab) Key
loggersc) Theft of the datad) Disclosure of the data
Question 23.
Which of the following passwords exemplifies the STRONGEST
complexity?a) Passw0rdb) P@ssw0rdc) Passwrdd) passwordpassword
Question 24.
Which following port ranges would give a technician the MOST
comprehensive port scan of a server?a) 1024-15000b) 0-99999c)
0-65535d) 0-1024
Question 25.
Which of the following attacks steals contacts from a mobile
device?a) Bluesnarfingb) Smurf attackc) Session hijackingd)
Bluejacking
Question 26.
Which of the following attacks sends unwanted messages to a
mobile device?a) Session hijackingb) Smurf attackc) Bluejackingd)
Bluesnarfing
Question 27.
A smurf attack relies on which protocol to perform a Denial of
Service?a) DNSb) SNMPc) SMTPd) ICMP
Question 28.
Which of the following allows for multiple operating systems to
run on a single piece of hardware?a) Virtualizationb) Port
securityc) Remote accessd) DMZ
Question 29.
A user name is an example of which of the following?a)
Identificationb) Authenticationc) Authorizationd) Access
Question 30.
The CRL contains a list of: a) private keysb) public keysc) root
certificatesd) valid certificates
CompTIA Security+ Practice Question AnswersQuestion 1.
Objective: Carry out appropriate risk mitigation strategies.
Which of the following BEST describes both change and incident
management?a) Incident management is not a valid term in IT,
however change management isb) Change management is not a valid
term in IT, however incident management isc) Incident management
and change management are interchangeable terms meaning the same
thingd) Incident management is for unexpected consequences, change
management is for planned work
Question 2.
Objective: Implement appropriate security controls when
performing account management.
Which of the following account policy controls requires a user
to enter a 15 character alpha-numerical password?a) Disablementb)
Lengthc) Expirationd) Password complexity
Question 3.
Objective: Implement appropriate security controls when
performing account management.
Which of the following information types would be considered
personally identifiable information?a) First name b) Email
addressc) Date of birthd) Last name
Question 4.
Objective: Explain the importance of data security.
Which of the following is the benefit of single file versus full
disk encryption?a) Encryption is preserved in full disk encryption
when a file is copied from one media to anotherb) Encryption is
preserved in single file encryption when a file is copied from one
media to anotherc) Single file encryption provides better security
when decrypting single files than full disk encryption when
properly implemented and usedd) Full disk encryption provides
better security when decrypting single files than single file
encryption when properly implemented and used
Question 5.
Objective: Explain the fundamental concepts and best practices
related to authentication, authorization and access control.
Which of the following is another name for a CAC?a) Tokenb)
RFIDc) MACd) PIV
Question 6.
Objective: Explain the fundamental concepts and best practices
related to authentication, authorization and access control.
Which of the following operating systems offers Trusted OS
capabilities by default?a) Windows Vistab) Windows 7c) SE Linuxd)
Backtrack
Question 7.
Objective: Carry out appropriate procedures to establish host
security.
Which of the following describes a common operational problem
when using patch management software that results in a false sense
of security?a) Conflicts with vulnerability scans impede patch
effectivenessb) Distributed updates may fail to apply or may not be
active until a rebootc) Vendor patches are released too frequently
consuming excessive network bandwidthd) It is resource intensive to
test all patches
Question 8.
Objective: Analyze and differentiate among types of attacks.
Which of the following is BEST identified as an attacker who has
or is about to use a Logic bomb?a) Grey hatb) Malicious insiderc)
White hatd) Black box
Question 9.
Objective: Explain the importance of security related awareness
and training.
Which of the following is the BEST choice in regards to training
staff members on dealing with PII? a) PII requires public access
but must be flagged as confidentialb) PII data breaches are always
the result of negligent staff and punishable by lawc) PII must be
handled properly in order to minimize security breaches and
mishandlingd) PII must be stored in an encrypted fashion and only
printed on shared printers
Question 10.
Objective: Explain the importance of data security.
Which of the following processes are used to avoid employee
exhaustion and implement a system of checks and balances?a) Job
rotationb) Incident responsec) Least privileged) On-going
security
Question 11.
Objective: Explain risk related concepts.
When designing secure LDAP compliant applications, null
passwords should NOT be allowed because:a) null password can be
changed by all users on a networkb) a null password is a successful
anonymous bindc) null passwords can only be changed by the
administratord) LDAP passwords are one-way encrypted
Question 12.
Objective: Explain the fundamental concepts and best practices
related to authentication, authorization and access control.
A security administrator visits a remote data center dressed as
a delivery person. Which of the following is MOST likely being
conducted?a) Social engineeringb) Remote accessc) Vulnerability
scand) Trojan horse
Question 13.
Objective: Analyze and differentiate among types of social
engineering attacks.
Mobile devices used in the enterprise should be administered
using:a) encrypted networks and system loggingb) full disk
encryption and central password managementc) vendor provided
software update systemsd) centrally managed update services and
access controls
Question 14.
Objective: Implement appropriate security controls when
performing account management.
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to implement
widespread network and hardware changes within the organization.
The CIO has adopted an aggressive deployment schedule and does not
want to bother with documentation, because it will slow down the
deployment. Which of the following are the risks associated with
not documenting the changes?a) Undocumented networks might not be
protected and can be used to support insider attacksb) Documenting
a network hinders production because it is time consuming and ties
up critical resourcesc) Documented networks provide a visual
representation of the network for an attacker to exploitd)
Undocumented networks ensure the confidentiality and secrecy of the
network topology
Question 15.
Objective: Carry out appropriate risk mitigation strategies.
Which of the following could mitigate shoulder surfing?a)
Privacy screensb) Hashingc) Man trapsd) Screen locks
Question 16.
Objective: Analyze and differentiate among types of mitigation
and deterrent techniques .
Which of the following passwords is the MOST complex?a)
5@rAru99b) CarL8241gc) j1l!1b5d) l@ur0
Question 17.
Objective: Implement appropriate security controls when
performing account management.
Which of the following is being utilized when the BIOS and
operating systems responsibility is platform integrity?a) SSLb) USB
encryptionc) Data loss preventiond) TPM
Question 18.
Objective: Explain the importance of data security.
Which of the following BEST describes a Buffer Overflow attack
that allows access to a remote system?a) The attacker attempts to
have the receiving server run a payload using programming commonly
found on web serversb) The attacker overwhelms a system or
application, causing it to crash and bring the server down to cause
an outagec) The attacker attempts to have the receiving server pass
information to a back-end database from which it can compromise the
stored informationd) The attacker overwhelms a system or
application, causing it to crash, and then redirects the memory
address to read from a location holding the payload
Question 19.
Objective: Analyze and differentiate among types of application
attacks.A company fails to monitor and maintain the HVAC system in
the datacenter. Which of the following is the MOST likely to affect
availability of systems?a) Employee productivity in a hot
datacenterb) Premature failure of componentsc) Decreased number of
systems in the datacenterd) Increased utility costs
Question 20.
Objective: Explain the impact and proper use of environmental
controls.Which of the following protocols is defined in RFC 1157 as
utilizing UDP ports 161 and 162?a) SNMPb) IPSecc) SSLd) TLS
Question 21.
Objective: Explain the impact and proper use of environmental
controls.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to have a legitimate
business purpose?a) Metasploitb) Vulnerability scannerc)
Steganographyd) Port scanner
Question 22.
Objective: Explain the importance of data security.Which of the
following does full disk encryption on a laptop computer NOT
protect against?a) Confidentiality of the datab) Key loggersc)
Theft of the datad) Disclosure of the data
Question 23.
Objective: Implement appropriate security controls when
performing account management.Which of the following passwords
exemplifies the STRONGEST complexity?a) Passw0rdb) P@ssw0rdc)
Passwrdd) passwordpassword
Question 24.
Objective: Implement assessment tools and techniques to discover
security threats and vulnerabilities. Which following port ranges
would give a technician the MOST comprehensive port scan of a
server?a) 1024-15000b) 0-99999c) 0-65535d) 0-1024
Question 25.
Objective: Analyze and differentiate among types of wireless
attacks.Which of the following attacks steals contacts from a
mobile device?a) Bluesnarfingb) Smurf attackc) Session hijackingd)
Bluejacking
Question 26.
Objective: Analyze and differentiate among types of wireless
attacks. Which of the following attacks sends unwanted messages to
a mobile device?a) Session hijackingb) Smurf attackc) Bluejackingd)
Bluesnarfing
Question 27.
Objective: Analyze and differentiate among types of attacks.A
smurf attack relies on which protocol to perform a Denial of
Service?a) DNSb) SNMPc) SMTPd) ICMP
Question 28.
Objective: Distinguish and differentiate network design elements
and components. Which of the following allows for multiple
operating systems to run on a single piece of hardware?a)
Virtualizationb) Port securityc) Remote accessd) DMZ
Question 29.
Objective: Explain the fundamental concepts and best practices
related to authentication, authorization and access control.A user
name is an example of which of the following?a) Identificationb)
Authenticationc) Authorizationd) Access
Question 30.
Objective: Explain the core concepts of public key
infrastructure. The CRL contains a list of: a) private keysb)
public keysc) root certificatesd) valid certificatesCompTIA
Healthcare IT Certificate Practice QuestionsQuestion 1.
The technician receives a secured email reporting that a
physician is unable to order a medication in the order entry field.
Which of the following is the BEST step to take? a) Route the issue
to the next support tier for further troubleshooting. b) Check to
see if any other tickets have been called in with the same issue
and begin proper protocols.c) Tell the physician to explore the
knowledge base to see if there is a solution. d) Email the
physician back and tell them no other staff members are having this
problem.
Question 2.
HIPAA federal regulations require retaining medical records
following the death of a patient for which of the following number
of years? a) 1b) 2c) 3d) 4
Question 3.
Which of the following access roles should a Medical Records
staff have when accessing an EHR/EMR system? a) Technician b)
Clerical c) LPN d) Office Manager
Question 4.
When using a cloud based EMR/EHR solution, which of the
following should a medical facility focus on to make sure that
application performance is not compromised? (Select TWO). a)
Anti-virus definition updatesb) Server updates and patchingc)
Operating System licensingd) VPN access to the medical facilitys
LANe) Internet connection redundancyf) Internet browser
compatibility, uniformity, and security
Question 5.
Which of the following is the difference between DHCP assigned
addresses and statically assigned addresses? a) DHCP addresses are
assigned based on the MAC address of the NIC. Static addresses are
assigned based on the broadcast address of a subnet.b) DHCP
addresses are assigned based on the CPU serial number. Static
addresses are assigned according to a scheme set by the network
administrator.c) DHCP addresses are assigned by a defined scope
through a networking protocol. Statically assigned addresses are
assigned through user intervention.d) DHCP addresses are assigned
automatically and are the same every time a NIC becomes active.
Static addresses have to be entered and are the same all the
time.
Question 6.
A physician dictates a report on a radiology exam. Which of the
following clinical processes would come NEXT on the report
workflow? a) Transcriptionb) Billingc) Codingd) Procedure
Question 7.
Which of the following keeps PHI secure during the transcription
process? a) Password protected desktops and databasesb) Tape
dictations converted to an electronic formatc) Encrypted
transmissions between a desktop and serverd) Employee training on
any HIPAA changes
Question 8.
Which of the following is the MINIMUM required tier of storage
facility for backups containing ePHI? a) Tier 1b) Tier 4c) Tier 3d)
Tier 2
Question 9.
Which of the following are MOST important in regards to a HIPAA
compliant contingency plan? (Select TWO). a) Data encryptionb)
Backup testingc) Media typed) Delivery speede) Backup frequencyf)
Tape size
Question 10.
It is determined that the EMR/EHR is down, but all other
clinical tools are accessible. Which of the following people should
the technician contact FIRST? a) Network Support Teamb) EMR/EHR
Support Teamc) Vendor Support Teamd) Database Support Team CompTIA
Healthcare IT Certificate Practice QuestionsQuestion 1.
The technician receives a secured email reporting that a
physician is unable to order a medication in the order entry field.
Which of the following is the BEST step to take? a) Route the issue
to the next support tier for further troubleshooting. b) Check to
see if any other tickets have been called in with the same issue
and begin proper protocols.c) Tell the physician to explore the
knowledge base to see if there is a solution. d) Email the
physician back and tell them no other staff members are having this
problem.
Question 2.
HIPAA federal regulations require retaining medical records
following the death of a patient for which of the following number
of years? a) 1b) 2c) 3d) 4
Question 3.
Which of the following access roles should a Medical Records
staff have when accessing an EHR/EMR system? a) Technician b)
Clerical c) LPN d) Office Manager
Question 4.
When using a cloud based EMR/EHR solution, which of the
following should a medical facility focus on to make sure that
application performance is not compromised? (Select TWO). a)
Anti-virus definition updatesb) Server updates and patchingc)
Operating System licensingd) VPN access to the medical facilitys
LANe) Internet connection redundancyf) Internet browser
compatibility, uniformity, and security
Question 5.
Which of the following is the difference between DHCP assigned
addresses and statically assigned addresses? a) DHCP addresses are
assigned based on the MAC address of the NIC. Static addresses are
assigned based on the broadcast address of a subnet.b) DHCP
addresses are assigned based on the CPU serial number. Static
addresses are assigned according to a scheme set by the network
administrator.c) DHCP addresses are assigned by a defined scope
through a networking protocol. Statically assigned addresses are
assigned through user intervention.d) DHCP addresses are assigned
automatically and are the same every time a NIC becomes active.
Static addresses have to be entered and are the same all the
time.
Question 6.
A physician dictates a report on a radiology exam. Which of the
following clinical processes would come NEXT on the report
workflow? a) Transcriptionb) Billingc) Codingd) Procedure
Question 7.
Which of the following keeps PHI secure during the transcription
process? a) Password protected desktops and databasesb) Tape
dictations converted to an electronic formatc) Encrypted
transmissions between a desktop and serverd) Employee training on
any HIPAA changes
Question 8.
Which of the following is the MINIMUM required tier of storage
facility for backups containing ePHI? a) Tier 1b) Tier 4c) Tier 3d)
Tier 2
Question 9.
Which of the following are MOST important in regards to a HIPAA
compliant contingency plan? (Select TWO). a) Data encryptionb)
Backup testingc) Media typed) Delivery speede) Backup frequencyf)
Tape size
Question 10.
It is determined that the EMR/EHR is down, but all other
clinical tools are accessible. Which of the following people should
the technician contact FIRST? a) Network Support Teamb) EMR/EHR
Support Teamc) Vendor Support Teamd) Database Support Team