476 Veterinary Science Animal Husbandry Question Bank

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONVETERINARY SCIENCE & ANIMAL HUSBANDRY

NOTE:- Tick Mark the Most Appropriate Answe from the following.1. Punched ulcers in abomasums of cattle are characteristic of :

a. Theilaria annulatab. Babesia bigeminac. Haemonchus contortusd. Ostertagia ostertagi

2. Typical sign of ripened abscess isa. Swellingb. Pain c. Fluctuationd. Pointing

3. Operation flood I was launched during (a) 1960

(b) 1970 (c) 1980

(b) 1982.4. When world environmental day celebrated…..

a) 15th Juneb) 5th Julyc) 15th Julyd) 5th June

5. Right side displacement of abomasums is usually caused after a) Immediately postpartumb) 2-4 weeks postpartumc) During gestationd) 9-12 months postpartum

6. The term that refers to the percentage of packed erythrocytes per unit volume of blood is the:a. Differential Count b. Hemoglobin c. Hematocrit d. Hemopoiesis

7. Which of the following enzymes are present in the acrosome of the bovine sperm?a. Trypsin b. Adenylate cyclase

c. Phospholipase C (PLC) d. Acrosin

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8. Which of the following is the smallest compartment of the ruminant stomach?a. Rumenb. Reticulumc. Omasumd. Abomasum

9. Blood is added in blood medium agar at following concentration: a) 5-10 % b) 15 %

c) 20 % d) 2 %

10. The 5 carbon sugar compound present in DNA molecule is:a. Erythroseb. Deoxyribosec. Ribosed. Ribulose

11. Study of birds which are not classed as poultry is known asa. Poultry Scienceb. Ornithologyc. Bird Scienced. Poultry Production

12. Inhibition of aggregation of plateletsa) Aspirineb) Urokinasec) Thromboxane A2d) Streptokinase

13. Gajrai grass is the fodder grass belong to groupa. Seasonalb. Annualc. Perennial d. None

14. Which of the following will be the number of chromosomes in the sperm of a Sahiwal bull?a) 30b) 60c) 50d) 25

15. Skim milk powder is a byproduct ofa) Industrialb) Grainc) Cereald) Roughage

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16. East coast fever in cattle is caused by :(a) Theileria(b) Trypanosoma(c) Babesia(d) None

17. Wound does not heal is known asa. Maggot woundb. Ulcer c. Infected wound d. Contaminated wound

18. 73rd amendment act 1992 was introduced to strengthen a Dairy development b Community development c Panchayat development d Co-operative development19. CFC’s are responsible for depletion of…..

a) Ozone b) Oxygenc) Carbond) Nitrogen

20. Serum calcium and phosphorus concentration in nutritional dystrophies maya) Increase above normal level b) decrease above normal level

c) Decrease appreciably d) remain with-in normal range

21. Which of the following is a circulating blood cell that is capable of differentiating into a plasma cell? a. Neutrophil b. Basophil c. B lymphocyte d. T lymphocyte

22. After ovulation, which of the following is most important for the rapid movement of the oocyte to the ampular-isthmic junction of the oviduct?a. Fluid production by the isthmusb. Cillilary beating in the ampullac. Muscle contractions in the ampullad. The presence of cumulus cells surrounding the oocyte at ovulation.

23. Which is the hardest substance in the animal body?a. Boneb. Cartilagec. Enameld. Dentine

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24. Nucleic acid present in virusa) DNA b) RNA c) Either DNA or RNA d) Both DNA and RNA

25. The synthesis of new DNA strand on template strand takes place in the direction of:a. 3’-5’b. 5’-3’c. In both the directionsd. In 3’-5’ on leading strand and in 5’-3’ direction on lagging strand

26. Study of birds which are classed as poultry is known asa. Poultry Scienceb. Ornithologyc. Bird Scienced. Poultry Production

27. Verapamil blocks transport of a) Sodium ionb) Chloride ionc) Calcium iond) Potassium ion

28. Subabul is the grass originated in the countrya. Maxicob. U. S. A.c. Brazild. India

29. Genotype of purebred Rose comb hen should bea) RrPpb) RRPpc) RRppd) rrpp

30. Example of protein isa) Peptideb) Aminec) Amino acidd) Glutamine

31. Caecal coccidiosis in fowl is due to which of the following :(a) Eimeria precox(b) Eimeria mutis(c) Eimeria tenella(d) Eimeria brunetti

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32. The main cause of death in case of burn during latter stage is a. Hypovolemiab. Blood lossc. Asphyxiad. Secondary infection

33. Ranching is common practice in (A) India

(B) Australia (C) Japan

(D) USA34. Humidity is measured by…..

a) Luxmeterb) Dry bulb thermometerc) Wet bulb thermometerd) Chlorinometer

35. Increase survival rate of S. pullorum infected chick embryo is achieved by drug

a) Chloramphenicol b) Furazolidon

c) Oxytetracycline d) Colistin

36. The component of plasma responsible for maintaining the osmotic pressure of blood is: a. Plasmin b. Albumin c. Fibrinogen d. Gamma globulin

37. Following artificial insemination in the cow, increased retrograde flow will occur if semen is placed in which of the following locations?a. Cervixb. Uterine bodyc. Uterine horn, at the greater curvature (half way up the uterine horn)d. At the distal tip of the uterine horn

38. Which is the largest foramen in the skull?a. Foramen magnumb. Supraorbital foramen c. Infra orbital foramen d. Mantel foramen

39. Short hair like projections for attachment and genetic transfer in bacteria are: a) Flagellab) Fimbria c) Plasmid d) All

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40. The autonomously replicating extra-chromosomal double stranded DNA molecule present in bacteria is called:a. Plasmidb. Episomec. Phaged. Transposon

41. Modern chicken are descendents of the which following wild speciesa. Gallus sonerattib. Gallus lafeyettic. Gallus variusd. Gallus gallus

42. The most appropriate anticoagulant used for collection of blood for blood glucose estimation a) Sodium EDTAb) Sodium fluoridec) Heparind) Sodium oxalate

43. Swath curing is the method apply toa. Cutting the cropb. Hay makingc. Silage makingd. Straw making

44. The strength of selection is expressed as (a) Coefficient of selection

(b) Response to selection (c) Selection differential

(d) None45. Inflammation of lymph node is called as-

(A) Lymphangitis(B) Lymphadenitis(C) Typhilitis(D) Both (A) and (B).

46. Example of NPN isa) Albuminb) Amino acidc) Prolamined) Lignin

47. Example of anaerobic protozoa is :(a) Leishmania(b) Trichomonas(c) Trypanosoma(d) None of the above

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48. Last stage of wound healing is a. Wound contractionb. Epithelization c. Fibroplasiad. Vasodilatation

49. The approach in which people have their say in programmed planning is (A) Democratic

(B) Authoritative (C) Directive

(D) Laissez-faire50. The metal should not be used for storage of rain water is…..

a) Iron b) Galvanized ironc) Leadd) Copper

51. Virion of avian infectious bronchitis has a shape of a) Globules with cilia

b) crown like projection c) Oval shaped body

d) elliptical round body52. Plasma is:

a. Blood that has no red blood cells b. The liquid portion of blood including the clotting factors c. The liquid portion of blood minus the clotting factors d. The proteins of blood

53. The concentration of sperm in the ejaculate would be highest among which of the following farm animal species?a. Bull b. Ramc. Boar d Stallion

54. Which of the bone is the hardest bone in the animal body?a. Femurb. Tibiac. Petrous temporald. Humerus

55. The term antibiotic was first used by: a) Domagk b) Fleming

c) Waksmand) Robert Koch

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56. The scientists associated with discovery of “restriction endonucleases”:a. Lederbergb. Kelly & Smithc. Dulbeccod. Korenberg

57. National Institutes of Nutrition (NIN) to Government of India has recommended eggs and poultry meat consumption per capita per annum area. 18 eggs and 9 kg of poultry meatb. 180 eggs and 0.90 kg of poultry meatc. 180 eggs and 9.0 kg of poultry meatd. 180 eggs and 11.0 kg of poultry meat

58. Receptors of CTZ stimulated by centrally acting emetics area) α1

b) α2

c) 1

d) Dopamine59. For ensiling the fodder crop should contain moisture percent

a. 40 to 50b. 50 to 60c. 65 to 70d. 70 to 75

60. What will be the phenotypic ratio in progenies from a cross between creeper and normal fowla) 1:1b) 3:1c) 9:7d) 2:1

61. DCP content of Guinea grassa) 50%b) 5%c) 15%d) 1%

62. Disease of poultry which is not caused by virus is-(A) Chronic respiratory Disease(B) Infectious Bronchitis(C) Fowl Pox(D) Ranikhet Disease.

63. Wild game is reservoir host for which parasite :(a) Trypanosoma evansi(b) Taenia(c) Entamoeba histolytica(d) Coccidia

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64. The best treatment of fistula is a. Antibioticsb. Antibiotics and corticosteroids c. Surgical removald. Counter irritants

65. In IRDP, SC/ST and physical handicapped beneficiaries are provided subsidy @ Percent (A) 10

(B) 25 (C) 33

(D) 5066. Among following is the safest source of drinking water…..

a) Shallow wellb) Surface waterc) Riverd) Deep well

67. If vomition due to metabolic acidosis suggested fluid therapy is a) Ringers lactate

b) Normal saline c) Dextrose saline

d) Dextrose saline 20% 68. Excessive destruction of erythrocytes is characteristic of:

a. Thalassemia b. Aplastic anemia c. Pernicious anemia d. Hemolytic anemia

69. Which of the following are examples of the maturation function in the epididymis?a. Removal of protoplasmic dropletsb. Concentration of spermc. Secretion of glycoproteins by principle cellsd. Contractions of smooth muscle

70. Which of the following is tendineous linear sheet present at the abdominal floor?a. Linea albab. Rectus abdominisc. Fasciad. Tendoachillis

71. Agar is a source of carbohydrate to:a) Most of the bacteria b) Only a few bacteria c) None of the bacteria d) All the bacteria

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72. The acquisition of DNA molecule by bacterial cells from environment is called:a. Transformationb. Transductionc. Conjugationd. None

73. First poultry show was held at Boston in the yeara. 1838b. 1870c. 1861d. 1849

74. Agar acts as aa) Catharticsb) Emollient purgativec) Bulk purgatived) Osmotic purgative

75. Mango seed kernel is the byproduct of industrya. Canning industryb. Oil industryc. Gluten industryd. None

76. Proportion of Roan polled progenies from a cross between Red polled (Pp) and white polled (Pp) cow will bea) 0.25b) 0.50c) 0.75d) 0.60

77. Bronze discolouration of Liver in poultry is caused by-(A) Pasteurellosis(B) IBD Virus(C) Leptospirosis(D) Salmonellosis

78. Rich source of carbohydratesa) Barleyb) Bone mealc) Cotton seedd) Dub grass

79. Tape worm increases in which of the following :(a) Liver(b) Caecum(c) Small intestine(d) None

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80. Typical sign of moist gangrene of tail isa. Erected hairsb. Immobility of tail c. Swellingd. Cold to touch

81. In First five year plan -------------programmed was started for development of animal Husbandry common alone

(A) Operation flood I(B) Key village scheme

(C) ICDP (D) Gosadan

82. Causative agent of undulant fever is…..a) Br. abortusb) Br. melitensisc) Br. suisd) Br. Equi

83. Coughing up of blood is termed as a) Haematemesis b) Epistaxsis

c) Metrorrhagia d) Haemoptysis84. A hematocrit of 80 would be considered:

a. Polycythemia b. Anemia c. Thrombocytopenia d. Leukemia

85. The ATP produced by sperm goes towards which of the following?a. Motilityb. Maturation of spermc. Lysis of corona radiate d. Transcription and translation

86. Which of the following is the longest ligament in the animal body?a. Broad ligament b. Umbilical ligament c. Supraspinatous ligamentd. Caudate ligament

87. Bacteria that grow at 50-550 C are known as:a) Psychrophiles b) Mesophiles c) Thermophiles d) Halophiles

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88. The ability of the cell to acquire DNA from environment is called:a. Competenceb. Compatibilityc. Interferenced. None of the above

89. Per capita availability of poultry eggs and meat are respectivelya. 44 nos. and 17.6 kg.b. 176 nos. and 44 kg.c. 44 nos. and 1.76 kg.d. 176 nos. and 4.4 kg

90. Acid rebound effect is observed witha) Sodium bicarbonateb) Sodium citratec) Sodium chlorided) Potassium iodide

91. Rotational stocking is the method ofa. Storage of feed b. Feeding of animalc. Grazing of animald. Management of pasture

92. The cross over percentage ranges betweena) 80 -100 %b) 50 -100 % c) 0- 50 %d) 50 – 80 %

93. Fragmentation of nucleus in a cell is termed as-(A) Pyknosis(B) Karyorrhexis(C) Karyolysis(D) Chromatolysis

94. Concentrate is a feed containing more than % TDNa) 20b) 10c) 60d) 30

95. Triangular and pyriform apparatus like cooked rice grain present in egg of :(a) Moniezia sp.(b) Hymenolepsis nana(c) Dipylidium sp(d) Taenia sp.

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96. Common site of occurrence of haematoma in dog isa. Earb. Eyelidc. Tail tipd. Digit

97. Prime goal of state department of animal husbandry and dairying is to provide -------- To the farmers

(A) Subsidy (B) Input

(C) Service (D) Semen

98. The causative agent of hydatidious is…..a) Echinococcus granulosab) Diphylobothrium spp.c) Taenia soliumd) Taenia saginata

99. Ptyakusn is a) Excessive secretion from brunners gland b) Excessive salivation c) Decrease secretion from salivary gland d) Decrease secretion of succus entericus100. During hemoglobin recycling in the spleen, heme is initially converted into:

a. Bilirubin b. Stercobilin c. Urobilin d. Urobilinogen

101. Failure of the blood testis barrier would directly preventa. Stem cell renewal. b. Spermatocytogenesis.c. Meiosis. d. Spermiogenesis.

102. Which of the following is unpaired skeletal muscle present in the animal body?a. Diaphragmb. Bicepbrachiic. Popliteus d. Quadriceps femoris

103. Nucleic acid not found in plasmids is:a) DNA

b) RNA c) either DNA or RNA d) Both DNA and RNA

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104. First Genome sequenced was of a. Bacteriophage λb. Bacteriophage φ X 174c. Haemophilus influenzad. Homo sapiens

105. Total contribution of poultry production to the National GDP of India is nearlya. 1.0 %b. 0.1 %c. 10 %d. 8 %

106. Which one of the following is a rate limiting step in adrenaline synthesis?a) Tyrosine to DOPAb) DOPA to Dopaminec) Dopamine to Nor-adrenalined) None of the above

107. The synonym of Anjan grass is a. Dhamanb. Shevaric. Ghamard. Jinjavo

108. Slow and fast feathering trait in poultry is a) Sex linkedb) sex limited traitc) sex influencedd) autosomal

109. Infectious Necrotic Hepatitis in sheep is caused by-(A) Leptospira sp.(B) Fasciola hepatica(C) Clostridium sp.(D) Heterakis gallinarum

110. Green fodder to be ensiled should have DM betweena) 50 to 60%b) 30 to 35%c) 20 to 25%d) 15 to 20%

111. All domestic animal is definitive host for which of the following :(a) Moniezia sp. .(b) Hymenolepsis nana(c) Dipylidium sp(d) Taenia sp.

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112. The best suture material for peritoneum in dog isa. Catgut # 1b. Catgut # 1/0c. Catgut # 2d. Catgut # 3

113. Programmed is the statement of situation ----- problem and solution(A) Physical resources (B) Objectives (C) Planning(D) Goal

114. Sellar’s staining technique is used for diagnosis of…..a) Rabiesb) Brucellosisc) Listeriosisd) Tuberculosis

115. Tympany of diaphragmatic hernia is a) Recurrent

b) Persistent c) Both 1and 2

d) None of the above116. All of the following conditions impair coagulation except:

a. Vascular spasm b. Vitamin K deficiency c. Severe hypocalcaemia d. Liver disease

117. Spherical bodies, weighing 0.45 – 0.9 kg, attached to the placenta of a normal calf comprising of an outer skin enclosing a mass of adipose connective tissue is known asa) Perosomus elumbis b) Amorphus globosus c) Otter calf d) Schistosomus reflexus

118. Which one of the following is the longest nerve in the animal body?a. Vagusb. Sciaticc. Femoral d. Median

119. Disposable articles are best sterilized by: a) Hot air oven b) Autoclave c) Gamma radiation d) Alcohol

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120. First bacterial genome sequenced was of a. Salmonella typimuriumb. Bacillus anthracisc. Pseudomonas aeruginosae. Haemophilus influenza

121. Female Hen has a following set of chromosomesa. Xxb. Xwc. Zzd. Zy

122. Which of the following drugs is used in treating digitalis arrhythmia?a) Lignocaineb) Quinidinec) Procainamided) None of the above

123. Medicago sativa is the botanical name ofa. Alfalfab. Berseemc. Guard. Cowpea

124. Stage of cell division in which chiasmata formation takes place isa) Metaphase Ib) Pachytenec) Diakinesisd) Anaphase

125. The animal resistant to Atherosclerosis is-(A) Cattle(B) Swine(C) Rabbit(D) Poultry.

126. Lucerne hay contains % TDNa) 10b) 30c) 20d) 50

127. In which tape worm, uterus is long transverse and dumble shape :(a) Stilesia hepatica(b) Thysanosoma actinoides(c) Thysaneizia giardia(d) Anaplocephala magna

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128. Which of the following is unpaired skeletal muscle present in the animal body?a. Diaphragmb. Bicepbrachiic. Popliteus d. Quadriceps femoris

129. Which one of the following is the longest nerve in the animal body?a. Vagusb. Sciaticc. Femoral d. Median

130. Which of the following is the largest nerve in the animal body?a. Radialb. Sciaticc. Femoral d. Median

131 Which one of the following nerve supplying to blood vessel?a. Vasomotarb. Sensoryc. Mixedd. Motar

132. Which of the following is a spindle shaped glandular stomach of the bird?a. proventriculus b. fundic partc. Gizzardd. pyloric part

133. In modern smoke house, we can control

a) Temperature

b) Moisture

c) Flavour

d) None of the above

134. Which of the following is a opening of abomasum into the duodenum?a. Pylorusb. cardiac. rima orisd. Isthmus faucium

135. Stage of cell division in which chiasmata formation takes place is17

a) Metaphase I b) Pachytenec) Diakinesisd) Anaphase

136. The Frequency for any class that is obtained by dividing the frequency for that class by the total number of observations is known as(a) Class frequency(b) Relative frequency(c) Cumulative frequency(d) Grouped frequency

137. The dose of a drug that kills 50 % of the population is known as(a) ED50

(b) LD50 (c) KD50 (d) Half life dose

138. Exchange of non homologous chromosome material is known asa) Translocation b) Crossingoverc) Duplicationd) Synapsis

139. The terms gene and genotype were coined by (a) Wilson(b) Johannsen(c) Mendel (d) Weisman

140. Spherical bodies, weighing 0.45 – 0.9 kg, attached to the placenta of a normal calf comprising of an outer skin enclosing a mass of adipose connective tissue is known asa) Perosomus elumbis b) Amorphus globosusc) Otter calf d) Schistosomus reflexus

141. Obturator paralysis is more common ina) Mare b) Cowc) Bitchd) ewe

142. Early insemination during estrous leads to fertilization failure due toa) Ageing of sperms b) Ageing of zygote c) Ageing of ovumd) none of above

143. The relations of the dorsum of the fetus to the quandrants of the maternal pelvis is

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a) Presentation b) Position

c) Postured) None of the above

144. Sterno abdominal presentation is aa) Posterior longitudinal presentation b) Transverse ventral presentation c) Anterior longitudinal presentation d) Transverse dorsal presentation

145. Balwant Ray Mehta committee was appointed by (A) Govt. of India

(B) planning commission (C) State govt. (D) NGO

146. Post is example of --------aid. (A) Visual

(B) Audio(C) A.V. (D) Projected

147. Who is the architect of Indian modern dairy industry? (A) Dr. V.Kurian

(B) Dr. Amrita Patel (C) Shree Parthi Bhatol

(D) MansiBhai148. Operation Flood III Was Launched during (A) 1986

(B) 1990 (C) 1992

(D) 1998149. The synonym of Anjan grass is

a. Dhamanb. Shevaric. Ghamard. Jinjavo

150. Medicago sativa is the botanical name ofa. Alfalfab. Berseemc. Guard. Cowpea

151. The nitrogen content (%) of urea fertilizer is

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a. 38b. 42c. 46d. 50

152. Licking of wall is the vices observed in animal due toa. Mineral deficienciesb. Internal parasitesc. Depraved appetited. All of the above

153. Wind sucking is the vice observed in the speciesa. Pigb. Cattlec. Horsed. None of above

154. Mediterranean chicken breeds egg shell colour isa. Brownb. Whitec. Brown and whited. All of above

155. American chicken breeds skin colour isa. Brownb. Yellowc. Whited. Black

156. Medusa head colonies are characteristic feature of…..a) Rickettsia spp.b) Bacillus anthracisc) Clostridium botulinmd) Listeria spp.

157. Ring worm infection is caused by…..a) Nocardia spp.b) Trichophyton spp.c) Candida spp.d) Dermatophillus spp.

158. Curdling without pronounced acid production associated with milk and milk products…..a) Sweet curdlingb) Acid curdlingc) Curdlingd) Alkaline curdling

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159. Type of microbial association in which in which food chain i.e. the metabolic products of one are utilized by the other…..a) Metabolismb) Symbiosisc) Fermentation

160. Which of the following breeds of class is known for egg productiona. American breedb. Asiatic breedsc. English breedsd. Mediterranean breeds

161 Which of the following breeds of class has feathered shanka. American breedb. Asiatic breedsc. English breedsd. Mediterranean breeds

162. Which of the following is smallest tape worm of poultry :(a) Ralleitina tetragona(b) Ralleitina echinobothridia(c) Davainea proglotina(d) Hymenolepis nana

163. Indian liver fluke is which of the following :(a) Prosthogonimum sp.(b) Paramphistomes sp.(c) Fasciola hepatica(d) Fasciola gigantica

164. Ovary much lobulated in which of the following :(a) Prosthogonimus sp.(b) Paramphistomes sp.(c) Fasciola hepatica(d) Fasciola gigantica

165. Haemoglobinuria is seen in-(A) Theileriosis(B) Leptospirosis(C) Salmonellosis(D) Pasturellosis.

166. Who is the father of Cellular Pathology?(A) John Hunter(B) Robert Koch(C) Rudolph Virchow(D) K.Cohnhiem.

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167. Pseudo Rabies is caused by-(A) Lyssa virus(B) Picorna virus(C) Paramyxo virus(D) Herpes virus.

168. Pulpy Kidney Disease is caused by-(A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Clostridium septicum(C) Clostridium novyi(D) Clostridium tetani

169. Turkey Egg Kidney is seen in-(A) Swine Pox(B) Swine Influenza(C) Swine Fever(D) Swine Erysipelas.

170. Antiseptics used for cleaning of eye isa. Dettolb. Boric acidc. Tr. iodine d. Zinc oxide

171. More than two fracture fragments with interconnecting fracture line in complete fracture is known asa. Multiple fractureb. Comminuted fracturec. Depressed fractured. Fissure fracture

172. Pathognomic signs of fracture is a. Crepitation b. Painc. Swellingd. Loss of function

173. Which of the following is a unicellular gland that is typically found in mucosal epithelium? a. Neuroepithelial cell b. Myoepithelial cell c. Goblet cell d. Friar cell

174. Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for the production of collagen and the amorphous ground substance in loose connective tissue? a. Adipocyte b. Fibroblast c. Mast cell d. Plasma cell

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175. Which of the following describes a secretory process in which no cell membrane components or cytosolic contents are lost? a. Merocrine b. Apocrine c. Holocrine d. Endocrine

176. The matrix of connective tissue is composed of: a. Cells, fibers, and ground substance b. Cells and fibers c. Fibers and ground substance d. Cells and ground substance

177. Following is not an effect of the Ganglionic blockadea)Dry mouthb) Anhydrosisc) Tachycardiad) Vasoconstriction

178. Magnesium sulphate has following effects excepta) CNS depressantb) Purgativec) Muscle relaxantd) Diuretic

179. Which one of the following is an osmotic diuretic?a) Magnesium sulphateb) Ethacrynic acidc) Spironolactoned) None of the above

180. What is the site of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?a) Throughout the length of the tubuleb) Loop of Henlec) PCTd) DCT

181. Viruses having Reverse transcriptase enzyme: a) Retro virus b) Reo virus c) Rabies virus d) Rota virus

182. Holoenzyme is a combination of: a) enzyme and substrate

b) Apoenzyme and substratec) Apoenzyme and coenzyme d) None of the above

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183. Following statements are correct except.a. Viruses multiply only in living cells.b. Viral nucleic acid directs cell metabolism to synthesize viral componentsc. Viruses are not able to perform their own metabolic activities.d. Viral genetic information resides only in DNA not in RNA

184. First Genome sequenced was of a. Bacteriophage λb. Bacteriophage φ X 174c. Haemophilus influenzad. Homo sapiens

185. First bacterial genome sequenced was of a. Salmonella typimuriumb. Bacillus anthracisc. Pseudomonas aeruginosae. Haemophilus influenza

186. First human protein produced in micro-organism was:a. Somatostatinb. Insulinc. Protopind. None of the above

187. The intercalating dye used to visualize double stranded DNA is a. Ethidium bromideb. Methylene bluec. Carbol fuchsind. None of the above

189. The concentration of double stranded DNA molecule which gives absorbance value of 1.0 at 260 nm is:a. 33 µg/ mlb. 40 µg/ mlc. 50 µg/ mld. Cannot be determined on the basis of absorbance value

190. The concentration of single stranded DNA molecule which gives absorbance value of 1.0 at 260 nm is:a. 33 µg/ mlb. 40 µg/ mlc. 50 µg/ mld. Cannot be determined on the basis of absorbance value

191. Which of the following cells lines the ventricle of the brain?a. Ependymal cellb. Simple squamous cell c.simple cuboidal celld. Simple columner cell

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192. The bony demarcation between abdominal and pelvic cavities is:a. Pelvic outletb. Pelvic diaphragm c. Plevic brimd. Pelvic symphysis

193 In which part of the cloaca in birds, bursa of fabricus opens?a. Urodeumb. Proctodeumc. Coprodeumd. Vent

194 Which is the space between right and left pleural sac in thoracic cavity?a. Omentumb. Mediastinumc. Serous sacd. pleural sac

195 Which of the following is the largest vein in the animal body?a. Saphenous veinb. Posterior venacava

c. Anterior venacavad. Mammary vein

196 Which of the following is the longest bone in birds?a. Femurb. Humerusc. Tarsometatarsusd. Tibiotarsus

197. Mendel’s work was rediscovered in the year (a) 1895b) 1900(c) 1905(d) 1913

198. Holandric inheritance is characterized by (a) Color blindness(b) Muscular atrophy (c) Hair in ear pinna(d) Baldness

199. Hemophilia is a condition which is inherited as (a) Sex linked(b) Sex influenced(c) Sex limited (d) None

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200. The method of sex determination in birds is (a) XO (b) XY (c) ZW (d) XA

201. Linkage between either dominant or recessive alleles is called (a) Coupling linkage (b) Repulsion linkage (c) Complete linkage (d) Incomplete linkage

202. The diploid chromosome number in chicken is (a) 38(b) 74(c) 78(d) 60

203. Wry neck is mostly seen ina) Bovine

b) Caprine c) Equine d) Canine

204. Recommended fetotomy procedure in perosomus elumbis isa) Amputation of fetal limbs b) Bisection of pelvis c) Transverse division of fetal trunk d) Amputation of head and neck

205. Generally stallion attains the puberty at the age ofa) 4 to 7 months b) 9 to 12 months c) 12 to 24 months d) 36 to 42 months

206. Sertoli cell tumor of the testes in dog secretes a) Testosterone b) Estrogen c) Androgen d) Prolactin

207. Dystrophia adiposogenitalis is observed in the a) Dog b) Stallion c) Boar d) Ram

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208. Large number of primary sperm abnormalities are indicative ofa) Ectopic testes b) Testicular degeneration c) Testicular neoplasm d) Testicular fibrosis

209. When arable farming is mixed with livestock raising it is known as (A) Mixed farming

(B) Sole farming (C) Co-operative farming

(D) Slate farming210. Villagesurpanch is elected through (A) Secret ballot paper

(B) Member (C) Co-operative

(D) Nominated211. AMUL system of milk marketing follows the principle of (A) Co-operative

(B) Mutual work (C) Subsidy purpose

(D) Service212. GCMMF has made turnover of Rs. (A) 5500 crore

(B) 6700 crore (C) 5000 crore

(D) 8000 crore213. Who is the chairman of GCMMF? (A) Amrita patel

(B) Vipul chaudhary (C) Parthi Bhatol

(D) Dr. Kurian214. Rural dairy extension programmed was the part and parcel of (A) ICDP

(B) DPAP (C) IRDP

(D) JRY215. Electronic identity is made in animal by

a. Electron microscopeb. Computerc. Radium numberd. Electronic chip

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216.This measurement of body has close relation with body weight in animala. Body lengthb. Paunch girthc. Height at witherd. Heart girth

217.Blanketing is the practice utilize fora. Brighter look to body coatb. To keep hide in good conditionc. Refard hair growthd. All of above

218.Wedge shaped body denotesa. Beef characterb. Draught characterc. Dairy characterd. None of above

219.Colostrum feeding in the calf should be done ata. Within two hours after calvingb. Within three days of calvingc. Within twelve hours after calvingd. None of above

220.Age at first kidding in mehsani goat breed isa. 18 to 24 monthsb. 24 to 30 monthsc. 12 to 18 monthsd. 30 to 36 months

221. Which state rank first in duck populationa. West Bangalb. Assamc. Orissad. Karala

222. Project Directorate on Poultry (PDP) is located ata. Izzatnagarb. Banglorec. Hyderabadd. Anand

223. Central Avian Research Institute (CARI) is located ata. Izzatnagarb. Banglorec. Hyderabadd. Anand

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224. Normally which ovary & oviduct is functional in chickena. Right ovary and Right oviductb. Left ovary and Left oviduct c. Right ovary and Left oviductd. Left ovary and right oviduct

225. Complete Parts of Oviduct in chronological order area. Infundibulum-Isthumus-Magnum-Uterus-Vaginab. Infundibulum-Magnum-Isthumus-Uterus-Vaginac. Infundibulum-Magnum-Isthumus-Uterusd. Infundibulum-Magnum-Isthumus-Vagina-Uterus

226. Fertilization is take place in which part of reproductive tracta. Ovaryb. Isthumusc. Infundibulumd. Uterus

227. . Chloramphenicol residues and milk products causes in consumers…..a) Arthritisb) Aplastic anemiac) Blindnessd) Anorexia

228. Well established protozoan disease transmitted through milk…..a) Cysticercosisb) Toxoplasmosisc) Giardiasisd) Salmonellosis

229. Insecticides of group that constitute the principal health hazard to consumers of milk and milk products…..

a) Organic sulphatesb) Organic phosphatesc) Chlorinated hydrocarbonsd) Activated chlorinate

230. The following acid producing bacteria convert lactose into lactic acid in milk…..a) Streptococcus cremorisb) Staphylococcus aureusc) Bacillus cereusd) Clostridium botulinm

231. The most common bacterium causing joint pain…..a) Brucella b) Shigella c) Salmonella d) Clostridia

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232. Galacto toxins in milk are produced by…..a) Streptococci spp.b) Contact of milk with steel vesselsc) Contact of milk with copper vesseld) Serratia spp.

233. . Praziquental and tartar emetic is drug of choice for :(a) Schistosoma sp.(b) Eurytrema sp.(c) Notocotylus sp.(d) All of the above

234. In schistosoma which of the following statement is true :(a) Male is longer than female(b) Female is longer than male(c) Female & Male are of same size(d) None of the above

235. Flame cell is excretory system of which of the following :(a) Trematodes(b) Cestodes(c) Nematodes(d) Acanthocephala

236. Normally eggs are operculated in which of the following :(a) Round worm(b) Trematode(c) Both of the above(d) None of the above

237. Out of which of the following are unsegmented :(a)Round worm(b) Trematode(c) Both of the above

(d) None of the above238. 'Gape worm' of poultry is :

(a) Ascaridia galli(b) Heterakis gallinarum(c) Syngamus trachea(d) Subulura brumpti

239. Poll evil in Horse is caused by-(A) Clostridium tetani(B) Actinomyces bovis(C) Brucella abortus(D) Both (B) and (C).

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240. Nutritional roup in Poultry is caused due to deficiency of-(A) Vitamin B(B) Vitamin C(C) Vitamin E(D) Vitamin A.

241. Epithelial Pearls are seen in-(A) Sebaceous cell Adenoma(B) Squamous cell carcinoma(C) Melanoma(D) Venereal granuloma.

242. Blue Tongue in sheep is caused by-(A) Herpes virus(B) Birna virus(C) Picorna virus(D) Orbi virus.

243. Most common Serotype of FMD virus in India is-(A) A(B) C(C) Asia-1(D) O.

244. In which disease post mortem of carcass is prohibited?(A) Haemorragic septicemia(B) Rinder pest(C) Anthrax(D) Brucellosis.

245. The water used for moistening of POP cast should range between a. 30-35 WCb.10-20 WCc. 20-25 WCd. 40-45 WC

246. The best procedure for complete diaphyseal fracture of tibia in bullock isa. POPb. Hanging pin castc. Walking castd. Thomas splint

247. If fracture is stabilized with rigid fixation the clinical union occur ata. 15-20 daysb.20-30 daysc.40-50 daysd.80-100 days

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248. Typical radiographic sign of osteo-arthritis isa. Increased joint space b. Decreased joint spacec. Irregular joint spaced. Irregular joint space with new bony growth

249. The radiographic signs of non union isa. Radiolucency between fragmentsb. Increased radio density of either fragmentsc. Placement of fragments side by sided. Rounding of both fragments

250. The radiographic diagnosis of intestinal obstruction is done by usinga. Barium sulphateb. Conray -420c. Urographind. Ipamidol

251. . Holocrine secretion: a. Occurs in sebaceous glands b. Occurs in endocrine glands c. Involves little or no loss of cytoplasm d. All of the above

252. The site of production of cholecystokinin and secretin is the: a. Stomach b. Pancreas c. Small Intestine d. Large Intestine

253. Alkaline mucous glands are found in the submucosa of the: a. Ileum b. Jejunum c. Duodenum d. Cardiac region of the stomach

254. The gallbladder: a. Produces bile b. Is attached to the pancreas c. Stores and concentrates bile d. Produces cholecystokinin

255. Which of the following sphincters is under voluntary control? a. Pyloric b. Hepatopancreatic c. Internal anal d. External anal

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256. At the junction between the esophagus and the stomach, the epithelial lining changes abruptly from __________________ to _________________.

a. Nonkeratinized stratified squamous; simple columnar b. Simple columnar; nonkeratinized stratified squamous c. Nonkeratinized simple squamous; stratified columnar d. Stratified columnar; nonkeratinized simple squamous

257. Which one of the following has maximum natriuretic effect?a) Spironolactoneb) Frusemidec) Mannitold) Acetazolamide

258. The following is not an indication of PGF2 alphaa) Synchronization of oestrusb) Cystic ovariesc) Persistent corpus luteumd) Induction of abortion

259. In which of the following animals emetics are not used?a) Ratsb) Cattlec) Horsed) All of the above

260. Which of the following drugs produces only laxative effect even with increase in dose?a) Magnesium sulphateb) Anthraquinonec) Castor oild) Liquid paraffin

261. One of the following is not a salt of bunamidine used against cestodial infestation in animals.

a) Bunamidine P-toluene sulphonateb) Bunamidine hydrochloridec) Bunamide sodiumd) Bunamidine hydroxynaphthoate

262. Source of bacitracin isa) Streptomycin rimosusb) Bacillus subtilisc) Streptomyces aureqfaciensd) Bacillus polymyxa

263. The most effective chemical disinfectant to kill FMD virus is:a. 2 % formalin b. 70 % alcoholc. 2 % Sodium hydroxide d. 0.5 % phenol

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264. Hendra and Nipah viruses belong to the family:a. Paramyxoviridae b. Orthromyxoviridaec. Picornaviridaed. Parvoviridae

265. Clinical manifestation of canine parvovirus infection is/are:a. Mycocarditis in pups b. Haemorrhagic diarrheac. Leukopenia d. All of above

266. Bluetongue virus has:a. 20 serotypes b. 24 serotypes c. 7 serotypes d. 9 serotypes

267. Find the wrong match:a. Borrel bodies- Fowl poxb. Guarneri bodies- small poxc. Negribodies- Rabiesd. All are correct

268. Bovine diarrhea virus belongs to the familya. Flaviviridaeb. Reoviridaec.Togaviridaed.Rhabdoviridae

269. Viral triad includea. Rinder pest virus, Measles virus and Canine distemper virusb. Rinder pest virus, Mumps virus, Measles virusc. Measles, mumps and Rubella virusesd. Rinder pest virus, Reo virus and Rhabdo virus

270. The concentration of single stranded RNA molecule which gives absorbance value of 1.0 at 260 nm is:a. 33 µg/ mlb. 40 µg/ mlc. 50 µg/ mld. Cannot be determined on the basis of absorbance value

271. The 260/280 nm ratio of pure DNA sample should be:a. Less than 1.8b. 1.8c. More than 1.8d. 3.0

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272. The 260/280 nm ratio less than 1.8 for a DNA sample reflects:a. Protein contaminationb. RNA contaminationc. Bothd. None

273. Oligo dT attached to resin is used for the column based isolation of a. Prokaryotic DNAb. Eukaryotic DNAc. Prokaryotic m-RNAd. Eukaryotic m-RNA

274. The chemical that can be used for precipitation of DNA is:a. Ethyl alcoholb. Isoamyl alcoholc. Phenold. None

275. The chemical method of DNA sequencing is:a. Maxam Gilbert methodb. Sanger methodc. Bothd. None

276. Which of the following is a oval articular projection?a. Condyleb. Trochleac. Headd. Facet

277. Which of the following is a ventricle of hind brain?a. Third ventricleb. Fourth ventriclec. Lateral ventricled. None of above

278. Which of the following is a spherical shallow articular depression?a. Glenoid cavityb. Cotyloid cavityc. Articular groove d. Semilunar notch

279. The cell membranes is mainly composed ofa. a single layer of protein moleculesb. a protein bilayerc. a phospholipids bilayerd. a polysaccharide bilayer

35

280. Which organelles is the site for ATP production?a. nucleolib. mitochondriac. gogli complexd. ribosomes

281. During which stage mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the middle of cella. prophaseb. anaphasec. metaphased. telophase

282. Which of the following is not a connective tissue?a. boneb. cartilagec. muscled. blood

283. The point of crossover is known as (a) Tetrad(b) Chiasma(c) Synapsis(d) Recombination

284. The The maximum probability of making Type-I error is known as(a) Confidence interval(b) Test of significance (c) Level of significance(d) Rejection region

285. Which of the following traits will show higher rate of genetic improvement under mass selection programme

a) Service period in cattleb) Body weight at 8 week in poultryc) Litter size in pigd) Twinning rate in goat

286. Diallele crossing is usually practiced in(a) Cattle(b) Sheep(c) Race horse(d) Poultry

287. Marker assisted selection is more effective for traits of(a) High heritability(b) Low heritability(c) Medium heritability(d) Both b) and c)

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288 ‘Operation Flood’ scheme was operated by(a) NDDB, Anand(b) NDRI, Karnal(c) IVRI, Izatnagar(d) NDRI, Bangalore

289. Inbreeding would more severely affect(a) Pre weaning gain in sheep(a) Litter size in pig(b) Fat % in cow(c) Mature body weight in doe

290. Smooth muscle around spermatic cord to help in thermoregulation of testes is a) Tunica dartos b) Cremester muscle c) Pampiniform plexus d) Gubernaculum

291. Mitochondria concentrates close to the axoneme and forms the a) End piece of the tail

b) Neck of the sperm c) Mid piece of the tail d) Annulus

292. Unnatural tactile stimulation and ejaculation is known as a) Onanism b) Coolidge effect c) Pederasty d) Balling up

293. A complete series of cellular associations along a seminiferous tubule a) Spermatogenic wave b) Spermiostasis c) Spermiogenesis d) Cycle of seminiferous epithelium

294. Terminology used for the high per cent of abnormal sperms a) Teratozoospermia b) Aspermia c) Asthenozoospermia d) Necrozoospermia

295. Inability to withdraw the penis back in to the prepuce a) Paraphimosis b) Posthitis c) Phimosis d) Preputial prolapse

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296. Effect of novelty of stimulus females reduces refractory period in males is known asa) Balling up effect b) Coolidge effect c) Bruce effect d) Pederasty

297. Sabarmati Ashram gosala founded in (A) 1815

(B) 1925 (C) 1915

(D) 1945

297. Central council of Gosamverdhan was started (A) 1952

(B) 1955 (C) 1958

(D) 1960298. State farming is managed by (A) NGO

(B) Govt. (C) People

(D) Middlemen

299. NDRI is located at (A) Jaipur

(B) Kernel (C) Jabalpur

(D) Cochin300. CSWRI is located at (A) Avikanagar

(B) Izzatnagar (C) Modinagar

(D) Mathura301. In mixed farming income from main enterprise is (A) 49%

(B) 50% (C) 60%

(D) 70%302. NDDB was established in the year (A) 1965

(B) 1955 (C) 1975

(D) 1985

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303. Crone is the synonym of thea. Young sowb. Broken mouth sowc. Old aged ewed. Ewe with loss of teat

304.The average life span of horse is ( Years )a. 2.5 to 18 Yearsb. 3 to 16 Yearsc. 3 to 15 Yearsd. 3 to 12 Years

305.Sunandini is the cross bred developed froma. Local cattle Keralab. Local cattle Karnatakac. Sahiwald. Tharparkar

306.Simmental is the breed of cow belong to breeda. Exotic dairy cowb. Exotic beef cowc. Indigenous dairy cowd. Indigenous beef cow

307.This breed not belong to mysore type cattle groupa. Burgurb. Alambadic. Khillarid. Nimari

308.Buffalo in philipines is known as a. Kerbanb. Shin nivec. Aranad. Carabao

309. This buffalo breed is come under endangered categoriesa. Bhadawarib. Jafarabadic. Bannid. Jerangi

310. The inner surface of which section of oviduct is lined with goblet cell that secrete albumen

a. Isthumusb. Magnumc. Uterusd. Infundibulum

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311. Doubled yolked egg is more common in a. Older birdsb. Pulletc. Both a and bd. None of above

312 Hens usually moult in the which following ordera. Head-Neck-Body-Wing-Tailb. Head- Neck-Wing-Body-Tailc. Tail-Wing-Neck-Head-Bodyd. Tail-Wing-Body-Neck-Head

313 The order of disappearance of pigment (bleaching) from body in a. Vent-Eye ring-Ear lobes-Beak-Shanksb. Vent- Beak- Eye ring-Ear lobes-Shanksc. Shanks-Beak-Ear lobes-Eye ring-Ventd. Vent-Shanks-Beak-Ear lobes-Eye ring

314 The pigment fist leaves those structures havinga. Poor blood circulationb. Best blood circulationc. No correlation with blood circulationd. Both a and b

315 The urophygial gland is located on dorsal area ofa. Tailb. Backc. Headd. Neck

316 Most chicken breeds have how many number of toes on each foota. Fourb. Threec. Fived. Two

317. Immediate test to judge the quality of milk…..a) Electro impedance method b) Alcohol testc) Organoleptic testsd) Sediment test

318. Psychrophils of significance in milk hygiene is/are…..a) Pseudomonas b) Listeria monocytogenesc) Both a and bd) None of the above

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319. Cold sterilization means…..a) Sterilization at low temperatureb) Sterilization by radiationsc) Flash pasteurizationd) None of the above

320. Anthrax is also called as…..a) Splenic feverb) Desert feverc) Undulant feverd) All of the above

321. Trichinella cyst can be destroyed by…..a) Saltingb) Smokingc) Both of the aboved) None of the above

322. Scrapie is a…..a) Progressive fatal disease of CNSb) Disease of young animalsc) The causal agent is antigenicd) All of the above

323. Knott’s technique is a concentration method for detection of following parasite in blood

(a) Trichomonas spp.(b) Trypanosoma evansi(c) Microfilariae(d) All above

324. Which parasite cause destruction of host tissue by breakage of lymph vessels :(a) Chiggers(b) Filarids(c) Strongylus(d) Ascarids

325. Oxyuris equi in horse found in which of the following :(a) Small intestine(b) Caecum, colon(c) Oesphagus(d) Caecum, colon, rectum

326. Presence of eggs of the Oxyuris equi can be diagnosed by which of the following :(a) Faeces(b) Perianal swab(c) Both of the above(d) None of the above

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327. Alimentary canal present in which of the following :(a) Trematodes(b) Cestodes(c) Nematodes(d) Acanthocephala

328. Which of the following is the kidney worm of dog :(a) Trichuris sp.(b) Capillaria sp.(c) Seteria digitata(d) Dioctophyma renale

329. In which egg are lemon shaped and with plug on both side of egg :(a) Trichuris sp.(b) Capillaria sp.(c) Seteria digitata(d) Dioctophyma renale

330. Mad itch is mostly a disease of-(A) Caprine(B) Bovine(C) Swine(D) Ovine

331. Tigroid Heart is seen in cattle affected with-(A) Bovine malignant catarrhal(B) Botulism(C) Bovine viral diarrhea(D) Foot and mouth disease.

332. Wooden Tongue in cattle is seen in-(A) Actinomycosis(B) Botriomycosis(C) Haemorrhagic Septicemia(D) Actinobacillosis.

333. Mode of transmission of IBR virus is-(A) Venereal(B) Inhalation(C) Both (D) None of the above.

334. Maedi is primarily a disease of-(A) Sheep affecting respiratory system(B) Cattle affecting reproductive system(C) Sheep affecting nervous system(D) Cattle affecting nervous system.

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335. Equine Plague is also called as-(A) Equine viral arteritis(B) Glanders(C) Strangles(D) African Horse sickness.

336. Sore mouth in cattle is seen in- (A) Blue tongue(B) Bovine malignant catarrh (C) Rinder pest(D) Vesicular Stomatitis

337. Protective wears for radiography are made up ofa. Leadb. Ironc. Zinc d. Tungste

338. The best treatment of long bone fracture isa. POP bandagesb. Intramadulary pinning c. Intramadulary nailingd. Bone plating

339. Suturing of lacerated nostril is performed under nerve block a. Infra-orbitalb. Retro bulbarc. Mandibulard. Supra-orbital

340. Extirpation of incisor tooth in cattle is performed under nerve block a. Infra-orbitalb. Mandibularc. Retro bulbar d. Cornual

341. The best anaesthetic technique for laparotomy in cattle isa. Local infiltrationb. Paravertebralc. Field blockd. Anterior caudal epidural

342. Docking in adult dog is performed under a. Epiduralb. Local infiltrationc. Ring blockd. General anaesthesia

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343. General anesthesia of equine is performed now a days by usinga. Chloral hydrateb. Xylazinec. Xylazine + Ketamined. Chlormag

344. Histologically, the stomach wall is unique because it contains: a. No lamina propria b. 1 extra layer in its muscularis mucosae c. 1 extra layer in its muscularis externa d. An adventitia in addition to a double-membraned serosa

345. The gastric gland cell whose absence could lead to pernicious anemia is the: a. Chief cell b. Goblet cell c. Mucous neck cell d. Parietal cell

346. The layer of the digestive tube wall which contains blood vessels, lymphatic nodules, and a rich supply of elastic fibers is the:

a. Mucosa b. Submucosa c. Muscularis Externa d. Serosa

347. Mechanical digestion occurs in the: a. Stomach b. Cecum c. Pharynx d. Esophagus

348. The entry of bile into the duodenum is controlled by the: a. Liver sinusoids b. Common pancreatic duct c. Pyloric sphincter d. None of the above

349. A major function of the large intestine is to: a. Secrete digestive enzymes b. Remove waste materials c. Regulate the release of bile d. Secrete water in order to regulate blood volume

350. Which of the following is not produced by an enteroendocrine cell? a. Pepsin b. Cholecystokinin c. Gastrin d. Secretin

44

351. An anti-estrogen used in advanced breast cancer is a) Tamoxifen b) Precarbazine c) Mitotane d) Cisplatin

352. A semi synthetic derivative of diterpene is a) Clindamycin b) Ticarbiciliin

c) Tiamulin d) Lincomycin

353. Drug used as anthelmentic by producing its effect by GABA mediated hyper polarization is

a) Albendazoleb) Mebendazole c) Fenbendazole d) Ivermectin

354. Kanamycin derivate isa) Amikacin b) Spectinomycin c) Atramycind) Spiramycin

355. Polymixin E is also called asa) Novobiocin b) Bacitracin c) Colistin d) Kanamycin.

356. An agent used against anaerobic bacteria as well as protozoa isa) Mebendazole b) Metronidazolec) Methicillin d) Marbofloxacin

357. Neomycin B is also called asa) Kanamycin b) Amikacinc) Tobramycind) Gentamicin

358. Flaviviridae is a. dsDNAb.ds RNA c.ss DNA d. ssRNA

45

359. Following are the morbilli viruses excepta. Mumps virusb. Measles virusc.PPRVd.Rinderpest virus

360. Following is/are the character(s ) of Streptococcusa. Gram positive cocci b. Catalase –Ve c. Arranged in chain d. All of these

361. Cold enrichment is required for the isolation ofa. Listeria monocytogenes b. Erysipelothrix c. Staph.aureus d. Clostridium tetani

362. Bacteria responsible for food poisoning a. Staph.aureus b. Clostridium botulinum c. Bacillus cereus d. All of these

363. Dysgonic species of Mycobacterium isa. M.bovis b. M.avium c. M.tuberculosis d. M.phlei

364. Satellite growth on blood agar plate in presence of Staph. aureus is characteristic of

a. Pasteurella b. Haemophillus c. Actinobacillus d. Mycoplasma

365. The di-deoxy chain termination method of DNA sequencing is:a. Maxam gilbert methodb. Sanger’s methodc. Pyrosequencing methodd. Nanopore sequencing method

366. The pH of Tris saturated phenol used for the purpose of DNA isolation should be:a. 5.0b. 6.0c. 7.0d. 8.0

46

367. DNA molecule as big as 10 MB can be separated by:a. Polyacrylamide gel electrophoresisb. Agrose gel electrophoresisc. Pulse Field electrophoresisd. None

368. The blotting technique used for the detection of DNA molecule is called:a. Southern blotb. Northern blotc. Western blotd. Eastern blot

369. The blotting technique used for the detection of RNA molecule is called:a. Southern blotb. Northern blotc. Western blotd. Eastern blot

370. The blotting technique used for the detection of protein is called:a. Southern blotb. Northern blotc. Western blotd. Eastern blot

371. In southern blot, the labeled nucleic acid used to detect complementary sequence is called:a. Templateb. Primerc. Probed. None of the above

372. Which type of tissue covers the external and internal surfaces of the body?a. connectiveb. skinc. areolard. epithelial

373. What is found within the peritoneal cavity?a. pleural fluidb. the pericardiumc. peritoneal fluidd. liquor pericardi

374. Which of the following is a splanchnic bone?a. sternumb. patellac. os cardisd. calcaneus

47

375. Which of the following joints is an example of an amphiarthrosis?a. the temporomandibular jointb. Sutures of the skullc. between the bodies of the vertebraed. ischiopubic symphysis

376. What is the unit of contraction in a muscle?a. motor unitb. sarcomerec. origind. insertion

377. Which of the following muscle is not a component of the Achilles tendon?a. semimembranosusb. biceps femoris c. semiitendinosusd. superficial digital flexor

378. Which of the following structures is not part of the peripheral nervous system?a. cranial nerve Vb. spinal nerves supplying the intercostal muscles c. hypothalamusd. a neuromuscular junction

379. The pons, medulla and cerebellum together form the a. forebrain

b. midbrainc. hindbraind. cerebral hemispheres

380. Testosterone is secreted by which cell?a. islets cellsb. sertoli cellsc. Brunner’s glandsd. cells of Leydig

381. In the foetal circulation, the shunt that connects the pulmonary artery and aorta is called as a. ductus venosusb. foremen ovale c. ductus arteriosus d. falciform ligament

382. Genetic drift in small population is an example of (a) Systematic process (b) Dispersive process (c) Both (d) None

48

383. The maximum frequency of recombinant progeny is(a)50 %(b) 25 %(c)42 % (d) 63 %

384. The diploid number of chromosomes are equal in(a) Sheep and goat(b) Cattle and goat

(c) Buffalo and sheep (d) Man and rhesus monkey

385. A negative correlation coefficient between the two variables X and Y indicates that

(a) Large values of X are associated with small values of Y(b) Large values of X are associated with large values of Y(c) Small values of X are associated with small values of Y(d) None of the above answers are correct

386. Which of the following chemical is used as a mutagen?(a) Mustard gas(b) Colchisine (c) FCS (d) All of these

387. Which of the following is sex linked trait in poultry?(a) Colour pattern of plumage(b) Brring pattern of plumage(c) Comb pattern (d) Abumin height

388. The difference between mean phenotypic values of the progeny of selected parents and whole of the population before selection is known as

(a) Intensity of selection (b) Standardized selection

(c) Selection differential (d) None of the above

389. Scent glands, source of pheromones located dorsally and medially at the horns of a) Ram b) Buck c) Bull d) Stallion

390. Sertoli cell produces the protein hormone which suppresses the production of FSHa) Androgen binding protein b) Inhibin c) Luteinizing hormone d) Estrogen

49

391. Spreading of adherent acrosomal granule over the surface of spermatid nucleusa) Golgi phase b) Cap phase c) Acrosomal phase d) Maturation phase

392. Infertility in a bull due to Inability to fertilize a) Penile deviation b) Penile franulum

c) Testicular Hypoplasia d) Penile Neoplasm

393. The penile protrusion is followed bya) Erection

b) Mounting c) Intromission d) Pelvic thrust

394. The required number of progressive motile sperms at A.I. in cattle isa) 50 millions

b) 30 millions c) 10 millions d) 3 millions

395. Presence of musculo membranous attachment on ventral aspect of glans penis to the preputial mucosa a) Balanoposthitis

b) corkscrew penis c) Penile tumor d) Penile frenulum

396. Accentrically placed thickening of the acrosome is known as a) Diadem defect b) Acrosomal cap c) Sterilizing tail stump d) Knobbed spermatozoa

397. Flehman’s reaction is not observed in a) Bull b) Boar c) Stallion d) Ram

398. Bicornual transverse presentation is more common in a) Cows b) Buffalo c) Mare d) Ewes

50

399. The first veterinary college was started in the year 1886 at (A) Kolkata

(B) Mumbai (C) Madras

(D) Ludhiyana

400. The first dairy co-operative was started in the year 1913 at (A) Anand

(B) Allahabad(C) Jaipur (D) Pune

401. Toxic jaundis is also known as(A).Post haepatic jaundis(B).Haepatic jaundis(C).Pre haepatjc jaundis(D). Obstructive jaundis

402. Siderosis means(A).Deposition of calcium in lung(B). Deposition of iron in lung(C). Deposition of silicon in lung(D). Deposition of silver particle in lung

403. Van den Bergh test for obstructive jaundis(A). Direct(B).Indirect(C).Biphasic(D). Both (B) & (C)

404. In abscess which type of necrosis is seen?(A). Coagulative necrosis(B).Liquifective necrosis(C).Caseative necrosis(D).Fat necrosis

405..First change after death is (A). Alger mortis(B).Rigor mortis(C).Formation of bloat(D).Both (B) & (C)

406. Inflammation of crop(A). Blephritis(B).Ingluvitis(C). Typhlitis(D). Gonitis

407.Cart wheel appearance of nuclease found in(A).Plasma cell(B). Basophils(C). Eosinophils(D). Monocyte

51

408..Extreme elevation of leucocyte in peripheral blood is known as(A).Shift to left(B). Leukamoid reaction(C). Right shift(D). Both (A) & (C)

409.Blood in vomitus(A). Haematamiasis(B). Haemoptysis(C).Epistaxis(D).Melena

410. Bleeding from the oviduct is designated as:a) Epitaxis

b) Hemosalpinx

c) Hematocele

d) Hematemasis

411. Condition which is hereditary and sex linked in which clotting is delayed:

a) Apoplexy

b) Hemophilia

c) Brown induration

d) Epistaxis

412. On the basis of rainfall, temperature, and soil the country can be divided into --- Animal husbandry region (A) 5

(B) 6 (C) 7

(D) 8413. Small scale farming also known as (A) Faimly farming

(B) Sole farming (C) Individual farming

(D) Co-operative farming414. Secretary of Panchayat samity (A) DDO

(B) TDO (C) Collector

(D) Mamlatdar415. National Institute of Rural Development is located at (A) Hyderabad

(B) Chennai (C) Bangalore

(D) Jaipur

52

416. Specialized farm income from main enterprise is (A) <50%

(B) >50% (C) 50%

(D) 60%417. The first Veterinary University was established in the year 1986 at (A) Hyderabad

(B) Trichur (C) Bangalore

(D) Chennai

418. Contribution of sight in learning is (A) 80%

(B) 87% (C) 90%

(D) 95%419. Two forms of social stratification (A) Cast class

(B) Color race (C) Custom value

(D) Norm belief420. Tegur in Karnataka is the breeding farm for

a. Girb. Tharparkarc. Khillard. None of these

421. Malas are the professional breeder fora. Sahiwal b. Red sindhic. Rathid. Ongole

422. This breed produce the “Primium market milk” due to yellow color of milka. Jerseyb. Brown swissc. Guernseyd. Ayreshire

423. Ration calculation for individual animal does not require this thinga. Weight of animalb. Lactation yieldc. Pregnanacyd. Parity of animal

53

424. Maize fodder (green) is comes under the grade in qualitya. Excellentb. Goodc. Mediumd. Poor

425. This practice is not comes under milking methoda. Intermittent milkingb. Knucklingc. Full handd. Stripping

426. This practice does not required for sexual stimulation in bulla. False mount b. Changing teaserc. Changing semen collectord. Restraining mount

427. The score points for cow graded “very good” area. 80 to 85b. 85 to 90c. 90 to 95d. 70 to 80

428. The key village scheme was launched in India during the yeara. First five year planb. Second five year planc. Fifth five year pland. Sixth five year plan

429. Operation flood project received donation of butter oil and scheme milk froma. European unionb. U. S. A.c. European dairiesd. European economic community

430 In poultry true stomach isa. Gizzardb. Proventriculusc. Cropd. Abomasums

431 The end product of protein metabolism in poultry is mainlya. Ureab. Uric acidc. Ammoniad. Urates

54

432 Which type of egg producer molt late in the season and rapidlya. Good egg producerb. Poor egg producerc. Average egg producerd. None of above

433 Which type of egg producer molt early in the season and slowlya. Good egg producerb. Poor egg producerc. Average egg producerd. None of above

434 Forced molting is done by a. Withdrawal of Feed and Waterb. Withdrawal of Lightc. Increase level of dietary Zincd. All of above

435 Cold room temperature for hatching egg storage isa. 48-52 ºFb. 58-62 ºFc. 68-72 ºFd. 78-82 ºF

436 Setter temperature for hatching egg isa. 92.5-93 ºFb. 99.5-100 ºFc. 102.5-103 ºFd. 97.5-98 ºF

437 Hatcher temperature for hatching egg isa. 94-95 ºFb. 99-100 ºFc. 98-99 ºFd. 96-97 ºF

438Physiological zero (0) temperature bellow which embryo growth is arrested in eggs

a. 75 ºFb. 65 ºFc. 85 ºFd. 95 ºF

439 Position of hatching egg in setter isa. Narrow end upb. Broad end upc. Horizontald. Vertical

55

440. Ematiation in meat is caused by…..a) Inadequate intake of nutrientsb) Pathological conditionsc) Advanced age of animald) Over eating

441. Clostridium botulinum secretes toxin under…..a) Aseptic conditionb) Aerobic conditionc) Anaerobic conditiond) Aerobic as well as anaerobic condition

442. In sheep the normal arterial blood pressure is…..a) 100-110 mm of mercuryb) 120-145 mm of mercuryc) 146-165 mm of mercuryd) 166-175 mm of mercury

443. Unconventional meat…..a) Beef b) Muttonc) Crocodile meat

444. Booling test on meat detect…..a) PHb) Colourc) Odour

445. Electrical stunning is widely used in…..a) Cattle and poultryb) Pigs and poultryc) Buffaloes and poultry

446. Study of organism in relation to their environment is Known as… a)Ecology b)Ecosystem c)Epornitic d)Oncology

447. Which disease is Ectoparasitic zoonosis a) Scabies b) Taeniasis c) Both a) & b) d) None of above448. How to control reservoir of infection

a) Treatmentb) Health educationc) Both a) & b)d) None of above

56

449. Rabies also knokwn as….a)Lyssab)Ragec)Tallwutd)All of above

450. Spinose ear tick mainly pathogenic in which of the following stage :(a) Larval stage(b) Nymphal stage(c) Adult stage(d) All of the above

451. The chief cause of 'strike in the sheep' is which of the following :(a) Larvae of Musca sp.(b) Larvae of Sarcopaga sp.(c) Larvae of Lucilia sp.(d) All the above

452. Second intermediate host of oviduct fluke are :(a) Dragon flies(b) Water snail(c) Grasshopper(d) None

453. Insects which possess sponging mouth parts and do not bite are :(a) Fleas(b) House flies(c) Mosquitoes(d) Deer flies

454. Scientific name of horse fly is ……(a) Tabanus equinum(b) Oestrus ovis(c) Simulium sp(d) None of the above

455. Which of the following is a non granular WBC?

a. Lymphocytes

b. Neutrophil

c. Basophil

d. Eosinophil

456. In Classification of helminthes the higher taxa platyhelminthes containing helminthes of veterinary importance are :

(a) Flat worm(b) Round worm(c) Thornyheaded worms(d) None

57

457. In Filarial nematode, the life cycle is……(a) Direct(b) Direct and Indirect(c) Indirect(d) None

458. Morocco leather condition is caused by :(a) Hemonchus contortus(b) Ostertagia ostertagia(c) Cooperia curtesi (d) None

459. Strongylus vulgaris is responsible for :(a) Colic in ruminants(b) Paralysis in horse(c) Colic in horse(d) None

460 Bunostomum trigonocephalum is hook worms of :(a) Sheep and Goat(b) Cattle(c) Dog(d) None

461. Disease caused by Clostridium septicum is- (A) Black Quarter (B) Enterotoxaemia (C) Braxy (D) Tetanus

462. Sulphur granules in yellowish pus is seen in- (A) Glanders (B) Strangles (C) Staphylococcosis (D) Actinomycosis

463. Toxins of organism causes peripheral nerve paralysis in cattle- (A) Botulism (B) Tetanus (C) Both (D) None of the above

464. Diamond skin disease is primarily a disease of- (A) Horse (B) Lion (C) Sow (D) Turkey

58

465. In Johne’s disease, corrugation is not the feature in- (A) Cattle(B) Sheep(C) Horse(D) Both (B) and (C)

466. Most susceptible species for Haemorrhagic septicemia- (A) Sheep (B) Buffalo (C) Cattle (D) Pig

467. Erythritol sugar plays important role in pathogenesis of- (A) Clostridium spp.(B) Brucella spp. (C) Bacillus spp. (D) Corynebacterium spp.

468. Substance responsible for increase penetration of Lyssa virus-(A) Hyaluronidase(B) Erythriol(C) Protagen(D) Amylase

469. Crop mycosis in poultry is caused by- (A) Bacteria (B) Mycoplasma (C) Fungi (D) Virus

470. Brooder’s pneumonia in poultry is caused by- (A) Candida albicans(B) Aspergillus fumigatus (C) Haemophilus paragallinarum (D) Pasturella multocida

471. The best general anesthetic for canine isa. Xylazine b. Thiopentalc. Acepromazined. Ketamine

472. To deliver live pups, cesarean section is performed under a. Thiopentoneb. Pentobarbitonec. Acepromazine d. Diazepam + Local anesthesia

59

473. To capture wild elephant the anesthetic used is a. Xylazineb. Etorphinec. Medazolamd. Morphin

474. The sedation in camel is performed by using xylazine intravenously a. 2-3 mlb. 8-10 ml c. 25 -30 ml.d. 30-40 ml

475. The best inhalation anesthetic for closed circuit is a. Cyclopropaneb. Ether c. Nitrous oxided. Chloroform

476. Deep chested dog is prone to following surgical conditiona. Intestinal obstructionb. Diaphragmatic herniac. Gastric dilatation and torsiond. Gastric ulcer

477. Pathognomic sign of sharp molar isa. Quiddingb. Halitosisc. Salivationd. All of above

478. The development of pouch in lower neck just after feeding in case of buffalo is noticed ina. Pyloric stenosisb. Oesophageal ulcerc. Choked. Oesophageal diverticulum

479. Continuous lacrimation in canine is characteristic sign of a. Obstruction of lacrimal ductb. Entropionc. Conjunctivitisd. Ectropion

480. Myringotomy in canine is performed for the correction of a. Otitis internab. Otitis mediac. Otitis externa d. Othaematoma

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481. Each of the following is an amino acid derivative EXCEPT: a. Epinephrine b. Melatonin c. Thyroxine d. TSH

482. Which of the following hormones does not act via a second messenger system? a. Glucagon b. Epinephrine c. GH d. Testosterone

483. What hypophyseal structure receives signals from the hypothalamus via the hypophyseal portal system?

a. Follicular medulla b. Adenohypophysis c. Neurohypophysis d. Pars intermedia

484. Low blood glucose typically results in the secretion of all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Glucagon b. Thyroxine c. hGH d. PTH

485. What hormone increases intestinal calcium absorption? a. Calcitriol b. Calcitonin c. Parathormone d. Pancreatic polypeptide

486. The ______ cells of the pancreas secrete insulin. a. Chief b. Principal c. Alpha d. Beta

487. Oxytocin is secreted by the: a. Adenohypophysis b. Neurohypophysis c. Zona glomerulosa d. Pars intermedia

488. Hyposecretion of cortisol can cause: a. Cretinism b. Diabetes mellitus c. Diabetes insipidus d. Addison's disease

61

489. The space in the middle of the thoracic cavity where the heart resides is the:a. Pericardial cavity b. Pericardium c. Pleural Cavity d. Mediastinum

490. The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the:a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Interventricular septum d. Interatrial septum

491. In body netobimin is converted intoa) Albendazole b) Mebendazolec) Fenbendazole d) Lobendazole

492. Which one of the followings not an anaesthetic?a) Phencyclidine b) Xylazine c ) Ketamine d) Cyclopropane

493. Diazepam does not possess the following action a) Sedative b) Anticonvulsant c) Analgesic d) Anxiolytic

494. The full life of drug is usually approximately a) Twice its half-life b) Ten times its half- life c) Five times its half- life d) None of the above

495. The following is not a phenothiazine derivative a) Triflupromazine b) Chlorpromazine c) Promazine d) Reserpine

496. Xylazine does not have the following effect a) Analgesic b) Muscle relaxant c) Sedative d) Antipyretic

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497. Which one of the following has high water to lipid partition coefficient? a) Chlorpromazine b) Ether c) Halothane d) None of the above

498. With which of the following anaesthetic is eructation reflex not affected. a) Ketamine

b) Xylazine c) Phenobarbitone d) Equithesin

499. Which of the following statements is false?a) Thiopentone is ultra short acting barbiturateb) Thiopentone is administered by intramuscular routec) Thiopentone administered typically shows barbiturate apnoea.d) Thiopentone is yellowish powder used as a sodium salt.

500. Which one of the following is an example of physical antagonism? a) Administration of activated charcoal in poisoning

b) Relief of acidity using antacids c) Administration of Atropine in organophosphate poisoning

d) None of the above501. The body region of the sheep in which best quality wool is found

a. Breechb. Shoulderc. Headd. Tail

502. A growing female sheep between sixth month to maturity. a. Doelingb. Wedderc. Hoggetd. Lamb

503. Native place of sannem isa. Englandb. Switzerlandc. U. S. A.d. China

504. Major breeding season of Indian sheep is a. June to augustb. December to Januaryc. March to aprild. Year round

505. The term used for meat of rabbit is a. Muttonb. Porkc. Chevond. Venison

63

506. Location of rabbit breeding farm in Gujarata. Bhujb. Ankleshwarc. Morbidd. Mandvi

507. India has total number of sheep breeda. 40b. 15c. 20d. 28

508. Gurej sheep breed found ina. J & Kb. Himachal Pradeshc. Hariyanad. Punjab

509. Spiti is the horse breed found ata. J & Kb. Himachal Pradeshc. Hariyanad. Punjab

510. The disease found in sheep during monsoona. Foot rotb. F. M. D.c. Enterotoxaemiad. Rinderpest

511. Bacteria which require living medium for their growth isa. Mycoplasma and Leptospira b. Chlamydia and Rickettsia c. Rickettsia and Mycoplasma d. None of these

512. Pallisade arrangement is characteristic of a. Corynebacterium b. E.coli c. Campylobacter d. Listeria

513. Mycoplasma organisms are pleomorphic in nature due to a. Absence of cell wall b. Absence of rigid cell wall c. Small in size d. Species specific in nature

514. Periodic opthalmia in horses is a sequel ofa. Glanders b. Mycoplasmosis c. Equine leptospirosis d. Babesiosis

64

515. Chlamydia can be stained with following stains except:a. Gram’s stainb. Macchiavello stainc. Gimenez staind. Castaneda stain

516. Tuberculin test is based on a. Delayed hypersensitivityb. Arthus reactionc. Anaphylactic reactiond. All of above

517. Calf hood vaccination is advisable for a. Brucellosis b. Salmonellosis c. Pasteurellosis d. Neonatal calf diarrhoea

518. The germ tube production is characteristic of a. Candida albicans b. Corynebacterium pyogenes c. Cryptococcus neoformans d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

519. Experimentally Mycobacterium leprae can be cultivated on a. Bacterial media with mycobactin.b. Cell culture system.c. Nine banded armadillod. None of the above

520. Viruses that exist in cells and cause recurrent disease are considered a. Oncogenicb. Cytopathicc. Latentd. Resistant

521. For transformation reactions competent E. coli cells can be prepared by treating log phase E. coli cells with:

a. Calcium Chlorideb. Magnesium Chloridec. EDTAd. None of the above

522. A DNA molecule from external source can be inserted into the host cells by following methods:

a. Heat shock treatmentb. Electroporationc. Lipofectiond. All of the above

65

523. In a PCR reaction two short oligonucleotide used which flank the DNA sequence to be amplified is called:

a. Primerb. Probec. Templated. None of the above

524. The source of Taq polymerase used in the PCR reaction is:a. E. colib. Thermus aquaticusc. Bothd. None

525. The source of “Reverse transcriptase” enzyme used for c-DNA synthesis is:a. Moloney murine leukemia virus (MuLV)b. Avian myeloblastosis virus (AMV)c. Both d. None

526. Quantitative studies using PCR technique can be done with:a. RT-PCRb. Real Time PCRc. Micro arrayd. None of the above

527. Most type II restriction endonucleases recognize and cleave DNA within particular sequence of 4-8 nucleotides which have two fold rotational symmetry. Such sequences are called:

a. Palindromesb. Short tandem repeatsc. Bothd. None

528. For restriction analysis of DNA molecule, the type of “restriction endonucleases” used are:

a. Type I REb. Type II REc. Type III REd. None

529. c-DNA can be synthesized on a RNA template using following primers:a. Sequence specific primersb. Oligo dTc. Random hexamersd. All of the above

530. Isoschizomers are Restriction enzymes which:a. Recognize and cut the same sequenceb. Recognize the same sequence but cut site varyc. Both d. None

66

531. What is the name of the main lymphatic duct that arises in the abdomen? a. tracheal ductb. cisterna chyli c. right lymphatic ductd. cisterna magna

532. Which part of the respiratory system is also responsible for the production of sound?a. hyoid apparatusb. eustachian tubec. pharynxd. larynx

533. Which muscle is responsible for increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity during inspiration?a. diaphragmb. hypxialc. external obliqued. epaxial

534. The basin shaped structure in the center of the kidney is calleda. cortexb. hilusc. pelvisd. medulla

535. In which layer of the skin are the sensory nerve endings found?a. hypodermisb. epidermisc. dermisd. subcutis

536. Which is the most developed special sense in the birds?a. sightb. touchc. smelld. taste

537. The space between the incisors and the cheek teeth of rabbits and rodents is known as thea. diastemab. philtrumc. dewlapd. acromion

538. Visceral skeleton present in camela. Os penisb. Os phrenicc. Os cardisd. Os rostrum

67

539. Which is the type of placenta present in bitch?a. Zonaryb. Diffusec. Discoidal d. Cotyledonary

540. Total number of incissor teeth in ox a. Six

b. Fourc. Eightd. Ten

541. Outer covering of the nerve isa. Endoneuriumb. Perineurimc. Epineuriumd. Epitendineum

542. Which one of the following is a exoskeleton?a. Hoofb. Metacarpusc. Sternumd. Ulna

543. Which one of the gland is a apocrine gland?a. Mammary glandb. Testesc. Parotid salivary gland d. Pancreas

544. Part of the peritoneum that covers the fallopian tube with abdominal cavity:a. Mesometriumb. Mesosalphinxc. Mesoovarium d. Broad ligament

545. Which of the following plays a part in thermoregulation?a. Hair b. Clawsc. Sebaceous gland d. Meibomian gland

546. Which of the following is used for predicting future performance of individuals(a) Heritability (b) Repeatability(c) Genetic correlation(d) None of the above

68

547. The response to selection increases when(a) Proportion of individuals selected decreases(b) Proportion of individuals selected increases(c) Heritability of the trait is low(d) None of the above

548. The heritability of a character in narrow sense will be more when it is controlled by

(a) Genes with non-additive effects(b) Genes with additive effects(c) Both (a) and (c)(d) None of the above

549. The genotypic value of quantitative traits is(a) Sum total of effects(b) sum total of gene effects(c) Sum total of additive effects(d) None of the above

550. The specific combining ability of a line is due to gene effects(a) Epitasis(b) Dominance(c) Over-dominance(d) All of above

551. The dry period in buffaloes can be reduced by(a) Individual selection(b) Better management(c) Family selection(d) Progeny testing

552. The change in the fat % when selection is made for higher milk yield is due to

(a) Natural selection(b) (b) Direct selection(c) Indirect selection(d) None of these

553. The estimate of heritability of egg yield cannot be obtained by(a) Paternal half-sib correlation (b) Regression of daughter on dam(c) Regression of daughter on sire (d) Maternal half-sib correlation

554. The precision of heritability estimate is known by its (a) Standard error

(b) Magnitude (c) Method of estimation

(d) Deviation from

69

555. For selection of individuals for traits measured after life, we will prefer(a) Indirect selection(b) Family selection(c) Pedigree selection(d) Any of these

556. The regression of offspring on mid parent provides the estimate of(a) ½ h2

(b) ¼ h2

(c) h2

(d) h

557. The accuracy of estimating breeding value of a sire increased by(a) Decreasing the number of sires under test(b) Decreasing the number of progeny of sire(c) Increasing the number of progeny of sire(d) None of the above

558. The Osborne index for cockerel selection is based on information from (a) Individual performance and dam and sire families. (b) Dam and sire families

(c) Progeny and pedigree (d) Individual performance and pedigree

559. The generation interval can be reduced by using (a) Genetic markers (b) Progeny information

(c) Life time information(d) Multi-trait selection

560. Diploid number of chromosomes in sheep is (a) 60 (b) 54 (c) 38 (d) 64

561. Both hind limbs retained in the uterus beneath the body of the posteriorly presented fetus a) Dog sitting posture b) Breech presentation c) Poll presentation d) Wry neck

562. Acute angulation of the vertebral column of the fetus causing dorsal approximation of its head and tail is a a) Perosomus elumbis b) Amorphus globosus c) Otter calf d) Schistosomus reflexus

70

563. The release of which hormone is associated with the Fergusion’s reflex . a) Estroegn

b) Oxytocin c) Progesterone

d) Relaxin564. Penile Transmissible Neoplasia is observed in the a) Ram b) Stallion

c) Dog d) Bull

565. Androgen Binding protein is secreted by a) Ley dig cells b) Sertoli cells

c) Spermatogonia d) Efferent ducts

566. Eversion of galeacapitis and crater shaped depressions in the nucleus a) Dag defect

b) Diadem defect c) Corck screw defect

d) Abaxial defect567. Effecting a change in the presentation is known as a) Rotation

b) Version c) Extension

d) Flexion568. Non dilation of cervix causing dystocia in ewes is known as a) Vertex

b) Foot nape c) Ring womb

d) wry neck569. Pattern assumed by the semen upon drying on a glass slide a) Fern pattern

b) Crenellation pattern c) Cork screw pattern

d) Zig Zag pattern570. Test used to know the functional integrity of sperm membrane a) Sperm mucus penetration test

b) Hypo osmotic swelling test c) Hamster egg penetration test

d) High temperature viability test

71

571. The end of the diestrus period is due toa. Recruitment of the ovulatory follicular wave. b. A decrease in estradiol negative feedback.c. Regression of the corpus luteum.d. An increase in estradiol levels coming from the preovulatory follicle.

572. In the mare, transition from the non-breeding to the breeding season is caused bya. A decrease in melatonin. b. A decrease in the day length.c. A switch from positive to negative feedback by estradiol.d. The presence of progesterone coming from the corpus luteum.

573. Granulosa cells are similar to Sertoli Cells in that botha. Have FSH receptors. b. Have LH receptors. c. Produce testosterone.d. Have very low levels of cAMP.

574. The blood testis barrier is due to a. The inhibition to growth of blood vessels in the seminiferous tubules.b. The presence of gap junctions between Sertoli cells.c. The presence of tight junctions between Sertoli cells.d. The basement membrane between the Sertoli cells and the interstitial

space where the Leydig cells are located.575. It has been demonstrated that dogs can be trained to detect estrus in cattle. Which

of the following senses is being used by the dog to accomplish this task?a. Smell b. Sightc. Touch d. Hearing

576. Intense educational activity for motivation and mobilization of community to action Is known as(A) Awareness (B) Campaign(C) Demonstration (D) G.D.

577. Diagram presentation of facts or ideas is known as (A) Chart(B) Poster(C) Diagram (D) Book

578. A statement of policy to guide decision and action in a consistent manner is (A) Principle (B) Law (C) Philosophy (D) Hypothesis

72

579. Call mode by farmers at the veterinary hospital for getting information is called (A) Office call

(B) Personal call (C) Community call

(D) Tall call580. A visual display which is never used alone for teaching programmed is (A) Chart

(B) Flipchart (C) Poster

(D) Banner

581. Chepest, Oldest & most effective aids of teaching is (A) Black Board

(B) White board (C) Display board

(D) Interactive board582. A Statement of assumption validity of which is yet to be tested is known as (A) Hypothesis

(B) Theory (C) Principles

(D) Philosophy583. A miniature replica of an object is called (A) Specimen

(B) Model (C) Sample

(D) Picture584. A System of social relationship in and through which we live is known as (A) Society

(B) Communication (C) Cast

(D) Creed585. Combination of seeing, hearing, and doing may help to retain----------in teaching

Learning (A) 50%

(B) 60% (C) 70%

(D) 80%586. AMUL was established in (A) 1846

(B) 1848 (C) 1850

(D) 1950

73

587. Air and water are nature of goods (A) Material

(B) Nominated (C) Free

(D) Consumable588. The demand is salt is (A) Inelastic

(B) Elastic (C) Prefect elastic

(D) Non elastic

589. AGMARK indicates (A) Quality & Purity

(B) Quality (C) Quantity

(D) Purity590. Top level function is known as (A) Management

(B) Administration (C) Bureaucracy

(D) Line of control591. Herd registration scheme in Gujarat is running for the breed

a. Mehasana buffalob. Gir cattlec. Dangi cattled. Banni buffalo

592. The number of calving pen required on dairy farm depends ona. Breedable femalesb. Fertility ratec. Calving intervald. All of above

593. Dehorning in calves can be done ata. 1 to 5 daysb. 7 to 0 daysc. 11 to 20 daysd. More than 30 days

594. The pulsation ratio in milking machine should be kept within the limit of a. 1 : 1b. 2.5 : 1c. Both a & bd. None

74

595. The major input for maximum contribution to cost of milk productiona. Labourb. Electricity c. Feedingd. Breeding

596. The buffalo population (Millions) in Gujarat state as per livestock census 2007a. 8.77b. 7.97c. 2.01d. 4.64

597. Nilgai belong to the animal in categorya. Wild ruminantb. Wild non-ruminantc. Domestic ruminantd. Domestic non-ruminant

598. The gestation period (days) of leopard isa. 62 – 65b. 92 – 95c. 112 – 120d. 150 -180

599. The birth weight of piglet in kg isa. 2 – 4 kgb. 3 – 6 kgc. 1 – 2 kgd. 0.5 – 1 kg

600. Stag is the term utilize fora. Castrated goatb. Castrated horsec. Castrated sheepd. Castrated pig

601. Tongue rolling is the type of behaviour in cowa. Detrimentalb. Stereotypedc. Retiredd. Apathetic

602. Pig farming is the most developed ina. Himachal Pradeshb. West Bengalc. Bihard. Madhya Pradesh

75

603. Certification agency in organic farming isa. IARIb. NDRIc. APEDAd. NPDP

604. Hissardale crossbred sheep breed developed froma. Australian merinob. Bikaneric. Bothd. None of above

605. Fat tailed sheep breed found in India is a. Macherib. Choklac. Bhakarwald. Marwari

606A narrow band surrounding the yolk that is almost void of blood vessels is known as

a. Streamb. Stigmac. Straked. Strike

607 Chickens lay eggs on successive days is known asa. Pauseb. Clutchesc. Persistencyd. Both b and c

608Sometime the infundibulum loses power to pick up a yolks, and yolks accumulate in body cavity. Such hen are known as

a. Poor layerb. External layerc. Internal layerd. Faulty layer

609 Pigments responsible for egg shell colour is produced by a. Magnumb. Vaginac. Uterusd. Isthmus

610 The brown colour of eggshell is due to which pigmentsa. Carotenoidsb. Porphyrinc. Xanthophyllsd. None of above

76

611 Preheating or pre-warming of egg is donea. Before candlingb. Before Cold storagec. Before Settingd. Before Hatching

612Eggs of average size and quality incubated in air with 50 to 60 % relative humidity, they will lose approximately _____ % of their initial weight in 19 days of incubation

a. 6 %b. 12 %c. 18 %d. 24 %

613 Best time for artificial insemination to get maximum fertility in poultry isa. Early morningb. Before noonc. After Noond. Late evening

614 The ammonia concentration in the poultry house should not be more thana. 2.5 ppmb. 25 ppmc. 50 ppmd. 75 ppm

615 Nitrogen fixation is poor in a. Cage houseb. Deep litter housec. Both A & Bd. None of the above

616Pullets grown during the period when most of the days have decreasing light are known as

a. In season flocksb. Out season flocksc. Mid season flocksd. Odd season flocks

617Pullets grown during the period when most of the days have increasing light are known as

a. In season flocksb. Out season flocksc. Mid season flocksd. Odd season flocks

77

618Birds were placed in the laying house just before the onset of egg production is known as

a. Housingb. Shiftingc. Layingd. None of above

619Replacing old males in a flock with a set of new and younger male after about two-thirds of the egg production period is known as

a. Replacement of flockb. Spiking the flockc. Placement of flockd. All of above

620Distance between the bulbs in poultry house should be _____times the distance from the bulb to the bird level.

a. 0.5 timesb. 5.0 timesc. 15 timesd. 1.5 times

621. Herpes simplex seen in….a) Cattleb) Dogc) Elephantd) None of above

622. Volumetric method for determination of fat% of milk.a. Waste fall balanceb. Soxhlet methodc. Richmond sliding methodd. Garber method.

623. Which of the disinfectant is effective against wide range of micro organism in floor,wall and equipmentsa)quick timeb)cresol 2-3% in hot waterc)costic soda 5%d)Nil

624. Coagulation of water by chemical is essential ina)slow sand filterb)rapid sand filterc)boilingd)None

625. The desirable limit for fluoride should be(mg/litre)a) 0.2b) 1.5c) 2.5d) 0.6-1.8

78

626. In strong sewage B.O.D. is (mg/litre)a) 50b) 100c) 300d) None

627. Who was first chief of VPH in WHOa) Dr.Guerinb) Dr.Daniel E.Salmonc) Dr.Karl F.Meyerd) Dr.Martin Kaplan

628 Example of cyclozoonosis…a) Toxoplasmosisb) Taeniasisc) Echinococcosisd) Both b) & c)

629. Example of algal zoonosisa) Scrub typhusb) Actinomycosisc) Fascioliasisd) Protothecosis

630. In anthrax by which reaction Bacillus organism detected in blood smeara) Mac Fadyean’s reactionb) Zeil Neelsen stainingc) Ascoli’s precipitation testd) None of above

631. Medium which is used in isolation of T.B. organismA )XLD agarb) LJ mediumc) EMJH mediumd) blood agar

632. Greenish colors of water is developed due to…a) Ironb) Organic matterc) Algae florad) None of above

633. Ozone layer found at which heighta)10-20 kmb)70-80kmc)40-50kmd)90-100km

79

634. Optimum temperature range for adult pig is betweena) 0-3 0cb) 40-500cc) 4-300cd)30-350c

635. Which is Iron bacteriuma)Crenothrixb)Gellionellac)Klebsiellad)Both a) & b)

636. Incineration of carcass done by heating at which temperature a)6000cb)8000cc)13000cd)10000c

637. Oxyuris equi are commonly known as :(a) Pin worm(b) Caecal worm(c) Stomach worm(d) None

638. The condition ‘Sweating blood’ in horse is caused by :(a) Parafilaria equi(b) Dirofilaria immitis(c) Parafilaria multipapillosa(d) None

639. Seteria labiato-papillosa of cattle causing :(a) Lumber paralysis in horse(b) Lumber paralysis in sheep and goat(c) Lumber paralysis in cattle(d) None

640. The largest nematode of domestic animal is :(a) Macracanthorhynchus hirudinaceus(b) Dioctophyma renale(c) Ascaris sum(d) None

641. Acute fasciolosis is common in :(a) Cattle(b) Sheep(c) Buffalo(d) Horse

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642. Triclabendazole is a drug of choice for :(a) Liver fluke(b) Haemonchus nematode(c) Lung worm(d) None

643. The blood fluke are usually present in :(a) Hepatic vein(b) Portal vein(c) Mesenteric vein(d) None

644. Taenia multiceps is tape worm of dog and it’s larval stage present in sheep/cattle is known as :

(a) Coenurus serialis(b) Hydatid(c) Coenurus cerebralis(d) None

645. Sputum is a diagnostic material in two infections of dog(a) Ancylostoma caninum and Dictophyma renale (b) Filaroides and Angiostrongylus(c) Schistosoma nasale and Stephanurus(d) None

646. Smallest and most pathogenic tapeworm of poultry is :(a) Amoebotaenia (b) Davainea proglotina(c) Raillietina echinobothrida(d) None

647. A common term for myiasis caused by members of the calliphoridae is :(a) Blow-fly Strike(b) Pediculosis(c) Mange(d) None

648. The larval of Oestrus ovis are commonly referred to as :(a) Gnats(b) Warble(c) Bots(d) None

649. The condition ‘false gid’ in sheep is caused by :(a) Multiceps multiceps(b) Oestrus ovis larva(c) Setaria digitata(d) None

81

650. Ornithodorous moubata is :(a) Hard tick (b) Soft tick(c) Mites(d) Flea

651. Animal Protozoa are unicellular and they are :(a) Eukaryotic(b) Prokaryotic(c) Monera(d) None

652. Circling disease in cattle is caused by- (A) Listeria monocytogenes (B) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae (C) Streptococcus equi (D) Chlamydia psittacii

653. Intranuclear inclusion bodies are seen in- (A) Pox diseases (B) Herpes virus infection (C) Adeno virus infection (D) Lyssa virus infection

654. Negri bodies are seen in Rabies which are- (A) Intranuclear(B) Intracytoplasmic(C) Both(D) May be intranuclear or intracytoplasmic

655. Enlargement of Bursa of fabricius in poultry is seen in- (A) CRD (B) IB (C) RD (D) IBD

656. Zebra marking is predominant feature of- (A) Johne’s disease (B) Tuberculosis (C) Rinder pest(D) Both (A) and (C)

657. CBPP differs from CCPP in- (A) Both occur in same species(B) Sequestra formation (C) Mode of transmission (D) Pathogenesis

82

658. Which bacterium is predisposed by Fasiola hepatica infestation-(A) Bacillus spp.(B) Clostridium spp.(C) Leptospira spp.(D) Pasturella spp.

659. Which is the most potent aflatoxin-(A) M1(B) M2(C) B1(D) B2

660. Curled toe paralysis in chicken is due to deficiency of-(A) Vitamin B12(B) Vitamin B1(C) Niacin(D) Vitamin B2

661. Mn deficiency is chicken will lead to-(A) Pica(B) Star grazing condition(C) Crazy chick disease(D) Slipped Tendon

662. Phosphorous deficiency in soil will predispose the cattle to-(A) Haemorrhagic septicemia(B) Botulism(C) Anthrax(D) Mucosal disease

663. Black head disease is predominately a disease of-(A) Cattle caused by Parasite(B) Poultry caused by Parasite(C) Horse caused by Virus(D) Pig caused by Virus

664. Which of the following is correctly matched-(A) Tubercular lesions are calcified-Buffalo(B) Johne’s disease-Foul smelling diarrhea(C) Avian spp.- Dry pus(D) Lamb dysentery- Clostridium perfringens type D

665. Post mortem of chick shows foul smelling yellow-brown watery Yolk, fibrinous perihepatitis

and pericarditis, suspect the disease(A)Infectious Coryza(B) Fowl Typhoid(C) Coli Bacillosis(D) Infectious Bronchitis

83

666. Haemorrhages at the tip of the proventricular gland is the pathognomic lesion sseen in-(A)Ranikhet disease(B) Chronic respiratory disease(C) Infectious bursal disease(D) Avian influenza

667. The non-invasive confirmative diagnosis of diaphragmatic hernia in buffalo is a. Auscultation b. Contrast radiography c. Rumenotomyd. Plain radiography

668. Liptek test is performed for the diagnosis of a. LDAb. Vagal indigestionc. Ruminal acidosis d. Ruminal tympany

669. Metallic foreign bodies are mostly recovered from a. Esophagus b. Reticulumc. Rumend. Abomasum

670. The basic cause of vagal indigestion in cattle isa. Traumab. Inflammatory conditionsc. Ruminal impactiond. Liver dysfunction

671. Distal intestinal obstruction in bullock is diagnosed bya. Clinical signsb. Hematology c. Per rectal examinationd. History

672. Common site for obstructive uroliths in bullock is a. Prescrotalb. Neck of bladderc. Pelvic urethrad. Post scrotal

673. The surgical correction of teat pea in cattle is performed bya. Teat slitterb. Hudson teat spiderc. Teat tumour extractord. Teat dilator

84

674. Umbilical hernia is most commonly seen ina. Cattle b. Dogc. Pigd. Horse

675. During surgery arterial bleeding is controlled by a. Haemostatb. Thumb forcepsc. Allies tissue forcepd. Rat tooth forceps

676. The best technique for making instruments germ free isa. Direct flameb. Boiling waterc. Chemical d. Autoclave

677. Sweeny is characterized by atrophy ofa. All musclesb. Gastrocnemious musclec. Scapular muscled. None of above

678. Laminitis means thata. Animal walks lameb. Inflammation of jointsc. Inflammation of laminaed. None of above

679. Treatment of upward fixation of patellaa, Planter tenotomyb. Medial patellar desmotomyc. Middle patellar desmotomyd. Cunion tenotomy

680. Inflammation of stifle joint is known as a. Laminitisb. Omarthritisc. Gonitisd. Joint mice

681. Oozing of inflammatory exudates at coronary band in horse hoof is known asa. Arthritisb. Side bonesc. Quittord. Curb

85

682. Which blood vessel does NOT bring deoxygenated blood directly to the heart?a. Pulmonary vein b. Coronary Sinus c. Inferior Vena cava d. Superior Vena Cava

683. If there is a blockage between the AV node and the AV bundle, how will this affect the appearance of the EKG?a. PR interval would be smaller b. QRS interval would be shorter c. There would be more P waves than QRS complexes d. There would be more QRS complexes than P waves

684. A valve damaged by rheumatic fever fails to open completely. This is known as:a. Stenosis b. Heart Block c. Ischemia d. MI

685. Accodrding to the Frank-Starling Law of the heart, CO is directly related to:a. Ventricular muscle mass b. Heart Rate c. Amount of blood returning to the heart d. ESV

686. The T Wave on an EKG represents:a. Ventricular Depolarization b. Ventricular Repolarization c. Atrial Depolarization d. Atrial Repolarization e. Ventricular Systole

687. Cardiac output is equal to:a. HR x SV b. HR/SV c. EDV - ESV d. (EDV-SV) x HR

688. Which of the following represents the outermost layer of the heart? a. Epicardium b. Parietal pericardium c. Myocardium d. Subendocardium

689. Which of the following cell types is responsible for skeletal muscle regeneration? a. Myoepithelial cell b. Myofibril c. Satellite cell d. Myofibroblast

86

690. How many T-tubules lie within a single skeletal muscle sarcomere? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

691. The connective tissue layer that bundles skeletal muscle fibers into fascicles is the: a. Perichondrium b. Perineurium c. Perimysium d. Epimysium

692. An overlap of actin and myosin filaments occurs in the: a. A Band b. I Band c. Z Line d. H Band

693. Which of the following does not describe skeletal muscle fibers? a. Striated b. Typically voluntary c. Multinucleate d. Branched

694. Which of the following cells is reponsible for myelin formation in the peripheral nervous system? a. Astrocyte b. Oligodendrocyte c. Schwann cell d. Microglial cell

695. The peripheral nervous system includes the: a. Somatic nervous system b. Brain c. Spinal cord d. Nuclei

696. A neuron with many short dendrites and a single long axon is a: a. Multipolar neuron b. Bipolar neuron c. Unipolar neuron d. None of the above

697. Graded Dose- Response curve hasa) Shape of hyperbola on simple graph paper and 'S' shape on semi- log paperb) Shape of 'S' on both simple and semi-log graph paperc) Shape of 'S' on simple graph paper and shape of hyperbola on semi log paper. d) Shape of hyperbola on both simple and semi log graph paper.

87

698. Which of the following inhibits uptake of acetycholine in to vesiclesa) Vesamicol b) Cobra toxinc) Bungaro toxind) Botulinum toxin

699 Which of following is G-protein coupled receptors?a) Muscurinic b) Nicotinic c) Alpha adrenergic receptorsd) a and b

700. Which of following is used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis a) Dopamine b) Neostigmine c) Atropine d) Benzodiazepam

701. Which of following is used for relief of heaves in horse? a) Oxytocin b) Atropine c) Methanol d) Frusemide

702. Which of following drug increases blood pressure, heart rate and force of contractions. a) Epinephrine b) Atropine c) Laetolol d) Pindalol

703. Which of followings is a not a saline diuretics.a) Magnesium sulphateb) Mannitolc) Sorbitold) Acetazolemide

704. What is the site of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?a) Throughout the length of the tubuleb) Loop of Henlec) PCTd) DCT

705. In which of the following animals emetics are not used?a) Ratsb) Cattlec) Horsed) All of the above

88

706. Furosamide causes all except onea) Metabolic alkalosis b) Hypocalcaemiac) Hypokalemiad) Oligouria

707) Generally, which of the following is in the correct order as dosage is increased?a) ED50 < LD50 < TD50b) ED50 < TD50 < LD50c) LD50 < TD50 < ED50d) LD50 < ED50 < TD50e) TD50 < LD50 < ED50

708) Which of the following is considered the therapeutic index (or ratio)?a) T.I. = TD50 / ED50b) T.I. = LD50 / ED50c) T.I. = ED50 / TD50d) T.I. = ED50 / LD50e) A & B

709) Which of the following is considered the brand name?a) Paracetmolb) Crocinc) ß-blockerc) “off label” used) Antipyretics

710) Which of the following is NOT a protein target for drug binding?a) Side of action (transport)b) Enzymesc) Carrier moleculesd) Ion channels

711. The general steps in the viral multiplication cycle are:a. Adsorption, penetration, replication, maturation and release.b. Endocytosis, penetration, replication, assembly and lysis.c. Adsorption, uncoating, replication, assembly and budding.d. Endocytosis, penetration, replication, maturation and exocytosis.

712. In dog canine adenovirus infection producesa. Pink eyeb. Blue eyec. Pearly eyed. None

713. Choose the laboratory animal most suitable for typing FMD virusa. Guinea pigb. Hamsterc. Weaned miced. Rat

89

714. Biological vector of Bluetongue virus isa. Aedesb. Culicoidesc. Anophelesd. House fly

715. Double stranded segmented RNA with 10-12 segments is the features of familya. Reoviridaeb. Retroviridaec. Orthomyxoviridaed. Paramyxoviridae

716. First anti rabies vaccine was developed bya. Edward Jennerb. Louis Pasteurc. Robert Kochd. Robert Hook

717. Separation of RBCs from virus is calleda. Elutionb. HAc. HId. Eclipse

718. The viral agent produces diphagic fever, respiratory distress, nervous symptoms and hard pad disease in dog is

a. Canine distemper virus.b. ICH virusc. Rabies Virusd. IBH virus

719. Virus having RNA dependent DNA polymerasea. Retrovirusb. Reovirusc. Rabies virusd. Rubella virus

720. Chicken pox in man is caused bya. Pox virusb. Herpes virusc. Adeno virusd. Parvo virus

721. Swine Influenza virus associated with current pandemic in humans isa. H1N1b. H2N2c. H3N2d. H5N1

90

722. Chief source of leptospira is a. Blood b. Urine c. Milk d. Faeces

723. Growth of brucella organisms is favored due toa. Erythritol b. Sorbitol c. Glucose d. Protein

724. E.coli a. Grows at 15-400 C. b. Lactose fermenter c. Motile d. All of these

725. Spore forming bacteria a. Bacillus b. Clostridium c. Both a and b d. None

726. Isoschizomers are Restriction enzymes which:a. Recognize and cut the same sequenceb. Recognize the same sequence but cut site varyc. Both d. None

727. Neoschizomers are Restriction enzymes which:a. Recognize and cut the same sequenceb. Recognize the same sequence but cut site varyc. Both d. None

728. The enzymes used for joining two DNA molecule is:a. DNA gyraseb. DNA ligasec. Topoisomerased. Helicase

729. Which of the following has the highest density:a. Relaxed genomic DNAb. Supercoiled DNAc. Plasmidd. RNA

91

730. Homo polymer tail can be added by using enzyme:a. Ligaseb. Phosphate kinasec. Terminal deoxytransferased. None

731. The plasmid which is maintained in the host cell in multiple copies are called:a. Relaxed b. Stringentc. Conjugative d. None

732. The plasmid which is maintained in the host cell in limited number of copies are called:a. Relaxed b. Stringentc. Conjugative d. None

733. RNAs that catalyze biological reactions, such as self-splicing introns, are known as: a. Enzymeb. Ribozymec. Sliceosomed. None

734. The 2 µm plasmid is found in:a. Escherichia colib. Pneumococcusc. Bacillus anthracisd. Sacchromyces cerevisiae

735. Which of the following statement is true for life cycle of Lysogenic phages:a. They immediately induce lysis of host cells for release of new virionsb. Phage DNA is integrated with the host DNA and retained for several

generationsc. Both the above depending upon the environmental conditiond. None of the above

736. Genes cloned with M 13 based vector can be obtained in the form of:a. Single stranded DNAb. Double stranded DNAc. Single stranded RNAd. None of the above

737. At 600 nm, one unit optical density (OD) of E. coli culture corresponds roughly to:a. 1 X 106 cells/mlb. 1 X 107 cells/mlc. 1 X 108 cells/mld. 1 X 109 cells/ml

92

738. EDTA present in lysis solution has following functions:a. Chelates Mg++ ions and thus inhibits the activity of enzyme DNaseb. Removes Mg++ ions that are essential for preserving the overall structure of

cell envelopec. Both of the aboved. None of the above

739. Which of the following match is incorrect:a. SDS: Cell Lysisb. EDTA: Chelating Mg++ ionsc. Proteinase K: Degradation of Proteind. Isoamyl alcohol: precipitation of DNA

740. CTAB used is isolation of DNA forms complexes with:a. DNAb. Proteinsc. Carbohydratesd. None of The above

741. Guanidinium thiocynate is useful in DNA isolation because:a. It forms complexes with DNA moleculeb. It denatures and dissolves all biochemical substances other than nucleic acidc. In its presence DNA binds tightly to silica particlesd. Both b & c

742. Which one of the following type of placenta is found in goat?a. Zonaryb. Cotyledonary c. Diffused. Discoidal

743. The lymphatis are absent in a. Intestineb Uterusc. Braind. Udder

744 The pancreatic acinus is characterized by presence of a. Hassal’s corpusleb. Centro-acinar cellsc. central arteryd. central vein

745 The accentric placed central artery is found in a. Hepatic lobuleb. Osteon c. Spinal cordd. Spleen

93

746 The purkinjee cells are found in a. Heartb. Cerebrumc. Cerebellumd. Spinal cord

747 The tendon cell is a. Fibroblast

b. Myoblastc. Osteoblastd. Chondroblast

748 Which one of the following placenta found in mare?a. Cotyledonaryb. Diffusec. Zonaryd. Discoidal

749 Which of the following nerve is the largest cranial nerve?a. Trigeminalb. Vagusc. Sciaticd. None of the above

750 Which one of the following contains cerebrospinal fluid?a. Epidural spaceb. Subdural spacec. Subarachnoid space d. None of above

751 Which one of the following ligament is great importance for treatment of upward fixation of patella in the bullock?

a. Medial patellar ligamentb. Middle patellar ligament c. Lateral patellar ligamentd. Cruciate ligament

752 Which one of the following species presents single occipital condyle in skull? a. cattle

b. Horsec. Dogd. Poultry

753 Which one fo the following animal vomits only through nostril because of its very long and well developed soft palate?

a. Oxb. Horsec. Dogd. Pig

94

754 Animal which walks on the hoof is called as? a. Plantigrade

b. Unguligrade c. Digitigrade

d. None of above755 Which type of placenta present in cow? a. Syndesmochorial

b. Epi theleochorialc. Endotheliochoriald. Haemochorial

756 Which of the following animal presents ovulation fossa on its ovary? a. Cow

b. Marec. Bitchd. Doe

757 Which of the following structure produces voice in the fowl? a. Larynx

b. Pharynxc. Syrinxd. None of the above

758 Which is the space present between vertebral canal and spinal duramater? a. Subarachoid space

b. Subdural spacec. Epidural space d. Dural space

759 Which one of the following vein is called as milk vein in cow?a. External jugular veinb. Subcutaneous abdominal vein c. Umbilical veind. None of above

760 All the spinal nerves are:a. Mixed typeb. Sensory typec. Motor typed. None of the above

761 Which one of the following foetal membrane encloses embryo in fluid sac?a. Chorionb. Amnionc. Yolk sacd. Allantois

95

762 Down syndrome is an example of (a) Monosomy (b) Trisomy (c) Triploidy (d) Polyploidy

763 Outward expression of a trait is called(a) Genotype (b) Phenotype (c) Karyotype (d) all of these

764. Colour blindness in human is(a) Sex limited trait (b) Sex linked trait (c) Sex influenced trait(d) None of above

765 What should be the performance of progeny above the herd average in order to declare the bull as a proven bull?

(a) 20 %

(b) 5 % (c) 10 % (d) 15 %

766 The nullisomy is an example of (a) Anuploidy (b) Euploidy (c) Both (d) None

767 The structural change in a chromosome in which a segment is oriented in a reverse order is called as

(a) Tranlocation (b) Duplication (c) Deletion (d) Inversion

768 The regression of offspring on mid-parent value estimates (a) ½ h2 (b) ¼ h2 (c) h2 (d) None of these

769 The criss cross pattern of inheritance is seen in(a) Sex limited trait (b) Sex linked trait (c) Sex influence trait (d) None of above

96

770 The sudden heritable changes in genetic material is called as (a) Duplication (b) Mutation (c) Deletion (d) None of these

771 Mutation resulting from replacement of base pair of purine with purine or pyrimidine with pyrimidine is called as (a) Transition (b)Tansversion (c) Translocation (d) None of these

772 The Coiling Pattern of Shell in Snail is an example of (a) Extra nuclear inheritance (b) Maternal inheritance(c) Cytoplasmic inheritance (d) all of above

773 The sex index (X/A) value of 0.5 in Drosophila indicates(a) Nomal male (b) Nomal female (c) Super male (d) Super female

774 Genotype of purebred Pea combed birds is (a) RrPp (b) RRpp (c) rrPP (d) rrpp

775 The phenotypic ratio of recessive epistasis is (a) 9:3:4 (b) 9:7 (c) 12:3:1 (d) 15:1

776 The medium sized milch breed of buffalo which requires less maintenance is (a) Murrah

(b) Jafarabadi (c) Surti (d) None

777 Central Institute for research on goat is located at (a) Karnal

(b) Izzatnagar (c) Makhdoom (d) Hissar

97

778 Booroola gene in Garole sheep refers to (a) Fecundity

(b) Wool production (c) Body weight

(d) Milk production.

779 The choice of exotic breed for improving milk production in cattle in hilly areas is (a) HF

(b) Jersey (c) both (d) none

780 Red Kandhari cattle belongs to (a) U.P.

(b) M.P. (c) A.P. (d) Maharastra

781 The exotic cattle breed of choice for improving milk production is (a) HF

(b) Jersey (c) Brown Swiss (d) Guernsey

782 Vibriosis in a herd can best be diagnosed by a) Serum agglutination test b) Vaginal mucus agglutination test

c) Milk ring test d) Rose Bengal plate test

783 Induction of estrus by premature regression of the corpus luteum can be done by using

a) PRID b) GnRH

c) PGF2 α d) HCG

784 Under which of the following conditions animal is acyclic a) Delayed ovulation b) Silent heat

c) Anovulation d) None of the above

785 Time of ovulation in a cow is a) 12-24 hrs before the end of estrum b) 30-40 hrs after the end of estrum

c) About the last day of estrum d) 10-15 hrs after the end of estrum

98

786 Flehman’s reaction is not observed in a) Bull b) Boar

c) Stallion d) Ram

787 The condition in which fetal bones crepitate within the uterus on rectal examination

a) Mummification b) Hydroallantois

c) Maceration d) None of the above

788 The true bacterial venereal disease is a.) Brucellosis

b.) Campylobacteriosisc.) Genital tuberculosis d.) Leptospirosis

789 Endometrial cups secrete PMSG hormone duringa.) 20-60 days b.) 100-180 days c.) 40-120 daysd.) 180-250 days

790 In bitch the abdominal palpation can be best performed for early pregnancy diagnosis during

a.) 15-20 days b.) 28-32 daysc.) 45-50 days d.) 55-60 days

791 Which of the following vulval suture technique has the least disadvantages for the retention of prepartum cervicovaginal prolapse?

a.) Caslicks operation b.) Matress suturec.) Quill suture d.) Buhner`s suture

792 Cuboni test is done to detect the presence of a.) Progesterone b.) PMSGc.) Estrogen d.) None of the above

793 Defective fetal deglutition is thought to be one of the causes ofa.) Hydroallantois b.) Hydroamniosc.) Hydrocephalus d.) Fetal ascitis

99

794 “Buller cow” is representing the a.) Follicular cyst b.) Luteal cystc.) Cystic corpora lutea d.) Par ovarian cyst

795 Yellowish or whitish, thick, opaque uterine secretion nourishing the ovum and embryo is called

a.) Lochia b.) Yolk sac c.) Uterine milk d.) Oviductal fluid

796 Length of diestrus period of estrus cycle in bovine isa) 10 days b) 13 days c) 18 days d) 15 days

797 Period of embryo in cattle isa) 13- 45 days b) 18-50 daysc) 10-12 days d) 45-280 days

798 Fremitus can be best felt earliest during pregnancy in cattlea) 30-40 days b) 40-60 days c) 150-170 days d) 90-120 days

799 Causative organism for contagious equine metritisa) Campylobacter fetus b) Trypenosoma equiperdum c) Herpes virus d) Teylorella equigenitalis

800 Abortion storm is a characteristic sign of a) Vibriosis b) Trychomoniasisc) Brucellosis d) Leptospirosis

801 The location of seminal vesicles in the bovine is a) On the floor of pelvis b) Caudal to the bladder, around the neck of bladderc) On the either side of the pelvis urethra near ischiatic archd) None of the above

100

802 Head office of Directorate of Marketing and inspection is located at (A) Delhi

(B) Ahmedabad (C) Faridabad

(D) Jaipur803 CACP headquarter is located at (A) Jaipur

(B) Pune (C) Kolkata

(D) Delhi804. It is the sheep breed with high fecundity trait

a. Nelloreb. Garolec. Black Bengald. Nail

805. Ringing is the practice followed by sheep owner asa. Tied bell on neckb. Pass through ring of grassesc. Clipping of hair around neckd. Clipping of hair around penis

806. Milling is the process of wool related toa. Removal of grease and dirtb. Raises individual fibres on surfacec. Marking at brisket with colourd. Process of removal of objectionable part

807. Low burr content (LB) is graded in wool at burr content levela. Below 2 %b. Below 3 %c. 3 to 6 %d. More than 6 %

808. Vautha fair is famous for trading ofa. Horseb. Cowc. Cameld. Donkey

809. It is the location were disowned and orphan animal are kepta. Animal poundb. Gaushalac. Panjarapoled. None

101

810. India ranks total milk production in the world.a. Thirdb. Secondc. Fifthd. First

811. Gujarat has total breeds of buffaloes.a. Twob. Fourc. Threed. Six

812. First ring on a horn at the age in cattle.a. 2 yearsb. 4 yearsc. 3yearsd. 5years

813. Principle object of running dairy farm.a. Meat productionb. Milk productionc. Sale of heifersd. Fodder

814. Sahiwal cow is breed pertaining to the group.a. Milchb. Dualc. Draughtd. None

815. Calf starter is a feed for.a. Calfb. Heiferc. Cowd. Buffalo

816. Nose ring should be applied in bull at the age.a. 1.5 yearsb. 2 yearsc. 2.5 yearsd. 3 years

817. Hormone responsible for letdown of milk.a. Oxytocinb. Prolactinec. Lactated. Hyluronidase

102

818. Dehorning is done in the calf at the age.a. 4-10 daysb. 10-20 daysc. 3 monthsd. 6 months

819. Common chemical used for dehorning.a. Sodium bromideb. Potassium iodidec. Caustic potashd. HCL

820. It is not a sexual behavior of bull.a. chin restingb. libidoc. courtshipd. reactivity

821. Banas dairy is located at.a. Palanpurb. Deesac. Bharuchd. Mehsanas

822. Khillar is the breed found at.a. Gujaratb. Andhrapradeshc. Maharashtrad. Karnataka

823. Calf starter is a feeda. liquid feed for calfb. liquid feed for heiferc. solid feed for calfd. solid feed for heifer

824) Calcium requirement in layer poultry per day is abouta. 0.5 %b. 1.5 %c. 3.5 %d. 10 %

825) Incubation period if chicken egga. 19 daysb. 23 daysc. 21 daysd. 18 days

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826) Nutritional roup in poultry is due to deficiency of a. Vit A b. Vit B6 c. Vit K d. Vit E

827) which of the fowl has a single medium wattle a. red jungle fowlb. ceylon jungle fowlc. grey jungle fowld. javan jungle fowl

828) The best breed for using as male line in broiler production is a. White rockb. Cornishc. New Hampshired. Australorp

829) White leghorn are white because a. No colour geneb. A dominant gene which inhibits color c. Recessive white gene d. They have silver gene

830) The wild ............is the ancestor of all domestic duck breedsa. Mallardb. Campbellc. Red fowld. Both a & b

831) The black and white barring in barred Plymouth rock is due to ............barring gene

a. Sex linked geneb. Sex limited genec. Sex influence gened. Dominant gene

832) The wild ............is the ancestor of all domestic duck breedse. Mallardf. Campbellg. Red fowlh. Both a & b

833) In a sex-linked cross involving barring, the female parent is a ...............a. Barred Plymouth Rockb. Non Barred Plymouth Rockc. Both d. None of above

104

834) In a sex-linked cross involving silver and gold, the silver gene carrying ...........parent is used

a. Maleb. Femalec. Both d. None of above

835) In a sex-linked cross involving silver and gold, the gold gene carrying ........parent is used

a. Maleb. Femalec. Both d. None of above

836) In a sex-linked cross involving feathering gene, a late feathering .......parent is used

a. Maleb. Femalec. Both e. None of above

837) Which one is sex linked a. dwarfismb. nakednessc. Albinismd. rapid feathering

838) Egg shell treatment is done to reduce the rate of ............lossa. Oxygen lossb. Carbon dioxide lossc. Both a and bd. Energy loss

839) Shank length and width is a good indicator of ........a. Egg productionb. Meat productionc. Skeleton sized. Health of birds

840) Shank length and width is a good indicator of ........a. Egg productionb. Meat productionc. Skeleton sized. Health of birds

841) Poultry need one more essential aminoacid ........than cattlea. Lysineb. Metheoninc. Glysined. Cystene

105

842) Hens egg contains about.....grams of protein

a. 6-7b. 12-13c. 2-3d. 21-22

843) A component of egg white having antibacterial activitya. Lysozymeb. Avidinec. Transferined. All of above

844 Host which provides a medium for larval or asexual phase of life cycle of an infectious agent.a) Intermediate host b)Final host c)Obligatory host d)None of the above

845 Zoonotic disease are perpetuated in nature by a single vertebrate species.a) Cyclozoonosis b) Direct zoonosisc) metazoonosis d) Amphizoonosis

846 These are the bacterial zoonosis.a)brucellosis b)leptospirosisc)listeriosis d)all of the above

847 Yello fever is transmitted by.a)Ades aegypti b)Argusc)Ioxides d)Simules

848 Epedemic in bird population.a)Epizootic b)Epidemicc)Epornitics d)all of the above

849 Zone comprises the ozone layer. a) Troposphere

b) stratosphere c) mesosphere d) thermosphere

106

850 Method of carcass disposal area) cremation b) burial c) flamegium d) incineration

851 The term refers to smoke mixed with dust a)smog b)smust c)soot d)mist

852 Rotten egg odour in water is due toa) Hyrogen sulfide b) Algae c) Cyanide d) Ammonia

853. Standard of ventilationa) cubic space b)air space c)floor space d)all of the above

854 Type of transmission caused by physical contact.a) direct b)indirect c)contect d)vehicle.

855 Test use for diagnosis of brucellosis in cattle.a) MRT b) coagulation test c)hensa test d) gmelin test.

856 Yellow fever cause by which virus.a)flavi virus b)lyssa virus c)hendra virus d)picorna virus.

857 Constant present of a disease or organism in a community- a)Epidemic

b)Sporadic c)Endemic d)Panzootic

107

858 Diseases transmitted from man to lower vertebrate animals called as a) Zooanthropozoonosis b)Anthropozoonosis c) Amphixenosis d)Sporozoonosis

859 Unit of radiation a) Meds

b) Reds c) calori d)Joule

860 Who is the first chief of VPH in WHO? a) Dr martin Kalpan

b)Dr Smith c)Dr nayadu d)Dr B B Jack

861 Test for residual chlorine a)chlorine

b)florine c)organoleptic d)orthitolidine

862 The term reffered to mixture of smoke and fog a) smog

b)must c)sute d)mist

863 ozogase present in ozonlayer of stratosphere a)0.5 to 1 mg/l

b)0.2 to 0.3 mg/l c)4 to 5 mg/l d)2 to 3 mg/l

864 Tick paralysis is mainly caused by ticks belonging toa) Hyalommab) Ixodes spp.c) Boophilus spp.d) Amblyomma spp.

865 Accidental myiasis causing flya) Musca spp.b) Chrysomia spp.c) Calliphora spp.d) Sarcophaga spp.

108

866 ‘Flea collars’ of dogs and cats are usually impregnted witha) BHCb) DDTc) Malathiond) Dichlorovas

867 The condition ‘butchers jelly’ is caused by the larvae of a) Oestrus ovisb) Gastrophillus intestinalisc) Hypoderma lineatumd) Callitroga hominivorax

868 The two pairs of antennae are present in artropodas belonging to the classa) Arachnidab) Crustaeciac) Insectad) Myriapoda

869 Formation of hairballs in the stomach of calves may occur due to a) Fly infestationb) Lice infestationc) By both of the aboved) None of the above

870 Which of the following is not a larviparous flya) Oestrus ovisb) Sarcophaga duxc) Pseudolynchia canariensisd) Gastrophillus intestinalis

871 The following is known as wing louse of poultrya) Lipeurus caponisb) Goniodes gigasc) Menopon gallinaed) Menacanthus stramineus

872 The budy of an arachnid is divided into two parts the anterior gnathosoma and posteriora) Podosomab) Idiosomac) Opisthosomad) Prosoma

873 A key role in the transmission of artropod borne diseases is played by thea) Circulatory systemb) Excretory systemc) Respiratory systemd) Digestive system

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874 Hexagonal discal cell is present in the wings ofa) Tabanus spp.b) Stomoxys spp.c) Phlebotomus spp.d) All the above

875 wool-staining in sheep is caused bya) Oestrus ovisb) Damalinia ovisc) Melophagas ovinusd) None of the above

876 Brown-dog tick is a) Rhipicephalus appendiculatusb) Rhipicephalus sanguineusc) Haemaphysalis leachid) None of the above

877 ‘Gavac’ vaccine is used againsta) Hyalomma anatolicumb) Dermacentor andersonic) Haemaphysalis leachid) Boophilus microplus

878 ‘Sweet itch’ in horses is caused bya) Simulium indicumb) Phlebotomus sergentic) Culicoides robertsid) Climex lecturalius

879 How are hosts affected directly by arthropods?a) Infestationb) Bitesc) Anaphylactic shockd) All of the above

880 The term ‘entomophobia’ meansa) A fear of insectsb) The science of insect classificationc) The study of insectsd) The study of insect behaviour

881 Which of the insects listed below could cause myiasis?a) Dragon flyb) Fleac) Screwworn flyd) Mite

110

882 In insects, the body part which acts as a protective structure and which provides for the attachment of muscles is known as thea) Endoskeletonb) Scleritesc) Abdomond) Exoskeleton

883 Insects which posses sponging mouth parts and do not bite area) House fliesb) Fleasc) Mosquitoesd) Deer flies

884 Which of the following is not correctly matched-?(A) Zn deficiency-Pig(B) Epidemic tremor-Virus(C) Siderosis-silica dust(D) Alkali disease-Se

885 Pachymeningitis is inflammation of-(A) Piamater(B) Brain(C) Duramater(D) Spinal cord

886 Liquifactive necrosis is most commonly seen in-(A) Kidney(B) Liver(C) Heart(D) Brain

887 Which of the following is correctly matched-?(A) Picorna virus-Ranikhet disease(B) Lumpy skin disease- Pox virus(C) Diamond skin disease-Herpes virus(D) Paramyxo virus-FMD

888 Enlargement of Sciatic nerve is seen in-(A) Ranikhet disease (B) Marek’s disease(C) Chronic respiratory disease(D) Infectious Coryza

889 Apennosis is-(A) Intracellular edema of epidermis(B) Congenital lack of feathers in fowl(C) Absence of pineal gland(D) Lack of cell differentiation during embryogenesis

111

890 Which is incorrect about avain tuberculosis-?(A) Calcification absent(B) Liver and bones are most commonly affected(C) Lungs are most commonly affected(D) Intradermal test is performed on wattle.

891 Post mortem of cattle reveals too much emaciated carcass,mucosa of intestine thrown into corrugated folds, most probable cause will be-(A) Rinder pest(B) Johne’s disease(C) Tuberculosis(D) Pasterellosis.

892 Spondylitis is inflammation of-(A) Prepuce

(B) Vertebrae(C) Bone (D) Spermatic cord

893 Which of the following is correct regarding poultry diseases-?(A) In pullorum disease, green constant diarrhea is seen(B) Face is swollen and edematous in Haemophilus infection(C) Bloody mucous expelled from trachea in Infectious Bronchitis(D) In pullorum disease, nervous signs are seen along with diarrhoea

894 In which outbreak at poultry farm maximum mortality of birds will be expected?(A) Ranikhet disease(B) Infectious Bronchitis(C) Infectious Lanyngiotracheitis(D) Avain Encephalomyelitis

895 Dohle’s bodies are toxic granules of-(A) Macrophages(B) Eosinophils(C) Neutrophils(D) Lymphocytes

896 East coast fever is caused by-(A) Theleria parva (B) Theleria annulata(C) Babesia bovis (D) Anaplasma centrale

897 Edema consisting of gelatinous material in neck and brisket region seen in cattle in-(A) Black Quarter(B) Deganala disease(C) Botulism(D) Haemorrhagic Septicemia

112

898 Which is the main chemical mediator of inflammation-?(A) Serotonin(B) Bradykinin(C) Histamin(D) Interleukin-1

899 Big liver disease is also known as-(A) IBD(B) CRD(C) Fowl cholera(D) Fowl typhoid

900 In Angara disease, the pathological finding is-(A) Haemopericardium (B) Hydropericardium(C) Myocarditis (D) Pneumopericardium

901 In Left side heart failure, the heart failure cells are seen in-(A) Lungs(B) Heart(C) Kidney(D) Spleen

902 Sway back condition is seen due to deficiency of-(A) Cu(B) Co(C) Mn(D) Se

903 Most pathogenic species/disease affecting Snakes-(A) Pasteurellosis(B) Histomoniasis(C) Salmonellosis(D) Listeriosis.

904 Abnormal large amount of granulation tissue is known asa. Proud fleshb. Callusc. Adenoma d. Wound

905 Who introduced the basic principles of surgerya. W. S. Halstedb. Joseph Lister c. W. T. G. Mortend. Michal Harward

113

906 Gangrene occurs most commonly in buffaloes at a. Udderb. Ear pinnac. Taild. All of above

907 Perineal hernia is common ina. Maresb. Castrated dogs c. Spayed bitches d. Adult uncastrarted dogs

908 Peterson's block is practiced to anaesthetizea. Teethb. Eyec. Flankd. Limb

909 If the content of hernia is urinary bladder, then it is termed asa. Enteroceleb. Epiplocelec. Vesicocele d. Hysterocele

910 Radical surgery is done toa. Conserve damaged tissueb. Remove damaged tissuec. Eliminate root caused. Correct malformations

911 Preanesthetic medication is employed to makea. Induction of anaesthesia smoothb. Recovery complication minimumc. Animal more controllabled. All of above

912 Reaction of living tissue to injury is known asa. Infectionb. Inflammation c. Infestation d. Sarcoma

913 Irreducibility of hernia is a due toa. Adhesion b. Strangulation c. Incarcerationd. All of above

114

914 One of the following is the congenital defect of eyea. Dermoid cystb. Hypopiac. Exophthalmosd. Conrneal ulcer

915 Exposure factor for taking radiograph isa. mAb. kVpc. Second d. All of above

916 Amputation of horn can be done undera. Cornual nerve block b. Caudal epiduralc. Anterior epidural d. Retrobulbar nerve block

917 Adhesion of iris to cornea is known asa. Anterior synechiab. Posterior synechiac. Epiphorad. Chemosis

918 Surgical operation for providing drainage from middle ear is known asa. Zepps' operationb. Bulla osteotomyc. Hyovertebrotomyd. Ventriculectomy

919 FFD for taking diagnostic radiography should bea. Minimumb. 90 cmc. 36 inch d. Maximum

920 Reflecting layer is present ina. X-ray filmb. X-ray tube c. Intensifying screend. All the above

921 Frequency mainly used for the purpose of diagnostic ultrasounda. 1 to 10 MHz b. More than 50 MHz c. Less than 20000Hz d. None of the above

115

922 Barium sulphate is exclusively used fora. Outlining alimentary tract b. Outlining urinary tractc. Outlining spinal canal d. Outlining abdominal cavity

923 Reducing agent used in x-ray developera. Metolb. Sodium carbonate c. Potassium bromided. Sodium sulphite

924 Cells found in the choroid plexus that secrete cerebrospinal fluid are: a. Astrocytes b. Microglia c. Ependymal cells d. Oligodendrocytes

925 Action potentials are conducted more rapidly in: a. Small diameter axons than large diameter axons b. Large diameter axons than small diameter axons c. Unmyelinated axons than myelinated axons d. Axons that lack a wrapping of Schwann cells

926 Neurotransmitters are stored in vesicles that are located primarily in specialized portions of the: a. Soma b. Axon c. Dendrite d. Perikaryon

927 Which of the following organelles is responsible for the appearance of Nissl bodies in the cell bodies of motor neurons? a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum c. Golgi apparatus d. Mitochondria

928 Which of the following structures is a component of a reflex arc? a. Afferent neuron b. Efferent neuron c. Effector organ d. All of the above

929 The testosterone-producing cells of the testes are called: a. Sertoli cells b. Granulosa cells c. Spermatogonia d. Leydig cells

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930 An oocyte surrounded by one layer of squamous follicle-like cells is most likely a: a. Primordial follicle b. Primary follicle c. Secondary follicle d. Graafian follicle

931 Podocytes make up the: a. Visceral layer of the nephron b. Visceral layer of the glomerulus c. Visceral layer of the renal capsule d. Visceral layer of the Bowman's Capsule

932 Glucose is: a. Filtered, reabsorbed, and secreted b. Filtered, and reabsorbed, but not secreted c. Filtered, and secreted, but not reabsorbed d. Filtered, and neither secreted nor reabsorbed

933 While the kidneys process about 180L of blood-derived fluids per day, the amount that actually leaves the body is: a. 50%, or 90L b. 100%, or 180L c. 10%, or 18L d. 1%, or 1.8L

934 The fluid in the capsular space is similar to plasma except that it does not contain a significant amount of: a. Glucose b. Sodium c. H+ d. Albumin

935 Aldosterone causes: a. Decreased K+ in the urine b. Increased Na+ in the urine c. Increased urine output d. Decreased urine output

936 Which of the following is not one of the 3 external coverings of the kidney? a. Renal capsule b. Adipose capsule c. Renal fascia d. Renal adventitia

937 The addition of a strong acid to the extracellular fluid would result in the increased formation of: a. NaHCO3

-

b. H2CO3 c. OH- d. All of the above

117

938 Severe vomiting can result in: a. Septic shockb. Anaphylactic shock c. Hypovolemic shock d. All of the above

939 A patient with a hypothalamic tumor has hypersecretion of ADH. Which of the following BP readings would be most likely for this patient?a. 95/65b. 115/80 c. 120/60d. 165/100

940 The space in the middle of the thoracic cavity where the heart resides is the: a. pericardial cavityb. pericardiumc. pleural cavityd) mediastinum

941 Blood returning from the lungs enters the heart through the: a. pulmonary semilunar valveb. mitral valvec. right ventricled. left atrium

942 The precursor of ketone body isa. Acetyl CoAb.Acetoacetic acidc. Betahydroxybutyric acidd. Cholesterol

943) For intravenous (IV) dosages, what is the bioavailability assumed to be?a) 0% b) 25%c) 75%d) 100%

944) Which of the following is NOT a pharmacokinetic process?a) Alteration of the drug by liver enzymesb) Drug metabolites are removed in the urinec) Movement of drug from the gut into general circulationd) The drug causes dilation of coronary vessels

945) Which of the following has no side effects?a) Paracetamolb) Aspirinc) Meloxicam d) None of above

118

946) Most drugs are either ____ acids or ____ bases.a) Strong; Strong b) Strong; Weak c) Weak; Weakd) All of above

947) Which of the following enteral administration routes has the largest first-pass effect?a) SL (sublingual)b) Buccalc) Rectald) Oral

948) Which of the following would receive drug slowly?a) Liverb) Brain c) Fatd) Muscle

949) Pharmacokinetics is the effect of the ____ and Pharmacodynamics is the effect of the ____.a) Drug on a drug; Body on the drugb) Body on the drug; Drug on a drugc) Drug on the body; Body on the drugd) Body on the drug; Drug on the body

950) Which of the following is NOT an action of the body on a drug?a) Absorptionb) Distributionc) Metabolismd) Side effects

951) Which of the following is the amount of a drug absorbed per amount administered?a) Bioavailabilityb) Bioequivalencec) Drug absorptiond) All of above

952) What type of drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB)?a) Large and lipid-solubleb) Large and lipid-insolublec) Small and lipid-solubled) Small and lipid-insoluble

953) Which of the following is NOT a phase II substrate?a) Glucuronic acidb) Sulfuric acidc) Acetic acidd) Amino acids

119

954) Which of the following reactions is phase II and NOT phase I?a) Oxidationsb) Reductionsc) Conjugationsd) Deaminations

955) What is the goal of the Cytochrome-P450 system?a) Metabolism of substancesb) Detoxification of substancesc) Decreasing pH of compartments containing substancesd) A & B

956) Weak acids are excreted faster in ____ urine and weak bases are excreted faster in____ urine.a) Acidic; Alkalineb) Alkaline; Acidicc) Acidic; Neutrald) Alkaline; Neutral

957) Which organ is responsible for metabolism in the “first pass effect”?a) Brainb) Heartc) Kidneyd) Liver

958) What determines the degree of movement of a drug between body compartments?a) Partition constantb) Degree of ionizationc) Sized) All of the above

959 Following is responsible for agglutination of RBC in animal body.a) Abrin b) Ricin c) Renin d) Thiamine

960 Bovine Bunker is synonym to a) Urea toxicity b) Salt toxicity c) Oxalates toxicity d) Selenium toxicity

961 Severe and acute pneumonia (Drowning syndrome) indicates probability of poisoning due to a) ANTU b) OCTP c) MB d) OP

120

962 All of following except one is not used for doping in animala) Furasemide b) Phenylbutazone c) Steroids d) Adrenaline

963. The dry matter requirement of goat isa. 2 – 3 %b. 6 – 8 %c. 4 -5 %10 %

964. Nagler’s reaction with Cl.perfringens on egg yolk agar is due to a. Haemolysin b. Hyaluronidase c. Lecithinase d. Leucocidin

965. Cytochemically Rickettssia area. Weak gram positive b. weak gram negative c. Acid fast d. None

966. Corynebacteria can be characterized as a. Non motile, non sporing, aerobic, gram positive bacillib. Motile, non sporing, aerobic, Gram positive bacillic. Motile, sporing, aerobic, Gram positive bacillid. Non motile, sporing, anaerobic, Gram positive bacilli

967. The cells parasitized in host by Rickettsia area. Erythrocytes b. Vascular endothelial cellsc. Neutrophills d. Monocytes

968. Dimorphic fungi producesa.Mold type growth at 370 Cb. Yeast type growth at 220 Cc. Mold type growth at 370 C and Yeast type growth at 220 C.d. Yeast type growth at 370 C.and mold type growth at 220 C

969. The organism present in high concentration in pigeon droppings isa . Candida albicans b. Cryptococcus neoformansc.Rhinosporidium seeberid. Aspergillus flavus

121

970. Which of the following is incorrect match.a. Diene’s stain: Mycoplasmab. Fontana stain: Spirochaetesc. Machiavello stain: Chlamydiad. Acid fast stain: Staphylococci

971. Strauss reaction is positive fora. Brucella abortusb. Pseudomonas malleic. Actinobacillus ligneresiid. All of above

972. The Weil-Felix test is an agglutination reaction between.a. Antibody against Rickettsia and antigen from Pseudomonasb. Antibody against Rickettsia and antigen from Staphylococci.c. Antibody against Rickettsia and antigen from Brucella.d. Antibody against Rickettsia and antigen from Proteus.

973. IMViC pattern of Salmonella isa. + + - -b. + - + -c. - - + +d. - + - +

974. Virus having criss cross pattern on its surface isa. Contagious pustular dermatitis virusb. Fowl pox virusc. Adeno virusd. Parvo virus

975. Virus having cyclic DNA isa. Papova virusb. Parvovirusc. Pestivirusd. Poxvirus

976. Diploid genome is the characteristic of virus familya. Retroviridaeb. Rhabdoviridaec. Reoviridaed. None of these

977. Bovine viral diarrhea virus belongs to familya. Togaviridaeb. Reoviridaec. Herpes viridaed. Flaviviridae

122

978. Which animal is not susceptible to vesicular exanthema virus.a. Pigb. Horsec. Cowd. All of above

979. Samples suspected for Pox virus are inoculated in embryonated eggs by the route of

a. Allantoic cavityb. Amniotic cavityc. CAMd. Yolk sac

980. Bovine ephemeral fever virus belongs to the familya. Herpes viridaeb. Rhabdoviridaec. Reoviridaed. Togaviridae

981. EDS-76 isa. Herpes virusb. Corona virusc. Adenovirusd. Poxvirus

982. Paired serum samples meansa. Serum sample collected at two different stages of a disease from an animalb. From two different animals.c. Samples divided in two aliquots.d. Samples collected from two parents.f. Newcastle disease virus infection in human can causea. Generalized infectionb. Contagious respiratory infection.c. Contgious conjunctivitis and mild influenza like symptomsd. Encephalitis

983. Which of the following showing buoyant density of DNA, RNA and Protein is correct:a. RNA>DNA>Proteinb. Protein>RNA>DNAc. DNA> RNA>Proteind. Protein>DNA>RNA

984. Intercalation of ethidium bromide (etBr) in DNA molecule will:a. Increase the buoyant density of DNA moleculeb. Decreases the buoyant density of DNA moleculec. Does not affect the buoyant density of DNA moleculed. None of the above

123

985. Exonucleases:a. Removes nucleotides one at a time from the end of DNA moleculeb. Break internal phospho-diester bonds within DNA moleculec. Removes nucleotides only in 3’-5’ directiond. Removes nucleotides only in 5’-3’ direction

986. Endonucleases:a. Removes nt one at a time from the end of DNA moleculeb. Break internal phospho-diester bonds within DNA moleculec. Removes nts only in 3’-5’ directiond. Removes nts only in 5’-3’ direction

987. The enzyme used to remove phosphate group at the 5’ end of DNA molecule is:a. Alkaline phosphataseb. Polynucleotide kinasec. Terminal deoxytransferased. Topoisomerase

988. The enzyme used to add phosphate group at the free 5’ end of DNA molecule is:a. Alkaline phosphataseb. Polynucleotide kinasec. Terminal deoxytransferased. Topoisomerase

989. The enzyme that changes the conformation of covalently closed circular DNA by introducing of removing supercoils is: a. Alkaline phosphataseb. Polynucleotide kinasec. Terminal deoxytransferased. Topoisomerase

990. Eco RI produces:a. Blunt endb. Sticky endc. Both d. None

991. The specific position on a DNA molecule where DNA replication begins is called:a. Replication forkb. Origin of replicationc. Start Point of replicationd. None of the above

992. An algorithm used to search homology is:a. BLASTb. CLASTc. PUBSCANd. HOMOSCAN

993. The fact that not all codons are used equal frequency in the genes of a particular organism is called:

124

a. Codon preferenceb. Codon biasc. Codon choiced. None of the above

994. A technique that can be used to construct a clone contig by identifying overlapping fragments of cloned DNA:a. Gene walkingb. Chromosome walkingc. Clone fingerprintingd. None of the above

995. The ability of two different types of plasmid to co-exist in same cell is called:a. Competenceb. Compatibilityc. Interferenced. None of the above

996. The non coding sequence within genes that do not translate into protein is:a. Intronb. Exonc. Transposonsd. None of the above

997. The coding sequence within genes that translate into protein is:a. Intronb. Exonc. Transposonsd. None of the above

998. The process of modification of RNA after transcription in which introns are removed and exons are joined is called:a. Splicingb. Recombinationc. Translocationd. Assortment

999. A relatively short fragments of DNA synthesized on the lagging strand during DNA replication is called:a. Primerb. Okazaki fragmentc. Klenow fragmentd. None of the above

1000. Which of the following is not a stop codon:a. AUGb. UAAc. UGAd. UAG

1001. Which of the following is a start codon:a. AUG

125

b. GUGc. Bothd. None

1002. Which of the following is incorrect about genetic code:a. It is non overlappingb. It is redundantc. It is ambiguousd. None of the above

ANSWER KEYSr. Answe Sr. Answe Sr. Answer Sr. No Answer Sr. No Answer

126

No r No r No1. a 46 b 91 c 136 b 181 a2. d 47 b 92 c 137 b 182 c3. b 48 a 93 b 138 a 183 d4. d 49 a 94 c 139 b 184 b5. B 50 c 95 a 140 b 185 d6. C 51 b 96 a 141 b 186 a7. d 52 b 97 c 142 a 187 c8. b 53 b 98 a 143 b 188 a9. a 54 c 99 a 144 b 189 c10. b 55 c 100 a 145 b 190 a11. b 56 b 101 c 146 a 191 a12. a 57 c 102 a 147 a 192 c13. c 58 d 103 b 148 a 193 b14. a 59 c 104 b 149 a 194 b15. a 60 a 105 a 150 a 195 b16. a 61 d 106 b 151 b 196 d17. b 62 a 107 a 152 d 197 b18. c 63 a 108 a 153 c 198 c19. a 64 c 109 c 154 b 199 a20. d 65 d 110 b 155 b 200 c21. c 66 d 111 d 156 b 201 a22. c 67 a 112 b 157 b 202 c23. c 68 d 113 b 158 a 203 c24. c 69 a 114 a 159 c 204 c25. b 70 a 115 a 160 d 205 c26. a 71 c 116 a 161 b 206 b27. c 72 a 117 b 162 c 207 a28. a 73 d 118 a 163 d 208 b29. c 74 c 119 c 164 a 209 a30. d 75 a 120 d 165 b 210 a31. c 76 c 121 b 166 c 211 a32. d 77 d 122 b 167 d 212 b33. b 78 a 123 a 168 a 213 c34. c 79 c 124 b 169 c 214 a35. d 80 d 125 a 170 b 215 d36. b 81 b 126 d 171 b 216 d37. a 82 a 127 a 172 a 217 d38. a 83 d 128 a 173 c 218 c39. b 84 a 129 a 174 b 219 a40. a 85 a 130 b 175 a 220 a41. d 86 c 131 a 176 c 221 a42. b 87 c 132 a 177 b 222 c43. c 88 a 133 a 178 d 223 a44. a 89 c 134 a 179 c 224 b45. b 90 a 135 b 180 c 225 B

Sr. No

Answer

Sr. No

Answer

Sr. No

Answer Sr. No Answer Sr. No Answer

226 c 271 b 316 a 361 a 406 B

127

227 c 272 a 317 c 362 d 407 A228 b 273 d 318 c 363 a 408 B229 b 274 a 319 c 364 b 409 A230 a 275 a 320 a 365 b 410 b231 a 276 a 321 a 366 d 411 b232 c 277 b 322 a 367 c 412 a233 a 278 a 323 c 368 a 413 a234 b 279 c 324 b 369 b 414 b235 a 280 b 325 d 370 c 415 a236 b 281 c 326 b 371 c 416 b237 c 282 c 327 c 372 d 417 d238 c 283 b 328 d 373 c 418 b239 d 284 c 329 a 374 c 419 a240 d 285 b 330 c 375 d 420 d241 b 286 d 331 d 376 b 421 d242 d 287 b 332 d 377 a 422 c243 d 288 a 333 c 378 c 423 d244 c 289 b 334 a 379 C 424 b245 a 290 b 335 d 380 D 425 b246 d 291 c 336 d 381 C 426 d247 c 292 a 337 a 382 B 427 b248 d 293 a 338 d 383 a 428 a249 d 294 a 339 a 384 b 429 d250 a 295 a 340 b 385 A 430 b251 a 296 c 341 b 386 A 431 b252 c 297 b 342 d 387 B 432 a253 c 298 a 343 c 388 C 433 b254 c 299 b 344 c 389 B 434 d255 d 300 a 345 d 390 B 435 b256 a 301 a 346 b 391 B 436 b257 b 302 a 347 a 392 C 437 c258 b 303 c 348 d 393 B 438 a259 b 304 c 349 b 394 C 439 b260 d 305 a 350 a 395 D 440 b261 b 306 b 351 a 396 D 441 c262 b 307 d 352 c 397 B 442 b263 c 308 d 353 d 398 C 443 a264 a 309 a 354 a 399 B 444 c265 d 310 b 355 a 400 B 445 b266 b 311 b 356 b 401 B 446 a267 d 312 a 357 c 402 B 447 a268 a 313 a 358 d 403 A 448 a269 a 314 b 359 a 404 B 449 d270 b 315 a 360 d 405 A 450 D

Sr. No

Answer

Sr. No

Answer

Sr. No


451 c 496 d 541 c 586 a 631 b

128

452 a 497 b 542 a 587 c 632 c453 b 498 a 543 a 588 a 633 c454 a 499 b 544 b 589 a 634 c455 a 500 a 545 a 590 b 635 d456 a 501 B 546 b 591 b 636 c457 c 502 C 547 b 592 d 637 a458 b 503 B 548 b 593 b 638 c459 c 504 A 549 b 594 c 639 b460 a 505 D 550 d 595 c 640 b461 c 506 D 551 b 596 a 641 b462 d 507 A 552 c 597 a 642 a463 a 508 A 553 a 598 b 643 c464 c 509 B 554 a 599 c 644 c465 d 510 A 555 d 600 d 645 b466 b 511 b 556 c 601 b 646 b467 b 512 a 557 c 602 b 647 a468 a 513 b 558 b 603 c 648 c469 c 514 c 559 a 604 c 649 b470 b 515 a 560 b 605 c 650 b471 b 516 a 561 b 606 b 651 a472 d 517 a 562 d 607 b 652 a473 b 518 a 563 b 608 c 653 c474 b 519 c 564 c 609 c 654 b475 a 520 c 565 b 610 b 655 d476 c 521 a 566 b 611 c 656 c477 d 522 d 567 b 612 b 657 b478 d 523 a 568 c 613 d 658 b479 a 524 b 569 b 614 b 659 c480 a 525 c 570 c 615 a 660 d481 d 526 b 571 c 616 a 661 d482 d 527 a 572 a 617 b 662 b483 b 528 b 573 a 618 a 663 b484 d 529 d 574 c 619 b 664 c485 a 530 a 575 a 620 d 665 c486 d 531 b 576 b 621 d 666 a487 b 532 d 577 b 622 d 667 b488 d 533 a 578 c 623 c 668 a489 d 534 c 579 a 624 b 669 b490 d 535 c 580 c 625 a 670 b491 a 536 a 581 a 626 c 671 c492 b 537 a 582 a 627 d 672 d493 c 538 b 583 b 628 d 673 c494 a 539 a 584 b 629 d 674 a495 d 540 c 585 c 630 a 675 A

Sr. No

Answer

Sr. No

Answer

Sr. No


676 d 721 a 766 a 811 b 856 a

129

677 c 722 b 767 d 812 c 857 c678 c 723 a 768 c 813 b 858 a679 b 724 d 769 b 814 a 859 b680 c 725 c 770 b 815 a 860 a681 c 726 a 771 a 816 b 861 d682 a 727 b 772 d 817 a 862 a683 c 728 b 773 a 818 a 863 d684 a 729 d 774 c 819 d 864 b685 c 730 c 775 a 820 d 865 a686 b 731 a 776 c 821 a 866 d687 a 732 b 777 c 822 d 867 c688 a 733 b 778 a 823 a 868 b689 c 734 d 779 b 824 c 869 b690 b 735 b 780 d 825 c 870 d691 c 736 a 781 a 826 a 871 a692 a 737 d 782 b 827 d 872 b693 d 738 c 783 c 828 b 873 d694 c 739 d 784 d 829 b 974 a695 a 740 a 785 d 830 a 875 c696 a 741 d 786 b 831 a 876 b697 a 742 b 787 c 832 a 877 d698 a 743 c 788 b 833 a 878 c699 d 744 b 789 c 834 b 879 d700 b 745 d 790 b 835 a 880 a701 b 746 c 791 d 836 b 881 c702 a 747 a 792 c 837 d 882 d703 a 748 b 793 b 838 b 883 a704 c 749 a 794 a 839 c 884 c705 b 750 c 795 c 840 c 885 c706 d 751 a 796 b 841 c 886 d707 b 752 d 797 a 842 a 887 b708 b 753 b 798 d 843 a 888 b709 b 754 b 799 d 844 a 889 b710 d 755 a 800 c 845 b 890 c711 a 756 b 801 b 846 d 891 b712 a 757 c 802 c 847 a 892 b713 c 758 c 803 d 848 c 893 b714 b 759 b 804 b 849 b 894 c715 a 760 a 805 d 850 b 895 c716 b 761 b 806 b 851 b 896 a717 a 762 b 807 b 852 a 897 d718 a 763 b 808 d 853 d 898 c719 a 764 b 809 c 854 c 899 a720 b 765 a 810 d 855 a 900 B

Sr. No

Answer

Sr. No

Answer

Sr. No


901 A 946 C 991 b

130

902 A 947 D 992 a903 C 948 C 993 b904 A 949 D 994 b905 A 950 D 995 b906 C 951 A 996 a907 D 952 C 997 b908 B 953 D 998 a909 C 954 C 999 b910 C 955 D 1000 a911 D 956 B 1001 c912 B 957 D 1002 c913 D 958 D914 A 959 B915 D 960 a916 A 961 A917 A 962 D918 B 963 B919 B 964 C920 C 965 B921 C 966 A922 A 967 B923 A 968 D924 C 969 B925 B 970 D926 B 971 D927 B 972 D928 d 973 D929 D 974 A930 A 975 A931 d 976 A932 b 977 D933 D 978 B934 D 979 C935 D 980 B936 d 981 C937 B 982 A938 C 983 a939 D 984 b940 D 985 a941 D 986 b942 D 987 a943 D 988 b944 D 989 d945 d 990 b

131

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