[0] PMP Sample Exam Questions-607

PROJECT CONTRACT MANAGEMENT

100 Que # 100Que Which is not an element of procurement management?A. PurchasingB. ExpeditingC. AcquisitionD. MarketingE. C and D

101 Que # 101Que The purchasing cycle consists of all the following elements except?A. Defined NeedB. Transmit NeedC. InspectionD. Price & TermsE.

PMgroup Executing102 Que # 102

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A. Payment authorizationB. Bid cost considerationsC. Release paymentD. Back chargeE.

PMgroup Planning103 Que # 103

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A. Purchase orderB. Level of effort workC. Scope of workD. Contract stipulationE.


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A. Project Data reviewB. Change orderC. Change ControlD. Contract negotiationsE.


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The cost of corrective action taken by the purchaser and chargeable to the supplier under the terms of the contract is

__________ is a narrative description of the work to be accomplished or resource to be supplied.

By which means is a contractor able to control costs overruns due to changing requirements?

_________ is a written order directing the contractor to make changes according to the provisions of the contract documents.

A. Change order/purchase order AmendmentB. Contract order Modifications.C. Contractor claimD. Owner DirectiveE.


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A. Final CompletionB. Substantial CompletionC. Final AcceptanceD. Mechanical CompletionE.


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A. Bid ProtestB. Stop Work orderC. Notice to ProceedD. Supplier Default NoticeE.


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A. Bid ProtestB. Stop Work OrderC. Back chargeD. Contract DisputeE.


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A. PerformanceB. FunctionalC. TechnicalD. BidE. General Requirements


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A. Evaluation of suppliers financial resourcesB. Ability to comply with technical specifications,C. Delivery schedule and Cost factors

_________ defines when the work is ready for or is being used for the purpose intended and is so certified.

_________ is a request for interim stoppage of work due to non conformance, funding or technical considerations

The process that may be used by an unsuccessful supplier to seek remedy for a non award of work is

The __________ specification describes, defines or specifies the goods/services to be supplied.

The Bid Evaluation process is characterized by all of the following activities except?

D. Performance RecordE. Competitors' method of sourcing


Que Which is not a consideration in a make or buy decision?A. Cost factorsB. Sales VolumeC. Existence of sufficient administration/technical personnelD. Political and, social factors with the organizationE.


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A. AssistanceB. Sealed BiddingC. Competitive proposalsD. AcquisitionE. Small Purchases


Que A purchasing operation does not contain this classification of workA. ManagementB. BuyingC. Follow up and expeditionD. MarketingE. Clerical


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A. Procurement invitationB. Bid ListC. Resource IdentificationD. Supplier's RankingsE.


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A. Request for QuotationB. Bid ResponseC. Intention for BidD. Invitation for BidE. Request for Proposal


There are four methods of government procurement. Which is not one of these methods?

__________ is a register of suppliers invited to submit bids for goods/services as specified.

__________ is a formal invitation to submit a price for goods and/or services as specified.

Que Which contract type should be used by the owner on a high risk project?A. Cost Plus Percentage of CostB. Cost Plus Incentive FeeC. Lump SumD. Fixed Price Plus Incentive FeeE. C and D


Que Cost Reimbursable contracts are equivalent toA. Progress Payment ContractsB. Extra Work Order ContractsC. Cost Plus ContractsD. Fixed Price ContractsE.


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A. ContractorB. OwnerC. Lending InstitutionD. Project ManagerE.


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A. Sales forecastB. Consumer Price IndexC. Production forecastD. Price forecastE.


Que The contract is signed at the end of theA. Pre-award phaseB. Award phaseC. Post-award phaseD. Solicitation phaseE. Award cycle


Que Definitive contract terms are spelled out in theA. Pre-award phaseB. Award phaseC. Post-award phaseD. Purchasing phase

Fixed price and incentive type contracts place responsibility for performance and financial risks associated with delay or non performance on the

__________ is based on information gathered and analyzed about demand and supply. This forecast provides a prediction of short and long term prices and the underlying reasons for those trends.

E. Pre-award phase for fixed cost contracts, and Award phase for cost plus contracts


Que A bilateral RFP is preferred to an invitation to bid whenA. supplier and terms are specifiedB. the product or service is relatively low value and readily availableC. the product or service has high value and is uniqueD. the product or service has high value, but is easy to obtainE.


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A. Protocol, probing, scratching B. Sniffing and smelling (olfactory)C. Touching and caressing (tactile)D. Mind-reading and extra-sensory perceptionE. None of the above


Que The bid package is developed in theA. Requirements phaseB. Requisition cycleC. Solicitation cycleD. Award cycleE. Award phase


Que The Award phase includes theA. requirements, requisition and award cyclesB. award and contractual cyclesC. requisition and solicitation cyclesD. solicitation cycleE. cycles required for the contract


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A. None. Fast-tracking is a very poor time to consider a contractor.B. Fixed lump sumC. Cost plus incentiveD. Cost plus percentage of costE. c and d


Que Which is not a factor in choosing a contractor?

PMI suggests which of the following behaviors as part of contract negotiations?

To relieve pressure on the project schedule, Diane decided to fast-track and hire a contractor to do part of the work. Which form of contract(s) should she consider?

A. Complexity of requirementsB. Price competitionC. CompetencyD. CapacityE. none of the above


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A. the form of contract required to get the best contractorB. Fixed priceC. Cost plusD. OverseasE.


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A. full value; partial valueB. definitive; undefinedC. incentive fee; award feeD. fixed price; cost-plusE. end price; target price


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A. an explicit work and product descriptionB. a generic statement of the requirementsC.

D.

E. none of the above


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A. fixed priceB. cost-plusC. time and materialsD. definitive

Requirements and specifications are always changing in the systems integration business. Therefore, the best form of contract for this environment would be

In the area of contracting, there are two basic types of contracts that reflect how the total price is determined. The ________ contract has an objective of a pre-determined end price while the ________ contract has an objective of a target end price.

A contract is a promise to provide goods and/or services to one party in return for something of value from that party. To define the goods, services, and something of value in a legal document, the contract must be comprised of ________.

a basic contract, a statement of work, a specification, and a list of documentation requirements

statements of the requirements using language that describes the physical characteristics and the amount of money to be paid for the delivered products

The selection of the type of contract is important because of the cost risk involved. In most cases, the buyer (owner) will attempt to transfer the risk to the seller (project sponsor). The buyer, therefore, will always attempt to award a(n) ________ contract to the seller.

E. incentive fee


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A. letterB. cost-plusC. fixed priceD. variable priceE. temporary


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A. prepare a unique contractB. tailor an old contractC. use standard clauses in contractsD. avoid using contractual documentsE. mix standard and unique clauses


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A. issued by the project procurement sectionB. received by the vendorC. filled by the vendorD. accepted and signed by the vendorE. completed through delivery of the products by the vendor


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A. mixed competitionB. pure competitionC. monopolistic competitionD. oligopolyE. monopoly


The buyer has not completely defined all the requirements for the project but has enough definition to start. The type of contract that will most likely be awarded while additional requirements are being finalized is the ________ contract.

Contracts may be written in any form that is understandable and enforceable, and often project personnel attempt to be "creative" in developing the document. Given a choice, it is best to ________ to meet the requirements of the project.

A purchase order can be considered a contract with a vendor to provide a number of parts or components that will be used in project implementation. The purchase order becomes a "contract" when it is ________.

The marketplace often dictates the price of products and services through competitive or noncompetitive supply situations, which will vary from many suppliers to one supplier. However, ________ is not a market condition.

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A. requisitionB. requirementC. solicitationD. awardE. contractual


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A. availability of peopleB. availability of fundsC. technology/know-howD. availability of contractors/manufacturersE. price


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A. responsibility matrixB. listing of contractsC. contracting manualD. project contract management planE. project configuration management plan


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A. change noticeB. new contractC. change orderD. proposalE. plan


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A. separate contracts between the customer and the projectB. stand-alone subcontracts to the prime contractC. an integral part of the prime contract as an amendmentD. secondary in legality to the prime contract

The contracting process for the negotiation and legal execution is divided into pre-award, award, and post-award phases and five cycles that describe the activities under the phases. The first cycle under the pre-award phase is the ________ cycle.

Project management, as an integration function, has the need to either make or buy components of the system. The decision to make or buy is based on all the following but ________.

A contract is a stand-alone legal document and must be individually managed to ensure the proper performance. Many projects have several contracts to be initiated and executed throughout the life of the project. Therefore, it is best to have a ________ that anticipates and describes the types of contracts required for the project.

Contracts for projects require revisions to meet the project needs as those needs evolve. The correct method of initiating a change to the contract is to prepare a ________ for submission to the customer (buyer).

Changes to a contract are approved and signed by both the buyer and seller as the desired performance requirements. These changes are ________.

E. primary in legality and the prime contract becomes secondary


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A. function, performance, durability, and desirabilityB. appearance, desirability, reliability, and maintainabilityC. desirability, reliability, durability, and maintainabilityD. reliability, maintainability, function, and reparabilityE. condition, reliability, description, and function/performance


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A. is always given by a sales personB. is always written at the time of saleC. gives specific descriptions of the product's qualitiesD. is not a recorded statement of the characteristics of the productE. none of the above


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A. held responsible forB. relieved of responsibility forC. made to pay a percentage ofD. willing to repair/correctE. not paid in the amount of


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A. whether the delays were necessary for safetyB. whether the delay could be anticipated by the project managerC. who caused the delay (buyer or seller) and the nature of the interruptionD. why the delay affected the delivery of the systemE. all of the above


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A. 25B. 50

The concept of warranty is based upon one party's assurance that the product or service will meet certain standards of quality, including ________.

Warranties are given in two manners, either implied or expressed. The implied warranty differs from the expressed warranty in that the implied warranty ________.

A project manager may issue a "waiver" on items received from a vendor because the items are less than the purchase order specified. If the project manager knowingly accepts faulty material, the vendor is usually ________ any damages that the material may cause.

A contract may include a clause that imposes a penalty on the project for late delivery of the completed system. Although the contract specifies a specific monetary penalty for delays, the key(s) to the issue is/are ________.

Performance bonds are required by some contracts to ensure the project is completed and the system functions as specified. A performance bond should never be for less than ________ percent of the contract price.

C. 75D. 100E. none of the above


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A. insurance premiumsB. weekly payrollsC. incremental earned value chargesD. subcontractors, laborers, and materialsE. damages for accidents caused

PMgroup Closing147 Que # 147

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A. breechB. stop-workC. flawed contractD. contract in situE. none of the above


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A. at the same pace as other workB. sooner than contracts of a lesser dollar valueC. in the order in which the work (contract) was acceptedD. as soon as possible, but without causing the seller any additional expenseE. within a reasonable time


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A. does not need to manageB. can transfer all responsibility to the contract administrator for matters related toC. must still manage all major aspects ofD. must know only the general contents ofE. is not concerned with the management of


Payment bonds are often required by the contract and require specific actions under the stated conditions. Payment bonds are specifically designed to ensure payment of ________ by the prime contractor.

Some contracts are not completed because the contractor fails or refuses to complete the contractual conditions. This situation is called a ________ for which damages can be assigned.

The time of delivery for a contract is often specified to ensure that both parties, the buyer and seller, understand the need for the product, service, or system on or before that date. When a time is not specified in a contract, it is assumed that performance must be completed ________.

The project manager is responsible for all the activities within a project and interfaces with external functions, all of which consume his/her time. Therefore, when a contract administrator is assigned to the project, the project manager ________ the contract.

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A. the profit made on this projectB. who must be notified that the contract is completedC. the degree to which the project met the provisions of the contractD. what reports are required to terminate the contractE.


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A. fixes on a date that designates completionB. permits adjustments to the perceived termination, when necessaryC. requires a specific action on the part of the seller and the buyerD. requires the seller to demonstrate the product's capabilityE. requires the buyer to formally accept the product on a specific date


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A. top managementB. disputes resolutionC. problem processingD. steeringE. none of the above


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A. payment of current bills and incentive bonusesB. demonstrated performance and future potentialC. future pricing and costsD. work measurement and work standardsE. none of the above


Que Project contracts can be separated into two broad categoriesA. how the work is to be performed; who will perform the workB. what procedures are to be used; how the work will be performedC. when the work is to be performed; what performance standards will be usedD. what the contractor (seller) is to provide; how the work is to be performedE. who may be used to perform the work; the procedures to be used

The final step on a project is the close-out phase where all activities are to be terminated in a business-like fashion. From a contractual point of view, the prime consideration is to determine ________.

how many changes were made in the course of the project and whether all the changes are accounted for

In initiating a contract, the primary focus is on obtaining a product or service without regard for the termination. The contract for goods or services should have a termination provision (after successful completion) that ________.

The language of contracts does not preclude misunderstanding and situations that adversely affect project completion. Therefore, a contract should always have a method of removing the obstacles to progress. One method is to form a ________ committee to address matters that the project manager and the customer's representative cannot handle.

It is important to review the performance of subcontractors during post-contract evaluations. This review establishes the baseline for ________.


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A. risk and exercises more control over the projectB. cost and has a greater interest in the scheduleC. design work and influences the end productD. project management and daily direction of the work forceE. planning function and cost disbursements for the project


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A.

B.

C.

D.

E.


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A. letterB. incentive feeC. cost-plusD. fixed priceE. variable production


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A. receive proposals; evaluate proposals; select winnerB. prepare proposals; submit proposals; select bidderC. prepare proposals; receive proposals; review proposalsD. receive invitation for bid; review invitation for bid; submit bidE. prepare proposals; review proposals; submit proposals


In a cost-reimbursable contract, the owner (buyer) accepts most of the ________. Therefore, the owner has more input as to how the work is accomplished as compared to a fixed price contract.

During the proposal and bidding phase, the owner (buyer) must assess the capability of the contractor (seller) to perform the work. For example, if the owner believes the proposed team consists of some individuals who do not have the requisite qualifications and suggests that these individuals be replaced, the contractor should ________.

disregard the owner's suggestions unless it precludes the contractor from obtaining the contract

immediately make changes to follow the owner's suggestions although the contractor believes the replacements are less qualified

discuss the suggestions with the owner and clarify the qualifications of individuals prior to making a change

tell the owner that personnel working on the contract are not his/her responsibility and make no changes

tell the owner that the individuals will be replaced and ignore the situation (the owner is not responsible for personnel selection)

The contractor (seller) accepts all liability for engineering errors, poor workmanship, and consequential damages under a(n) ________ contract.

Contracting for project work follows a set sequence of activities that ensures a favorable contracting strategy. The sequence of contracting activities includes the following

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A. capacity, experience, capability, and interestB. capital, capacity, experience, and locationC. experience, interest, financial stability, and skillsD. facilities, capital, capacity, and capabilityE. industry, experience, risk, and cost


Que A request for proposal (RFP) is used toA. establish a project master plan.B. establish project baselines.C. create project budgets.D. solicit bids from contractors.E. maintain control over unauthorized work changes.


Que

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.


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A. the complete description of the work to be performedB. the list of terms and conditionsC. the signature of a corporate officerD. a statement of work that describes how the work will be accomplishedE. a price for the complete work to be performed


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Contractor screening is important to ensure that candidates are capable of performing the work and the number is neither excessive, which will make the proposal evaluation process difficult, nor too few, which will minimize the competition. The four key items to be used in contractor screening are ________.

When invitations for bid are issued to the contractors, the bids (proposals) must be submitted in a standard format because ________.

the owner (buyer) has a format that he/she routinely uses and wants to force the contractors to meet his/her requirements

the Uniform Commercial Code specifies that all proposals will comply with the law and the standard format

the government has specified that proposals must meet the requirements of contract law and this assures the incorporation of all items

the Association of Contractors has prescribed the format to which all bidders must comply to meet a legal proposal

it gives the greatest assurance that all items are covered and the proposals can be evaluated in a uniform manner

Submission of proposals to perform work is the avenue for acquiring most projects. The proposals, when submitted, must contain specific items to obligate or bind the tendering organization. The most important item is ________.

The most critical aspect of selecting a contractor and awarding a contract is the proposal evaluation (or bid review) process. The evaluators must be aware of the need to balance fact versus judgment, objective versus subjective reasoning, work tasks versus costs, time versus price, and ________.

A. certainty versus uncertaintyB. quality versus costC. quality versus priceD. risk versus opportunityE. none of the above


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A. unionB. partnershipC. consortiumD. single teamE. situation of opposition

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. appointing the proposal manager early in the processB. identifying a proposal staff early in the processC. having a technical information data baseD. having standard scopes of servicesE. all of the above

164 Que # 164

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. preliminary proposalB. planning and approvalC. kickoffD. technical assessmentE. staff assignment

165 Que # 165

PMgroup ExecutingQue

A.

Contracting is a means of obtaining required goods and/or services that are required to meet the needs of a project. The contract defines the legal relationship between the participants and what each participant is expected to do before the contract can be concluded. The contract also forms a ________ in which the participants strive to work toward the common goal of successfully completing the legal obligations in the most efficient manner.

The proposal preparation is in itself a short-term project that requires intense effort to be completed in the owner's (buyer's) format and time frame, while being responsive to the requirements of the formal invitation for bid. A company bidding for projects can ease the workload and enhance the potential for successfully "winning" contracts by ________.

Similar to a small project, the proposal preparation process is started by a ________ meeting where the technical, legal, and compensation considerations are reviewed and assignments of responsibility are made.

When entering into a contract, it is often assumed that the performance of the work will be as specified and no disputes will be raised during the performance period. On the contrary, it is better to assume that there will be disputes and include a procedure in the contract as to the means for dispute resolution because ________.

contracts, by their very nature, create situations where disputes will arise, but they can be easily resolved with good procedures

B.

C.

D.

E.

166 Que # 166


A. the period of performance and the specifications for the projectB. how the work will be performed, at what time, and for what priceC. the services to be rendered by one party and the price to be paid by the other partyD. who will perform the work and who will pay for the workE.

167 Que # 167

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. personnel, money, and materialB. cost, schedule, and qualityC. new, unique, and complex workD. substantial, complex, and extended commitmentsE. subcontractors, vendors, and suppliers

168 Que # 168


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A. Preliminary cost estimatesB. Market conditionsC. Project funding availabilityD. Application area extensionsE. Product descriptions


Que Procurement documents should have all of the following attributes EXCEPTA. Facilitating accurate and complete responsesB. Including a complete statement of workC. Describing the desired form of responseD. Including the list of potential bidders/respondentsE.

PMgroup Planning

the tracking of claims is important for the best "win" position during the subsequent litigation

disputes must be brought before the National Contract Arbitration Board to obtain equitable resolution

there will be a hostile relationship between the contract participants once the contract is signed

it is more economical to resolve disputes as soon as claims are made and before time and effort are wasted

A contract is a promise to do or not do something in exchange for some form of consideration. A negotiated contract is one where both participants agree on the basis for principal considerations

the description of services to be rendered and the description of the payment and payment schedule

In abstract theory, a contract is not essential to the performance of a project. Contracts are, however, useful when the performance involves ________ , particularly when they are interdependent.

When making the project procurement plan, the project manager should consider all of the following EXCEPT

455 Que # 455Que A request for bid differs from a request for proposal in that the A. RFP is used when source selection will be price drivenB. RFP is used when the project timeframe is limitedC. RFB is used when source selection will be price drivenD. RFP disregards price considerationsE. RFB is concerned with price exclusively


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A. Modificaitons to the terms of the contractB. Termination of teh contract if teh seller's work is unsatisfactoryC. Modification to the description of teh product or service to be providedD. Seller invoicesE. Contracted changes


Que

A. I onlyB. Ii onlyC. I and II onlyD. I and III onlyE. I, II, and III


Que Which type of contract provides the highest risk to the Owner (Buyer)?A. Cost Plus Percentage of CostB. Cost Plus Fixed FeeC. Firm Fixed PriceD. Fixed Price Plus Incentive FeeE. Cost Plus Incentive Fee


Que In negotiations, what is a fait accompli tactic?A. Accomplishing teh phase before teh otehr side is readyB. Pretending to accept the other sidee's offerC. Claiming an issue has already been decided on and cannont be changedD. Acting in good faithE. Promising that a requirement will be completed before it is due


Que An expressed warrantyA. Is provided by the sales managerB. Is a statement of the characteristics of the product

Contract administration change requests may include all of the following EXCEPT

Which of the following is true about the advertising in the solication process? I. It is sometimes required on public projects II. It is an effective method of expanding the list of potential bidders III. It can cause public pressure resulting in bid disputes

C. Covers a longer period than the implied warrantyD. Is the best guarantee to teh buyerE. Can be sold separately


Que The project's contractor payment system should includeA. An administrative reviewB. The contractor submissionC. A reveiw of work performedD. Negotiations over priceE. A viable account payable system


Que

A. I onlyB. IV onlyC. I and III onlyD. II and IV onlyE. I, III, and IV only


Que Which type of contract should be used for a well-defined projectA. Unit price contractB. Fixed price contractC. Cost reimbursable contractD. Partnership contractE. A unit price contract that disallows such contracting


Que Contract close-out documentation includes all of the following EXCEPTA. Technical documentationB. Financial documentsC. The RFP or RFB and seller's working proposalD. Results of contract-related inspectionsE.


Que Potential contract changes should beA. Postponed as long as possible to protect the budgetB. Viewed as negative, quantified, and tabulatedC. Quantified and fed back through the project planning and procurement processesD. Reviewed by senior management and the buyerE. Submitted for bids to the relevant vendor list

The contract administrator should provide ___________ at formal closure of project I. Formal notice of project c ompletion to the contractor II. Letters of commendation to all project staff III. Formal notice of acceptance to the contractor IV. Internal notice to senior management/buyer


Que The purpose of a procurement audit is to do all of the following EXCEPTA. Maintain a complete file of contract-related recordsB. Determine if all required work has been completedC. Determine if the bid documents used were effectiveD. Determine if the contract change control system was effectiveE. Identify successes and failures and their implications


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A. Management approachB. Financial capaccityC. Life cycle costD. Technical capabilitiesE. Mode of delivery


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A. Comparing proposals against independent estimatesB. Weighting systemsC. Subjective screening systemsD. Resource distribution systemE. Negotiation


Que

A. I and III onlyB. II and IV onlyC. IV and V onlyD. I, III, and IV onlyE. II, III, and V only


Que FFP is an acronym forA. Free Flow PerformanceB. Fundamentally Fixed PriceC. Firm Fixed PriceD. Free Form ProjectE. Fixed File Procurement


When the procurement item is available from only one supplier, all of the following evaluation criteria should be identified and documented to support an integrated assessment EXCEPT

All of the following methods are available to the project manager for short-listing contract proposals EXCEPT

Which terms are used to describe contested changes when the seller and project management team disagree on compensation for the change? I. Appeals II. Mediation III. Claims IV. Disputes V. Arbitration

Que

A. $104KB. $56KC. $40KD. $30KE. $24K

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. ProposalB. CounterofferC. BargainD. OfferE. Exchange

502 Que # 502


A. Termination of contractB. Partial performanceC. Breach of contractD. Contract litigationE. Contract waiver

503 Que # 503


A. Preparing contract change documenbtationB. Processing payment vouchersC. Establishing the appropriate contract typeD. Implementing a contract change control systemE. Preparing monthly contract status reports for the buyer

504 Que # 504


A. Accelerated costsB. Cost growthC. Schedule compressionD. Cost overrunE. Cost risk

505 Que # 505

PMgroup Planning

The buyer has negotiated a cost-plus-incentive fee contract with the seller. The contract has a target cost of $300k, a target fee of $40K, a share ration of 80/20, a maximum fee of $60K, and a minimum fee of $10K. If the seller has actual costs of $380K, how much fee will the buyer pay?

Which of the following terms is an expression by one party of its assent to certain terms in the contract provided that the other party expresses its assent to the identical terms?

Which term describes the failure by either the buyer or seller to perform part or all of the duties of a contract?

Which of the following practices is NOT an important element of effective contraxt administration?

When actual costs exceed estimated costs without any change in the scope of work, the project is experiencing

Que

A. Firm-fixed-priceB. Fixed-price-incentiveC. Cost-sharingD. Cost-plus-fixed feeE. Cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost

506 Que # 506


A. Actual costs incured based on the contractor's best effortsB. The amount of time required to complete the contractC. Delivery of the goods and services stipulated in teh contractD. The number of resources usedE. Actual costs incurred minus profit if the cost ceiling was exceeded

507 Que # 507


A. The preaward phaseB. The award phaseC. Contract administrationD. Contract formationE. Contract resolution

508 Que # 508


A. VariableB. DirectC. IndirectD. FixedE. Semivariable

509 Que # 509

PMgroup PlanningQue Subcontracting may be the best option whenA. The subcontractor possesses special technical or engineering skillsB. The performing organization possesses limited capacity in an areaC.

D. A and CE. A, B, and C

510 Que # 510

PMgroup Executing

Contract type selection is dependent on the degree of risk or uncertainty facing the project manager. From the perspective of the buyer, the preferred contract type in a low-risk situation is

Generally speaking, compensation to a contractor in a cost contract is based on

The process of monitoring contract performance, making payments, and awarding contract modifications occurs during

Which term describes those costs that are traceable to or caused by a specific project work effort?

The subcontractor can augment the contractor's labor force at a lower cost than an in-house cpability can be maintained

Que

A. RecommendationB. Rejection of offerC. Separate offerD. SuggestionE. Counteroffer

511 Que # 511

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. Fixed-price with economic price adjustmentB. Fied-price incentive (firm target)C. Firm-fixed-priceD. Cost-plus-award feeE. Cost-plus-incentive fee

512 Que # 512

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. Cost-sharingB. Cost-plus-award feeC. Cost-plus-fixed feeD. Cost-plus-incentive feeE. Cost-plus-a-percentage-of-cost

513 Que # 513

PMgroup PlanningQue The purpose of the bidders' conference is toA.

B. Confirm which bidders are going to be considered in the procurementC. Ensure that all qualified sellers are on teh qualified sellers listD. Obtain detailed information on the prospective sellers' past performanceE. Ensure that all bidders attending teh conference receive amendments

514 Que # 514


A. Design specificationB. Functional specificationC. Performance specificati0onsD. Commercial standardE. Qualified product

515 Que # 515

PMgroup Executing

During neotiation, the seller takes exception to the buyer's terms and conditions and proposes different terms and conditions. Which negotiation technique is the seller using?

Which of the following contract types places the greatest risk on the seller to control costs?

Which of the following contract types does NOT encourage the seller to control costs and, as a result, places the greatest risk on teh buyer?

Ensure that prospective sellers have a clear, common understanding of the buyer's requirements

A specification that describes the buyers requirements with special dimensions, tolerances, or features, such as chemical or electronic requirements and that is accompanied by engineering drawings, is called a

Que

A. Cause of actionB. Alternative dispute resolutionC. Problem processingD. Steering resolutionE. Mediation litigation

516 Que # 516


A. Caveat emptorB. Apparent authorityC. Contract privityD. Terms and conditionsE. Force majeure

517 Que # 517

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. Invitation for bidB. Request for proposalC. Request for informationD. Request for quotationE. Invitation for negotiation

518 Que # 518


A. Unanticipated work loadsB. Serious illnssC. Unusually severe weatherD. Delays caused by the negligence or fault of contractors E. A and D

519 Que # 519

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. The seller's interest in cost control diminishesB. Payment is based solely on teh delivery of goods and servicesC. The seller is reimbursed for all allowable and allocable costsD. The buyer's concern about the seller's performance increasesE. The buyer bears the greater financial risk

520 Que # 520

PMgroup Planning

The language of contracts sometimes causes misunderstandings and creates situations that adversely affect peojct completion. Therefore, a relatively fast and informal method for removing the obstacles to progress should always be available. One such method is to submit the issue in question to an impartial third party for resolution. This process is known as

The legal contractual relationship that exists between the buyer and the seller is called

Which term is NOT a common name for a procurement document that solicits an offer from prospective sellers?

Typically, a force majeure clause excuses a seller from failure to perform because of

Which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to cost-reimbursement contracts?

Que

A. PositiveB. NegativeC. NominalD. ReverseE. Risk-prone

521 Que # 521

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. Insurance premiums B. Weekly payrollsC. Incremental earned value chargesD. Subcontractors, labrers, and suppliers of materialE. Damages for accidents caused

522 Que # 522

PMgroup ExecutingQue When a seller breaches a contract, the buyer cannot receiveA. Compensatory damagesB. Punitive damagesC. Specific performanceD. Liquidated damagesE. All of the above

523 Que # 523


A. Each project manager has control over the contracting process for his or her project

B. The project manager controls contract awardC.

D. Contracting is tailored to a single projectE. All of the above

524 Que # 524

PMgroup PlanningQue Which of the following terms represents a contract type categoryA. Fixed-priceB. Cost-reimbursementC. unit-priceD. A and BE. A, B, and C

525 Que # 525

PMgroup Executing

Buyers use a variety of methods to provide incentives to a seller to complete work early or within certain contractually specified time frames. One such incentive is the use of liquidated damages. From teh seller's perspective, liquidated damages are what form of incentive?

Payment bonds are often required by the contract and require specific actions under the stated conditions. Payment bonds are specifically designed to ensure that the prime contractor provides payment of

The contracting function in an organiztion is considered to be decentralized when

The contracting person appointed to the project is available and under the project manager's direct control

Que Which item is NOT a basic element of a contract?A. OfferB. AcceptanceC. ConsiderationD. Pricing structureE. Legality of purpose

526 Que # 526

PMgroup PlanningQue Three techniques used for procurement planning areA. Make-or-buy analysis, expert judgement, and contract type selectionB. Fixed-price, cost-reimbursement, and unit-price contractsC. Cost and schedule estimates, invoice processing, and cash flow projectionsD. Scope statement, change management, and marketing analysisE. Contract type selection, negotiation, and cash flow projections

527 Que # 527


A. $1KB. $30KC. $35KD. $39KE. $51k

528 Que # 528


A. Prepare unique terms and conditionsB. Tailor an existing contractC. Use standard clauses whenever possibleD. Avoid using contractual documentsE. None of the above

529 Que # 529


A. Accelerated costsB. Cost growthC. Cost escalationD. Cost overrunE. Cost risk

530 Que # 530

PMgroup Planning

A buyer has negotiated a fixed-price incentive contract with the seller. The contract has a target cost of $200K, a target profit of $30K, and a target price of $230K. The buyer has also negotiated a ceiling price of $270K and a share ratio of 70/30. If the seller completes the contract with actual costs of $170K, how much profit will teh buyer pay the seller?

Contracts may be written in any form that is understandable and enforceable, so project personnel often attempt to be "creative" in developing the contract's terms and conditions. If all the following options are available, the best course of action to meet the requirements of the project is to

When costs increase because of changes in the scope of work, the project is experiencing

Que Issues to be addressed during procurement planning areA. Importance of price versus quality of productsB. Lead time required to fordering productsC.

D. A and BE. A, B, and C

531 Que # 531

PMgroup PlanningQue During solicitation planning, the project team is responsible forA. Determining the make-or-buy decisionB. Specifying schedule parameters in the form of delivery datesC. Developing the procurement documentsD. Developing the specifications and drawings to accompany the solicitationE. Preparing "should cost" estimates if required

532 Que # 532


A. Obtain feedback on how well teh negotiation was planned and conductedB. Target areas for improvement in future negitiationsC. Establish how well teh negotiations achieved the objectives D.

E. All of the above533 Que # 533

PMgroup ExecutingQue The principal function of a warranty is toA. Provide assurance of teh level of quality to be provided B. Provide a way to assert claims for late paymentC.

D. Ensure that goods purchased fit the purposes for which they are to be usedE. Ensure that goods are merchantable

534 Que # 534


A. VariableB. DirectC. IndirectD. FixedE. Semivariable

535 Que # 535

PMgroup ExecutingQue The procurement auditA. Identifies successes and failures that can be applied to other projectsB. Verifies that all work was completed correctly so that the buyer is satisfied

Poetntial delays in receiving products and development of appropriate follow-up procedures

After the contract is signed by both parties, a post negotiation critique should be conducted to

Analyze the strategy and tactics of both parties to determine how to improve negotiations in the future

Provide a way to allow additional time following acceptance to correct deficiencies without additional costs

Which term describes those costs that are assiociated with two or more projects but are not traceable to each of them individually?

C. Includes updating al records to reflect final resultsD. Provides a way for final acceptance and closure of the contractE. All of the above

536 Que # 536

PMgroup ExecutingQue A purchase order is a good example of which form of contracting?A. BilateralB. TrilateralC. UnilateralD. SeverableE. Promissory

537 Que # 537


A. Quantum meruitB. Assignment of claimsC. Material breachD. WaiverE. Warranties

538 Que # 538

PMgroup PlanningQue Requirements for inspection and acceptance are defined in theA. ContractB. Procurement management planC. Overall project planD. Quality control planE. Proposal

539 Que # 539

540 Que # 540PMgroup PlanningQue

A. Design specificationB. Functional specificationC. Commercial standardD. Performance specificationE. Qualified product

607 Que # 607PMgroup ExecutingQue

A. Ask for management reserve

What doctrine causes a party to relinquish rights under a contract because he or she knowlingly fails to execute those rights?

A specification that expresses the buyer's requirements in terms of a range of acceptance characteristics or minimum acceptable standards, such as minimum and maximum capacity, function, velocity, or operation of equipment, is called a

A new project manager has been assigned to an existing project. While reviewing the project plan, it is discovered that a subcontractor has a contract clause stating a 5% payroll increase per year is included. This may result in a cost overrun. No one found this before. What does the new project manager do first?

B. Analyze cost impactC. Call the customer immediatelyD. Refuse to honor the contractE.

ANSWERS

100 E101 C102 D103 C104 C105 A106 B107 B108 A109 C110 E111 B112 D113 D114 B115 A116 C117 C118 A119 D120 E121 C122 C123 A124 B125 D126 E127 E128 C129 D130 C131 A132 B133 C134 D135 A136 B137 B138 D139 D140 C141 D142 D

143 B144 C145 D146 D147 A148 E149 C150 C151 C152 B153 B154 D155 A156 C157 D158 D159 A160 D160 E161 C162 D163 A164 E165 C166 A167 C168 D453 D454 D455 C456 D457 C458 A459 C460 B461 D462 C463 B464 C465 C466 A467 E468 D469 D470 C501 E502 D503 C504 C505 D506 A507 A508 C

509 B510 E511 E512 C513 E514 A515 AB516 517 C518 C519 C520 BB521 522 D523 B524 E525 E526 D527 A528 D529 C530 B531 E532 C533 E534 A535 C536 E537 C538 D539 A540 D607 B

PROJECT RISK MANAGEMENT

PMgroup PlanningQue # 117Que Budgeted contingencies can be determined by

A. Past experienceB. Applying standard allowancesC.

D. All of the aboveE. None of the above

PMgroup PlanningQue # 100Que

A. Significantly reduce project risksB. Eliminate project risksC. Provide a rational basis for better decision makingD. Identify risks, their impact(s), and any appropriate responsesE. None of the above


A. ConceptB. DevelopmentC. ExecutionD. ConclusionE. All of the above


A. Should be deflected to the contracting officerB. Should be handled via contingency allowancesC. Should be ignored since they cannot be identifiedD. Should be ignored, since they are not covered in the Project Risk AssessmentE. C. and D.


A. Liability lossB. Direct property lossC. Profit lossD. Personnel-related lossE. B and C


Determining the sum total of the most probable variances of the various risk item properly identified

By using Project Risk management techniques project managers can develop strategies that do all but which of the following

Which phase of the project life cycle typically has the highest uncertainty and risk associated with it?

Risks classified as unknown unknowns (i.e., those which cannot be identified or evaluated)

Risks can be divided into two basic types, business risk and pure (or insurable risk). Of the following, which one(s) fall(s) under business risk?

The type of contract (payment mechanism) chosen for a project is of the degree of risk associated with completing that project. For a firm fixed price contract, payment for risks

A. Is accomplished by paying the actual costs to the contractorB. Is accomplished by paying the contractor for his cost a plus a fixed fee (profit)C. Is an undisclosed contingency in the contractor's bidD.

E. B and CPMgroup PlanningQue # 105Que The principles of risk management should be followed only for

A. Complex projectsB. Simple projectsC. Large projectsD. A and CE. All of the above

PMgroup ControllingQue # 106Que Deflection involves the transfer of risk by such means as

A. Contracting out to another partyB. Developing schedule alternativesC. Developing discrete organizational functions under the project manager to handle risk eventsD. Disaster planning and responsesE. None of the above

PMgroup ControllingQue # 107Que Risk mitigation involves all but which of the following

A. Developing system standards (policies, procedures, responsibility standards)B. Obtaining insurance against lossC. Identification of project risksD. Performing contingent planningE. Developing planning alternatives

PMgroup PlanningQue # 108Que Total Project Risk.

A. Should not be calculated for small projectB.

C.

D. A and BE. A and C

PMgroup PlanningQue # 109Que In Project Risk Management, Risk Response may include actions to

A. Reduce the probability of risk eventsB. Change the scope, budget, schedule or quality specifications of the projectC. Reduce the consequences or severity of impacts of a potential risk eventD. A and CE. All of the above

PMgroup ControllingQue # 110Que

A. May be completed in reduced overall time than other projects

Is accomplished by paying for the budgeted costs of dealing with as predicted in the Project Risk Assessment

Is the probability of each project event times the sum of the consequences of individual project risk events which could occur during the project

Is the cumulative sum of the probability of each individual project risk event times the consequences of occurrence of that risk event

"Fast tracked" project awarded and begun before all planning and risk assessment information is complete and available

B. Are in a higher risk category than other projectsC. Are not compatible with project risk assessmentD. A and B. E. All of the above

PMgroup PlanningQue # 111Que Risk event probability is determined as

A. The total number of possible events divided into the expectation or frequency of the risk eventB. The number of times the risk event may occurC. The fraction of the total project tasks which may be affected by the risk eventD. The total number of possible events divided into the consequences of the risk eventE. A and D.


A. Translated the impacts into economic terms for analysisB. Concentrates on schedule impactsC. May not consider safety and environmental impactsD. A and BE. A and C

PMgroup ControllingQue # 113Que Sensitivity Analysis can be used in risk analysis to

A. Substitute for uncertainty analysis in risk quantificationB. Estimate the level of risk aversion adopted by managementC. Estimate the effect of change of one project variable on the overall projectD. A and B E. All of the above


A.

B. Stiff competition from insurance companiesC. Confusion of business risks with insurable risksD. A and CE. All of the above

PMgroup PlanningQue # 115Que Using the figure below, what is the probability of success for project B?

A. 0.3B. 0.2C. 0.35D. 0.15E. 0.12


A. Work breakdown structureB. Milestone review and schedule technique

Final risk quantification and modeling normally considers the impacts of all risks combined and

Many companies self-insure against some risks. Problems which can arise from self insurance include

Failure to reserve funds to handle worst-case scenarios (low probability events) resulting in severe financial damage to the company

In performing an impact analysis the most effective tool to ensure all risks are identified on large projects is the

C. Cost/schedule Control systemD. Planning programming budget systemE. Program and evaluation review technique

PMgroup PlanningQue # 118Que During which phase of the project life cycle is the amount at stake lowest?

A. ConceptB. DevelopmentC. ExecutionD. ConclusionE. C and D

PMgroup PlanningQue # 119Que Contingent planning should include all but which of the following?

A.

B. The development of schedule alternatives and work-aroundsC. The management of a contingency budgetD. An assessment of project shut-down liabilitiesE. A and C

PMgroup ControllingQue # 120Que Critical variance is best described as

A. variation beyond which the project will likely failB. the variance resulting from sensitivity analysisC. the maximum tolerable variance in any single element of an estimate's bottom line total costD. the contingency required for a given level of confidenceE. c and d

PMgroup PlanningQue # 121Que The Delphi method involves brainstorming as a method of risk identification.

A. TrueB. FalseC. D. E.


A. 21B. 12C. 143D. 5.5E. impossible to determine without optimistic and pessimistic estimates

PMgroup ControllingQue # 124Que Mitigating risk could involve

A. identifying risks, obtaining insurance and developing alternativesB. contracting and quality assuranceC. developing standards, buying insurance, and planning for contingencies and alternativesD. rescoping the project and reassessing requirementsE. c and d

The development of a contingency allowance determined by combining (layering) various estimate segments to form larger estimate segments

The single point standard deviations are 3, 5, 10 and 3 for the critical path. What is the standard deviation for the entire path?


A. the importance of concern for endangered speciesB. an unknown - unknownC. a known - unknownD. an occurrence that should be handled via contingency allowancesE. c and d


A. authoritarianB. risk acceptingC. risk averseD. in need of a solutionE. intolerant of basic project management principles


A. 0 and 12B. 3 and 9C. -3 and 9D. 1 and 7E. 0 and 6


A. producibilityB. reliabilityC. affordabilityD. acceptabilityE. operability


A. researching, reviewing, and acting onB. identifying, analyzing, and responding toC. reviewing, monitoring, and managingD. identifying, reviewing, and avoidingE. analyzing, changing, and suppressing


A. likely eventsB. complex activitiesC. complex schedules

The 200 million dollar nuclear power plant you have just built cannot be activated because a pair of rare spotted owls have just built their nest in your steam tower. You explain this to the CEO of the utility as

A manager who says "I'll pay for it, but I want it as soon as possible" is considered to be

If the mean is 3, the mode is 4, the median is 2, the PERT is 6 and one standard deviation is 3, a 95% confidence level is between

Final risk quantification and modeling normally considers the impacts of all risks except possibly those due to

Risk management is defined as the art and science of ________ risk factors throughout the life cycle of a project.

Project risk is defined as the cumulative effect of the chances of ________ that will adversely affect project objectives.

D. uncertain occurrencesE. new work

PMgroup PlanningQue # 131Que The three factors that characterize project risk are ________.

A. severity of impact, duration of impact, and cost of impactB. identification, type of risk category, and probability of impactC. risk event, risk probability, and the amount at stakeD. occurrence, frequency, and costE. cost, schedule, and quality


A. managerB. detrimentC. scheduleD. budgetE. length


A. improving; client'sB. increasing; project'sC. decreasing; sponsor'sD. decreasing; project'sE. decreasing; corporation's


A. addressB. classifyC. assignD. resolveE. eliminate


A. letter; formalB. fixed price; cost-plusC. cost-plus; fixed priceD. no-fault; no-obligationE. variable; lump-sum

PMgroup PlanningQue # 136

Risk event is the precise description of what might happen to the ________ of the project.

In the risk management context, mitigation and deflection are both means of ________ the risk to the ________ objectives.

Contingency planning is a means to ________ risks to the project through a formal process and provide the resources to meet the risk events.

Suppose a project manager is negotiating with a subcontractor to provide the installation and integration of a computer system with data links. The data links must access three different computer protocols and provide a common data communication. This integration of the data protocols has never been accomplished before. Since both are attempting to avoid any risk, the project manager would like to award a ________ contract, while the subcontractor would like to sign only a ________ contract.

Que

A.

B. ignore the situation because no one has said the antenna can't be built to the specificationC. assess the probability of failing to meet the specificationD.

E.


A. price, sales volume, and profit marginB. price, promised delivery, and inspection scheduleC. personnel policies, personnel training program, and priceD. price, experience, and delivery meansE. experience, personnel skills, and material control procedures


A. the project risk has a full range of risk valuesB. the project risk is normally distributedC. the project risk has one high risk assessment that could cause problemsD.

E. there is no identifiable problemPMgroup PlanningQue # 139Que

A. management reserveB. contingency reserveC. slush fund reserveD. sinking fundE. corporate profit


Suppose a project manager of a research and development contract is charged with building a new radar antenna for an aircraft. The weight is limited to 12 pounds in the specification. This represents a major weight reduction over current systems, which weigh in excess of 26 pounds. Before starting the project, the project manager should ________.

attempt to cancel the cost-plus contract because the antenna just can't be built to the specification

start work immediately to get most of the hardware fabricated so it can be weighed to determine the actual weight of the completed antenna.

delay and perform a risk assessment until the project is better defined through building experience

Suppose the project manager is evaluating the bids of two vendors. Each vendor offers to sell similar electronic components, which are integrated at the vendors site. To avoid the most risk, the project manager views items such as the vendor's ________.

Suppose the project manager must submit a summary risk assessment to the director of project managers. The assessment is to be made for each component of a new electronics system. The project manager submits the following Component A - Low Risk Component B - Medium Risk Component C - Moderate Risk Component D - High Risk Component E - Median Risk The problem with the project manager's risk assessment is that ________.

the project risk assessment does not have a uniform evaluation criteria for the middle risk category

Suppose the project budget is set at $2,300,000 for the total project. Some work that must be accomplished has not been identified in the initial planning. The most appropriate source of funds to cover this work is the ________.

Que

A. Course A because it has a higher profit potentialB. Course B because it has a higher probability of successC.

D. Course A because it has an expected value of $1,905 more than Course BE. Either course because there is no difference in expected value


A. abandoning the projectB. buying insurance for personal bodily injuryC. establishing a contingency fundD. establishing a management reserveE. not acknowledging the potential for injury


A. magnitude of the impact on the projectB. project manager's perception of riskC. technical nature of the projectD. use of more or fewer subcontractorsE. project manager's ability to influence the risk


A. schedule delays, cost overruns, and changes in technologyB. regulatory, project completion, and taxationC. natural disasters, regulatory, and designD. currency rates, design, and social impactE. inflation rates, performance, and schedule delays


A. harassment of the project managerB. bureaucratic interest in the projectC. public safety of the productD. monitoring of the project scheduleE. identification of the project manager

PMgroup ControllingQue # 145

Suppose the project manager is planning courses of action to develop the strategy for the project. Courses "A" and "B" are both feasible options and can be implemented. Senior management has directed that risk be considered, but there is a need to maximize the profit on this project. A decision tree is used as a valid means for selecting the most profitable option. Course A has a potential profit of $27,500 with a probability of 0.75 success. Course B has a potential profit of $20,800 with a probability of 0.90 success. The course of action that should be selected is ________.

Course A because it has an expected value of $36,667 when the probability is factored into the decision

Suppose the project has many hazards that could easily injure one or more persons and there is no method of avoiding the potential for damages. The project manager should consider ________ as a means of deflecting the risk.

The primary characteristic that distinguishes external and internal risk areas is the ________.

There are two general categories of risk areas, internal and external. Examples of external risk areas are ________.

In the area of legal risks, there are two reasons for licensing of projects. One reason is for revenue generation by the community, while the other is for ________.

Que

A. cause a law suit to be initiated for damagesB. cause the project to be halted pending a legal determination of property rightsC. cause damages to be awarded to the holder of a patentD. diminish the reputation of the project's parent corporationE. all of the above


A. within or outside the scope ofB. a contingency item forC. significant enough to adversely affectD. realistic and treatable during implementation ofE. all of the above


A. $10,500 B. $1,050 C. $105 D. $15,000 E. cannot be determined from the available data


A. contractB. specificationC. statement of workD. work breakdown structureE. linear programming diagram


A. engineeringB. marketingC. experiencedD. planningE. project


A. play down the risk because the team will find a means of overcoming any failure

Intellectual property rights assigned to an individual by means of a patent or copyright have value to the owner. Any infringement on those rights during the implementation of a project can ________.

During the conduct of impact analysis for any risk, the individual performs screening. Screening is for the purpose of determining whether the risk is ________ the project.

Suppose a project of $1.5 million has an adverse event that has the probability of 0.07 of occurrence and a potential loss of $15,000. This represents an expected negative value of ________.

The assigned values of risk for a project is best accomplished through a structured methodology that ensures all project elements are evaluated. The project tool that is best suited for the structured analysis of the project risk is the ________.

During the assessment of the risk to attempt to quantify the probability of failure and the amount of potential loss, the project manager uses the ________ personnel to make the estimates.

Suppose during the risk analysis process that one identified risk event cannot be avoided, mitigated, or insured. This risk event is a critical item that, if it occurs, could cause the project to fail. The best option for the project manager is to ________.

B.

C.

D. continue to search for an insurance company that will assume the riskE.


A. contingency fundsB. management reserveC. overhead chargesD. profit marginE. G&A charges


A. logic associated with cost estimatesB. logic associated with schedule estimatesC. certainty associated with cost estimatesD. uncertainty associated with schedule estimatesE. certainty associated with schedule estimates


A. nothing-the model is completeB. that the risk probabilities need to be summed to determine the total project riskC. that the risk events must be labeled as internal or external risksD. that the risk events do not address the technology used by the CALTRON ProjectE. that the impact of the risk on the project's objectives has not been assessed and assigned


A. schedule; changeB. budget; changeC. responsibilities; managingD. resources; obtaining additional resourcesE. obligations; conducting tradeoffs


place special emphasis on the risk event to intensely manage that item and all interfacing items

have the risk assessment team continue to analyze the risk event until it reduces the expected negative value

ignore the risk assessment because any assigned value is a point estimate that is never precisely the expected state of nature

Suppose during project implementation on a fixed price contract, the budget for one work package has cost more than estimated because of an error that required reworking the task. The cost of materials and labor to rework the task required $3,117 more than the budget. The money for this rework is covered by the ________.

The PERT (Program Evaluation and Review Technique) is a method of scheduling projects. In the context of risk, PERT is better than CPM (Critical Path Method) because it deals with the ________.

Suppose the project manager establishes a risk model that will be used on the CALTRON Project. The risk model identifies the risk events and assigns probabilities of occurrence. However, what is missing from this risk model is ________.

A high-risk project usually receives the highest priority by the top management. To effectively manage the project, the project manager should establish with the top management a charter that calls for his/her ________ and the basis for ________ without prior consultation.

Que

A. interrupt or intervene in the project's managementB. avoid or deny the project's potential riskC. give low priority to resource allocationD. stay informed as to the project's progressE. give support to the project when additional resources are requested


A. conservatism in design and fabricationB. conservatism in schedulingC. a focus on the avoidance of liability, rather than the important project issuesD. an unclear assignment of work because the contractor accepts no performance criteriaE. loss of productivity through excessive checking (inspection)


A. scope, cost, schedule, and qualityB. design, safety, fabrication, and functionalC. mechanical, electrical, software, and physicalD. operational, functional, maintainability, and reparabilityE. design, workmanship, equipment, and performance (process)


A. conformance to requirements and safety of useB. regulatory agency requirements and environmental pollutionC. lawful use of the product and safety of useD. merchantability and fitness for purposeE. operability and durability


A. trade secret and technologyB. process secret and advanced technologyC. patent and copyrightD. trade name and trade secretE. design and fabrication


High-risk projects are always of concern to senior management and will receive the most scrutiny. The major concern of the project manager of a high-risk project is the tendency for senior management to often ________.

Risk may be transferred from the owner (buyer) to the contractor (seller) through a contractual vehicle. This risk transfer is usually accomplished by the owner awarding a fixed price contract where the contractor agrees to perform for a single price. For the owner this simple solution has hidden costs that include all but ________.

Guarantees in a project agreement give some degree of assurance to the owner (buyer) that the end product will meet the specified requirements, but they also represent potential future costs to the contractor (seller), or cost risk, if the system fails. The four express (as compared to implied) guarantee categories are ________.

A project may have an implied warranty that is not specifically detailed in the contract. This implied warranty represents potential future costs for failure to meet the requirements and is a risk to the project. Implied warranties are usually those associated with ________ , which are spelled out in the Uniform Commercial Code.

Performance of a contract can bring liabilities that have implications of risk but are perhaps not as visible as the stated and implied warranty and guarantee. Two of these liabilities are ________ infringements.

Que

A. an automobile accidentB. an accident on commercial premisesC. slander or libelD. assault and batteryE. all of the above


A. desirable because it will costs less than the probable lossesB. undesirable because it costs more than the probable lossesC. indeterminable because of insufficient dataD. the same as the cost of the probable loss and there is no advantageE. none of the above


A. no risk; abuses the equipment beyond fair usageB. no risk; assumes title to the equipment during the use periodC. risk; insures for damage or lossD. risk; denies liability during the use periodE. risk; is insured for the cost of lease, rental, or hire


A.

B.

C.

D.

E. it cannot be determined who is responsible for payment and risk without further informationPMgroup PlanningQue # 164

Project risk through liability comes in two forms breach of contract and a tort. Breach of contract is essentially a failure to perform the service or provide the required product, while a tort is a personal wrong such as ________.

Risk of loss may be transferred to an insurance underwriter by means of an insurance policy. Such policies state the monetary value of property damage that will be given for sustained losses. To make an informed decision about buying insurance, the project manager needs to determine the ratio of insurance cost and the expected value of the loss. For example, if the cost of insurance is $10,000, the value of the property is $200,000, and the probability of loss is 0.05 (or five percent), the insurance is ________.

Lease, rental, and hire of equipment for short periods of time to perform specified project work is a common practice. The equipment poses ________ unless the contractor (lessor) ________.

The owner (buyer) of a project usually has the right to direct changes to the scope of work while the project work is being accomplished. Often, the owner will orally request a change and insist that the change be initiated immediately without the normal documentation (e.g., a change order). When the change is initiated without documentation, ________.

the owner assumes all responsibility for paying for the change although s/he may at a later date not want the change

the owner assumes responsibility for one-half of the cost of the change until the documentation is completed and then assumes all at that time

the project manager assumes all risk for the change, if initiated, until the documentation is received

the project manager assumes only the risk of misinterpreting the owner's oral change directive, while the owner assumes responsibility for paying for the requested change

Que

A. conduct further studies and analyses until a more attractive alternative is foundB. disregard the exposure to risk because nothing can be doneC.

D.

E.


A. numerous change orders pending approvalB. instability of project progress informationC. conflict between the project manager and customerD. loss of focus on the work by line supervisorsE. all of the above


A. could eliminate all risk to the project and customer at no cost to either partyB. could redefine the risk exposure to one of opportunities for both the project and customerC. could result in reduced scope for the project and an improved product for the customerD.

E. all of the abovePMgroup PlanningQue # 167Que

A.

B. more stringent; the system may meet the requirements but fail the testingC. standard; the system will always pass the testing and not fully stress the functionsD. manufacturer's; the system will always pass the testing and not fully stress the functionsE. none of the above


The probability of failure for a project element is often called exposure to risk, or risk exposure. This exposure may be mitigated by taking measures to avoid a particular approach or use of specific technologies. When the risk exposure cannot be reduced through selection of another alternative, the project manager should ________.

not perform the activities with risk exposure and save the money that would have beenspent on them

hire an independent consultant to manage the risk exposure through extensive investigations and new technologies

establish a contingency plan to overcome any adverse activity, which may include a contingency allowance

Project risk should be identified and assessed prior to project initiation during the planning phase. Once the implementation starts, there is less time to objectively assess risk and select the more attractive alternatives. During the implementation there may be indications of risk (i.e., failure to meet the project's objectives) such as ________.

The project manager may realize that some terms of the contract and project objectives will not be met. It would be costly and time consuming to meet some specifications. The project has a high degree of exposure to risk at this point. Negotiation with the customer to reduce the risk exposure is a means that ________.

may cost less to pay penalties and meet a modified specification to meet the minimum customer requirements

Demonstration and performance tests are used to prove the functional and operating characteristics of a deliverable to the customer. The tests pose a risk when the ________ criteria are selected to demonstrate the capabilities because ________.

low end; the system will be stressed to meet the minimum requirements and meet all the customer's requirements

Uncertainty is often used in conjunction with the term risk, implying that uncertainty is risk. Uncertainty is an unknown situation that may result from a lack of information to sufficiently quantify the probability of occurrence of an event and to determine the most likely outcome. Therefore, any uncertainty that has a potential for a major impact on a project should be ________.

A. assigned a risk exposure index of >=.8 pending further resolution of the risk exposureB. ignored until additional information can be obtained to resolve the actual risk exposureC. studied to determine alternatives that may have a high-risk index but are fully understoodD. resolved before project implementation but must be resolved before starting that area of workE.


A. II and IIIB. I, II, and III onlyC. I, II, and IV onlyD. I, III, and IV onlyE. II, III, and IV only

PMgroup ControllingQue # 434Que Risk mitigation could involve

A. Buying insuranceB. Policies and procedures for a response systemC. Accepting a lower profit if some activities overrunD. Licensing and intellectual property rightsE. Eliminating risk through beta testing

PMgroup PlanningQue # 435Que Risk Identification should be done

A. Just before a meeting with the clientB. Ona regular basis throughout the projectC. As soon as time and cost estimates are readyD. Early in the execution phaseE. When preparing the project plan

PMgroup PlanningQue # 436Que What is "risk event probability"?

A. An estimate of teh probebility that an uncontrollable event will occurB. The value used in mitigation and deflectionC. An estimate of teh risk value at lossD. The probability of the risk not occurring at this timeE. An estimate of teh probability that a given risk will occur

PMgroup PlanningQue # 437Que The major processes of project risk management are

A. Plan, identify, document, and assessB. Identify, mitigate, and planC. Respond, evaluate, and documentD. Identify, quantify, develop, and controlE. Identify, respond, assess, adn document

PMgroup ControllingQue # 438Que Outputs from response development could include all of the following EXCEPT

A. Corrective actionsB. Risk management plan

resolved before project implementation or the project must be delayed pending a better understanding of the situation

The categories of risk response development include I. Interpretation II. Acceptance III. Mitigation IV. Avoidance

C. Insurance policiesD. Management reservesE. Contingency plans

PMgroup PlanningQue # 439Que The tools and techniques for risk quantification are

A. Contracting, contingency planning, alternative strategies, and insuranceB. Work arounds and additional response developmentC. Checklists, damage control reports, standards allowances, and inspectionD. Checklists, historical results, and interviewingE. Expected monetary value, staistical sums, scheudle simulations, and decision trees

PMgroup PlanningQue # 440Que Response development is sometimes called risk

A. IdentificationB. MitigationC. ControlD. QuantificationE. Action analysis

PMgroup PlanningQue # 441Que 1996 PMBOK GUIDE Stakeholder risk tolerances

A.

B. Provide a screen or filter to help determine staffing levelsC. Provide a screen or filter to help determine which project risks to quantifyD.

E. Are the same for all stakeholdesrPMgroup PlanningQue # 442Que The outputs from risk quantification include

A. Opportunities to pursue, threats to respond toB. Threats to ignore, opportunities to acceptC. Threats to respond to, threats to acceptD. Checklists, corrective actions, and decision treesE. Direction, resources, and costs

PMgroup ControllingQue # 443Que Acceptance means to

A. Agree with the project managerB. Ignore the consequencesC. Eliminate a specific thgreatD. Accept the consequencesE. Purchase the insurance

PMgroup PlanningQue # 444Que One of the outputs of risk identification is

A. Potential risk eventsB. Expected monetary value of the risk eventsC. Alternate strategiesD. Corrective ationsE. The plan for mitigation

Provide a mathematical technique that can be used to create a false impression of precision and reliability

Is important because different organizations and different individuals have thesame tolerances for risk


A. more riskB. The same riskC. Less riskD. Half the riskE. Twice the risk


A. Historical results of similar projectsB. The project's change control systemC. The project's mission statement D. The project's budgetE. Historical data from the project manager's experience

PMgroup PlanningQue # 447Que All of the following are inputs to the risk identification process EXCEPT

A. WBSB. 1996 PMBOK GUIDE staffing planC. Work-around planD. Procurement planE. Cost and duration estimates

PMgroup PlanningQue # 448Que A risk event description should include all of the following EXCEPT

A. Event probabilityB. Event frequencyC. Expected timingD. Anticipated mitigation strategyE. Alternative outcomes

PMgroup PlanningQue # 449Que Expected monetary value is the mathematical product of the

A. Risk event probability and the risk event valueB. Risk event probability and betaC. Risk event value and sigmaD. Risk event probability and the standard deviationE. Risk event value and beta

PMgroup PlanningQue # 450Que Risk response development will utilize which of the following tools

A. ContractingB. Risk Management PlanC. Work-aroundsD. Contingency planE. Corrective action

PMgroup PlanningQue # 451Que A risk management plan should include all of the following EXCEPT

Products or projects that use unproven technologies will, all other things being equal, involve _________ than products or projects using proven technologies

A thorough review of ___________ will help identify potential opportunities and threats to the project

A. Who is responsible for managing various areas of risksB. A WBSC. How reserves will be allocatedD. RRisk identificaiton and risk quantification processesE. How contingency plans will be implemented

PMgroup PlanningQue # 452Que The risk management plan is a major component of the

A. Project planB. Communication planC. Procurement planD. Contingency planE. Quality management plan

PMgroup ControllingQue # 501Que A project manager has the option of proposing one of the three systems to a client

A. $9.9KB. $44KC. $45KD. $48KE. $60K

PMgroup PlanningQue # 502Que The first requirement for effective risk management is

A. Clewar visibility of the information needed for decision making B. Ownership of the risks that are identifiedC. Appointment of the project manager early in the process to manage the identified risksD.

E. A project sponsor who requires a risk management planPMgroup PlanningQue # 503Que

A. 10 minB. 15 minC. 50 minD. 60 minE. 65 min

PMgroup PlanningQue # 504Que Projects are particularly susceptible to risk because

A. Murphy's law states that "if something can go wrong, it will"B. Each project is unique in some measureC. Matrix management has not yet gained wide acceptance in organizationsD. Project management tools are generally unavailable at teh project team levelE. There are never enough resources to do the job

PMgroup PlanningQue # 505Que Which of the following tools is the most appropriate for measuring schedule risk?

A. CPMB. Decision trees

Project team members who are trained in risk and understand its causes to help construct and implment risk mitigation strategies

A person estimates that a commute home will most likely take 1 hour. On further questioning, she estimates that the trip could take as little as 45 minutes, best case, or 1 hour 45 minutes worst case. What is the standard deviation based on the estimates?

C. WBSD. PERTE. PDM

PMgroup PlanningQue # 506Que The term RISK PORTFOLIO refers to

A. Risk quantification strategiesB. Identified scheudle and cost risksC. Cumulative EMV of teh most critical risksD. Risk mitigation strategiesE. Risk data assembled for the management of the project

PMgroup PlanningQue # 507Que The Delphi method is a particularly useful risk quantification technique to

A. Present a sesqunce of decision choices graphically to decision makersB. Define the probability of occurrence of specific variablesC. Determine probability assessments relating to future eventsD. Help take into account the attitude toward risk of teh decision makerE. Formalize management's attitude toward risk


A. PERTB. Decision-tree analysisC. Present value analysisD. NMonte Carlo techniquesE. Random number generation (normal, triangular, beta, uniform, and so on)


A. 10%B. 13%C. 40%D. 50%E. 150%


A. Planned proceduresB.

C. Critical path analysisD. Documentation of procedures and resultsE. Reassessment to detect changes in risk during a system's development

PMgroup PlanningQue # 511Que Range estimating identifies the

A. Mathematical probability that a cost overrun will occurB. Amount of financial exposureC. Risks and opportunties ranked in order of bottom-line importance

Most statistical simulations of budgets, schedule, and reosurce allocations use which of the following approaches?

If, in the path convergence example below, the odds of completing activities 1,2 and 3 are 50%, and 50% respectively, what are the changes of starting activiy 4 on day 6?

All of the following criteria are considered essential to the assessment of technical risk except

Explicit attention to technical risk, not just to schedule or cost risk with consideration of technicalo risk implied

D. Contingency required for a given level of confidenceE. All of the above

PMgroup ControllingQue # 512Que Each of the following statements about risk avoidance is true except that it

A. Focuses on eliminating the elements that are creating the riskB.

C. Accepts the consequences of the risk event should it occurD. Includes adopting an alternative, lower-risk technology pathE.


A. 6%B. 15%C. 24%D. 56%E. None of the above

PMgroup PlanningQue # 514Que The WBS is a key input to the risk identification process because it

A.

B. Identifies all the work that must be done and, therefore, includes all the risks on teh projectC. Helps to organize all the work that must be done on teh project D. Provides a basis for cost estimatingE. Identifies work packages, which enables specific resonsibility to be assigned

PMgroup PlanningQue # 515Que To be effective, the risk management process

A.

B.

C.

D.

E. Should focus on those risks that senior management finds most criticalPMgroup PlanningQue # 516Que The simplest form of risk analysis is

A. Probability analysisB. Sensitivity analysisC. Decision-tree analysisD. Delphi methodE. Utility theory


Includes making the decision not to bid on a project in which the risk exposure is believed to be too high

Includes leaving the risk with the customer when the customer is in the best position to mitigate the risk

If the probability of event 1 is 80%, and event 2 is 70%, and they are independent events, how likely is it that both events will occur

Identifies all the work that must be done and, therefore, helps to identify potential sources of risk

Should be applied primarily during the concept and closeout phases and to some extent during the implementation and planning phases

Should be applied throughout the project and at all levels of system decomposition and project organization

Should include assembly of certain stakeholders to identify risks and develop mitigation strategies

Must be separated from the project management process by assigning a risk manager to the project

Que

A. ($50K)B. $300K)C. $500K)D. $900KE. $1.2M

PMgroup ControllingQue # 518Que Categories of responses to threats are

A. Technical, marketing, financial, and humanB. Identification, quantification, response development, and response controlC. Avoidance, mitigation and acceptanceD. Avoidnace, retention, control, and deflectionE. Avoidance, mitigation, and retention


A. Input data are inaccurate and incompleteB.

C.

D.

E. Statistical techniques are considered too theoretical when applied to riskPMgroup PlanningQue # 520Que

A. Decision-tree analysisB. Sensitivity anlysisC. Utility theoryD. Monte Carlo methodE. Decision theory

PMgroup PlanningQue # 521Que Risk exposure measures the

A. Variability of the estimateB. Product of the probability and impact of the riskC. Range of schedule and cost outcomesD. Reduced monetary value of the risk eventE. B and D

Que # 522PMgroup PlanningQue

A. Considers the attitude of teh decision maker toward riskB.

C. Forces consideration of teh probability of each outcomeD. Helps to identify and postulate risk scenarios for teh project

If a business venture has a 60% chance to earn $2M and a 20% chance to lose $1.5M, what is the expected monetary value of the venture?

All of the following are disadvantages of using statistical approaches to quantify risk except

Accurate processing of poor-quality data is expensive, time-consuming, and difficult to accomplish

Managers sometimes rely on computer-produced results that are detailed and impressive but inaccurate, which makes decision making difficult

Risk specialists may understand the statistical copmlexities but fail in communicating what they know

Of the following risk quantification approaches, which one considers the attitude of the decision maker toward risk

The primary advantage of using decision-tree analysis in project risk management is that it

Impresses upon management that there is a range of possible outcomes and shows the relative importance of each variable examined

E. Shows how risks can occur in combinationPMgroup PlanningQue # 523Que Contingency planning involves

A. Defining the steps to be taken if an identified risk event should occurB. Establishing a management reserve to cover unplanned expendituresC. Preparing a stand-alone document that is separate from the overall project planD. Determining needed adjustments to make during the implementation phase of a projectE. Determining what risks to avoid on a project


A. Standard allowancesB. Percentages based on past experienceC. The sum total of teh most likely probability and impact of the various risk itemsD. A set amount allocated to each item proportionatelyE. An allowance of 10% for each phase in the project life cycle

PMgroup ControllingQue # 525Que Risk mitigation involves

A. Using performance and payment bondsB. Eliminating a specific threat by eliminating the causeC. Avoiding the schedule risk inherent in the projectD. Assigning the risk to a subcontractorE.

PMgroup PlanningQue # 526Que On a typical project, when are risks highest and impacts lowest?

A. When the resource histogram peaksB. During the concept phaseC. At or near completion of the projectD. During the implementation phaseE. When the project manager is replaced

PMgroup ControllingQue # 527Que All of the following are examples of external risks except

A. Regulatory considerationsB. Natural hazardsC. InflationD. Contract typeE. Taxation


A. Concept and planningB. Concept and implementationC. Planning and implementationD. Implementation and closeoutE. Concept and closeout

PMgroup Planning

In a proactive approach to project risk management, the amount of a contingency reserve should be based on

Reducing the expected monetary value of a risk event by reducing the probability of occurance

The highest risk impact generally occurs during which of the following project life-cycle phases?

Que # 529Que The major processes in project risk management are

A. Risk identification,m risk quantification, risk response development, and risk response controlB. Risk analysis, risk assessment, and risk managementC. Risk mitigation, risk assessment, and risk quantificationD.

E. Deflection, contingency planning, risk identification, and impact analysisPMgroup PlanningQue # 530Que

A. Scope riskB. Schedule riskC. Cost riskD. Quality riskE. Procurement risk


A. 45 weeksB. 70 weeksC. 90 weeksD. 140 weeksE. None of the above


A.

B.

C. The greater the number of risks, the better it is to share them among all contractual partiesD.

E.

PMgroup PlanningQue # 533Que All the following are purposes of project risk management except

A. Identifyting factors that are likely to affect the project scope, quality, time, and costB. Developing response strategies for all identified risksC. Providing a baseline for project factors that cannot be controlledD. Mitigating impacts by influencing project factors that can be controlledE. Quantifying the expected impact of each factor

PMgroup PlanningQue # 534Que The most important aspects of a risk from a management point of view are its

A. Causes

Risk identification, impact analysis, response planning, response system, and data applications

Of the four types of risk inherent in project management, which one will have the most lasting effect from the customer's perspective if not managed well?

Your lead engineer estimates that a work package will most likely require 50 weeks to complete. It could be completed in 40 weeks if all goes well, but it could take 180 weeks in the worst case. What is the PERT estimate for the expected duration of the work package?

Which of the following statements best describes the principle of fairness in risk allocation regarding contracts?

The party who has the most knowledge of certain risks and is in the best position to minimize those risks should bear most, if not all, of those risks

The party who can gain whatever competitive advantage exists as a result of certain risks not occurring should bear most if not all of those risks

The seller should bear more risk than the buyer, because the seller is the party to the contract who is being reimbursed for the work performed

The buyer should bear more risk than the seller, because the buyer has more knowledge of how risk relates to its operations

B. EffectsC. CostsD. Exposure valueE. Probability of occurrence

Que # 535PMgroup PlanningQue What are risk triggers?

A. Indirect manifestations of actual risk eventsB. A symptom of a riskC. An output of the risk identification processD. An event that indicates that a risk event may occurE. All of the above

Que # 536PMgroup ControllingQue The objectives of a risk audit are to

A. Confirm that risk management has been practices throughout the project life cycleB. Confirm that the project is well managed and that the risks are being controlledC. Verify the effectiveness of project reporting and project managementD. Help identify the deterioration of teh project's profit potential in its early stagesE. All of the above


A. Project filesB. Commercial databasesC. Project team knowledgeD. Previous project resultsE. Lessons learned databases

PMgroup PlanningQue # 538Que A business risk

A. Has only a loss associated with itB. Has only a gain associated with itC. Can be mitigated through insuranceD. Has the potential for both gain and lossE. Cannot be identified with any accuracy in the concept phase of teh project life cycle

PMgroup PlanningQue # 539Que The ultimate responsibility for identifying and managing project risks rests with the

A. Project sponsorB. Project managerC. Contractor's guarantor, if a performance bond is requiredD. Project teamE. Project manager and project sponsor

PMgroup PlanningQue # 540Que The primary objective of risk quantification is to

A. Improve the accuracy of risk assessmentB. Take the guesswork out of the risk response management processC. Compare the cost of risk response development to the risk's expected monetary valueD. Determine which risk events warrant responsesE. Reduce the ambiguities in describing risks when using qualitative criteria

Of the following types of historical information that serve as input to risk identification, which one is the least reliable?

117 D100 B101 A102 B103 C104 C105 E106 A107 C108 C109 E110 D111 A112 E113 C114 D115 C116 A118 A119 A120 C121 B123 B124 A125 E126 B127 A128 D129 B130 D131 C132 B133 D134 A135 B136 C137 E138 D139 B140 D141 B142 E143 B144 C145 E146 A147 B148 D149 C

150 D151 B152 D153 E154 C155 A156 D157 E158 D159 C160 E161 E162 C163 C164 E165 E166 D167 B168 D433 E434 A435 B436 E437 D438 A439 E440 B441 C442 A443 D444 A445 A446 A447 C448 D449 A450 D451 B452 A501 B502 A503 A504 B505 D506 E507 C508 D509 B510 C511 E512 C513 D514 A

515 B516 B517 D518 C519 E520 C521 B522 C523 A524 C525 E526 B527 D528 D529 A530 D531 B532 A533 B534 A535 E536 E537 C538 D539 A540 D

PROJECT COMMUNICATION MANAGEMENT

100 Que # 100Que

A. 73% to 77%B. 23% to 27%C. -25% to 75%D. 85%E. 50%


Que

A. ForcingB. CompromisingC. AccommodationD. AvoidanceE. Coercion


Que "Decoder" is not synonymous with "receiver" becauseA. the decoder interprets based on his or her frame of referenceB. the decoder is not a position on the teamC.

D. the decoder uses skills and credibility to challenge the encoderE. a and c


Que

A. +50, +75B. +50, +25C. +75, -25D. +25, -10E. +10, -5


Que

A. acceptsB. mixesC. rejectsD. interprets [PMBOK p. H-2]

Due to the cost overruns, Diane has sent a status report to the CEO of her company. Assuming he reads it, she can expect him to remember what percent of the report?

Which of the following methods to resolve conflict is most likely to create a "wounded warrior"?

the decoder evaluates, uses assumptions and self-interest while the receiver sees or hears

People generally remember __ % of the spoken word in 1-2 days and __ % in 2 months.

In a simple, interactive, one-on-one communication process, there are the sender and receiver of information. The sender is the one who transmits the signals, while the receiver ________ the signals.

E. intercepts


Que

A. written, spoken, and signalizedB. visual, audio, and tactileC. seeing, talking, and listeningD. seeing, listening, and touchingE. none of the above


Que

A. a wall between desks and a difference in language skillsB. a third party injecting comments and a fourth party attempting to change the subjectC. an attitude of hostility by the receiver or sender and a ringing telephone nearbyD. a confrontation over schedules and a lack of a scheduling toolE.


Que

A. confrontationB. compromiseC. smoothingD. forcingE. withdrawal


Que

A.

B. marked by an eagerness to fight or be disagreeable over any given situationC.

D.

E. one who exercises sound judgment in most areas of the project

PMgroup Planning

The communication process must have a medium to convey information between two or more parties. The three common media are ________.

Communications between two individuals can be affected by either the attitude of either party or an external source disrupting the flow of information. An example of a barrier between the parties involved in verbal communications and an example of a disruptive influence could be ________.

an excessive spatial distance between the individuals and one of the individuals has a hearing loss

Of the five basic approaches to conflict resolution that characterize an individual's human resource management style, the one that produces a "win-lose" outcome whereby the project manager uses his/her power to overrule the participant in the conflict is ________.

Management styles affect the confidence level given a project manager by subordinates, peers, and superiors. When a project manager is judicial in his/her management style, s/he is ________ .

honest, sincere, able to motivate and to press for the best and fairest solution, and one who generally goes "by the books"

encouraging subordinates to realize their full potential, cultivates team spirit, and lets subordinates know that good work will be rewarded

one who tends to break apart the unity of the group by agitating and causing disorder on a project

109 Que # 109Que

A. twisting and shruggingB. gestures and facial expressionsC. toe tapping and foot shufflingD. dancing and waltzingE. pointing and smiling


Que

A. budgetB. scheduleC. configuration management planD. meeting agendaE. all of the above


Que

A. obtain written concurrence at the end of each sessionB. be calm, poised, and patientC. use surprise as requiredD. not be afraid to say noE. all of the above


Que

A. give-backB. active listeningC. double talkD. double speakE. double entendre


Que

A. memorandum announcing a meeting of the teamB. letter of commendation to a team memberC. performance appraisal for a team memberD. newsletter article reviewing the project's progress

Communications between individuals while talking may also involve nonverbal communications, or body language. Body language is most commonly associated with ________.

Communication, as the key to successfully implementing a project, is reflected in many forms and styles. The communication medium/media used in the project can be a ________.

In negotiations, there are always ongoing communications in an attempt to reach a position that is mutually agreeable to all parties. One means (facilitator) of communication during the negotiation phase is to ________.

Communication includes understanding the other person and reaching a consensus as to what was said. The use of ________ is a means of giving feedback to the speaker by rephrasing the speaker's words to ensure there is a level of understanding.

Communications between the project manager and a team member take many forms, but it would not include a ________.

E. counseling session for a team member


Que

A. that portion that is intentionally meant to be misunderstoodB. that portion that imposes behavior and the relationship between the partiesC. inferences as to future messages to be sentD. reinforcement of prior messagesE. random information that does not contribute to the message content


Que

A. semantic ordinates, or absolute wordsB. differences in frames of referenceC. lack of credibility or trustD. an overly technical approach to communicatingE. perceived status difference

PMgroup Controlling116 Que # 116

Que

A. does not believe the information to be importantB. receives an adverse reaction when "bad news" is givenC. fails to understand the information in the context givenD. summarizes to save reporting timeE. takes too long in obtaining the correct information


Que

A. mobility opportunityB. statusC. organizational climateD. autonomyE. security


In face-to-face communications, individuals send two messages when they speak. The two message aspects are content and command. The first contains that part of the message about which two or more persons can agree, and the second contains ________.

Barriers to communication can be invisible to the casual observer but can often be greater obstacles than physical barriers. However, barriers do not include ________.

Team members may "filter" information to the project manager for several reasons. Filtering, a selective reduction in the quantity and quality of information, is promoted through all of the following except when the team member ________.

The factors of the structural environment can be manipulated (positively and negatively) to improve or degrade the effective communications within a project team. Of the following factors, the one that can be manipulated the most to change the level of communications is ________.

Que

A. delays, impediments, and barriersB. filtering, distortion, and blockageC. haste, waste, and redundancyD. pushing, pulling, and putting asideE. none of the above


Que

A. words, illustrations, and mathematicsB. people, transmission medium, and information processorC. verbal, nonverbal, and physicalD. sender, receiver, and messageE. common language, physical means, and common understanding


Que

A. cultureB. behaviorC. languageD. traditional way of doing thingsE. loud talking


Que

A. project charterB. project budgetC. project management planD. project engineer's notes E. project schedule


Que

A. obtaining feedback and evaluating the end result of the workB. restating the directive and asking for a commitmentC. restating the directive and using active listeningD. using active listening and obtaining feedback

Project managers must strive to improve communications within the project team as well as with external elements. The project manager can improve communications by removing ________ of the information.

The most basic model for the communication process consists of three basic elements ________. When these three elements are present, communication may result.

In the communication process, "noise" is the word used to describe factors and forces inhibiting the exchange of information between two or more parties. Noise includes all of the following but ________.

In the project environment, there are four general categories of communication formal written, informal written, formal verbal, and informal verbal. Of the following, the one that is not an example of formal written communication is a ________.

To ensure a team member understands the work to be accomplished, the project manager may be more assured of the effectiveness of his/her communication by ________.

E. emphasizing the importance of the work and restating the directive


Que

A. objectives may not be realisticB.

C.

D. silence on a matter does not ensure communicationE.


Que

A. impressing everyone with the project manager's powerB. providing an opportunity for individuals to discuss personal grievancesC. presenting project information and making a decision on project directionD. giving the team a chance to talk about its experienceE. forcing a decision out of the team because any outcome is going to be unfavorable


Que

A. customer, project team, and project sponsor/bossB. customer, client, and project teamC. client, financial department, and functional departmentsD. project team, project matrix workers, and subcontractorsE. vendors, subcontractors, and prime contractors


Que

A. subordinates, project team members, and the project sponsorB. the telephone, facsimile, and data transmissionC. periodic project reports, periodic visits to the customer, and telephonic exchangesD. one-time reports, weekly reports, and monthly reportsE. cost data, schedule data, and performance data


Communication to a group in a meeting multiplies the potential for misunderstanding unless the structure is maintained. One major communication consideration in obtaining an understanding and commitment is that ________.

starting the meeting before all participants arrive ensures some people do not have all the information

asking for additional comments on a subject only increases the amount of information to be processed

addressing only one item at a time does not provide all related information to be processed

Meeting management facilitates the communication of information between individuals. A legitimate reason for assembling the project team in a meeting includes ________.

The project manager has three primary interests who need information and are involved in the project's success. These are the ________.

The project manager must maintain an effective communication link with the customer to ensure the customer's satisfaction with the progress of the project. The project manager maintains this link through ________.

Que

A. the project manager himself/herselfB. team members knowledgeable of the areasC. the customerD. the functional departmentsE. none of the above


Que

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.


Que

A.

B.

C.

D. define the project manager's communication authority and responsibilitiesE. protect staff members from extraneous requests and directions


Que

A. can take the shortest route from the sender to the person needing the informationB.

The project manager schedules a quarterly technical review with the customer to assure him/her that the project is progressing as planned. The project manager plans a series of briefings on the cost, schedule, and technical aspects of the project that should be presented by ________.

Suppose the project manager is appointed to manage a new project that has just been given approval to start the planning requirements. The project manager is new to the organization and has inherited a project team previously selected by top management. The best method of initiating the communication process with the team and to establish the expectations of the project team is to ________.

send a formal memorandum to each team member to outline the objectives, therequirements of the team, and the time frame for work

personally talk to each team member to determine what he/she would like to do on the project and how that can be accommodated

call a briefing session to set objectives of the management and direct how these objectives will be met

call a kickoff meeting to present the objectives and open the floor for discussion on how the objectives will be achieved

prepare a work assignment list and send a copy to each individual tasked with accomplishing a planning task

In the project environment, it is helpful to publish a formal document showing the chain of communications. This document's greatest contribution to the project is to ________.

limit the authority of staff members on matters that are the prerogative of the project manager

define who can talk to whom within the project so effective communications can be conducted

prevent senior management from "legally" asking questions of the lower-level staff members

The project environment is always in need of effective communication for individuals to exchange and understand information. When everyone is permitted to talk to anyone, essential communication ________.

is lost in many informal discussions and most often is never delivered to the intended receiver

C.

D.

E.


Que

A. the customer is always right in defining the contractB.

C.

D.

E. none of the above


Que

A. impress upon the receiver the importance of the project managerB. convey words that have a motivating impact on the receiverC. convey information or an actionD. convey an image of positive progress for the projectE. convey a desire or want for the project


Que

A. the grammar is correctB. the format is correct for the messageC. the message is clearly conveyedD. the delivery of the message is made within 24 hoursE. the completeness of the sentences


Que

A. the formal letter to the customerB. the meeting or conferenceC. the technical specification updateD. the contract modificationE. the one-on-one counseling

takes as much as three times longer than when formal communication channels are followed

changes the context in which complex issues are delivered as compared to formal written communications

becomes nonessential communication because of the lack of emphasis given to the verbal message

The customer-project manager relations are perhaps the most important aspect to the successful implementation of the project work because ________.

the customer doesn't understand project management and must be continually tutored in the practices

the words in the contract often do not convey the precise meaning of the requirements

the project manager's performance evaluation is based on the relationship with the customer

The project manager must communicate with several different people in the course of managing the project. His/her sole purpose for sending a message is to ________.

Project managers must write correspondence to many individual parties who are project stakeholders. The most important aspect of the project manager's correspondence is to ensure ________.

The most difficult and costly type of communication performed by the project manager is ________.


Que

A. organized exchange of data and informationB. selection of a course of action from options and alternativesC. future options and alternativesD. options and alternatives reviewedE. results achieved reviewed


Que

A. give the customer a range of solutions that might be acceptable to his/her companyB. give the customer an interim solution that must be approved by his/her bossC.

D.

E.


Que

A. ready and willing to give an immediate responseB.

C. ready to deflect the issues through persuasion and argumentD. ready to put up a good argument before giving inE.


Que

A. correspondenceB. photographsC. handwritten memos to fileD. professional magazinesE. telephone logs

Meetings may be held for a number of different purposes and may involve different parties. The types of meetings may be classified as information sharing, problem solving, decision making, planning, and evaluation. The definition of a problem solving meeting might be ________.

Suppose the project manager is called to an information meeting with the customer and a problem is raised. This problem has major implications for the project manager's company, but the customer wants to pursue a solution at the meeting. The project manager should ________.

collect as much information on the problem without committing his/her company to a solution

tell the customer that he/she will not address any problems because this is only an information exchange meeting

tell the customer that the problem is not sufficiently defined to determine the appropriate action

Customers often attempt to resolve issues in meetings with the project manager. The project manager should anticipate the raising of issues and be ________.

sensitive to all the nuances of the issues but have a well-considered answer before responding to the customer

sensitive to the customer's issues but refuse to respond unless each is codified and formally endorsed to him/her

Project communications are vital to the success of the project meeting's objectives. Documentation is a form of this communication and is often not recognized as a part of the project. Of the following, the one that is not a form of project communications is ________.


Que

A.

B.

C. causing relevant documents to be prepared and issued following any meetingsD.

E. all of the above


Que

A. the project team and the functional departmentsB. the vendors, subcontractors, and other suppliers of goodsC. the interrelationships within the project teamD. the lines of communication and interfacesE. the project manager's role and responsibility to promote information exchange


Que

A.

B. the interface between the project team and suppliers of services or productsC.

D. at meetings and conferences when the agenda limits the subjects to be discussedE. all of the above


Que

A. record data for post-project evaluationsB. state a position that is a "minority opinion"

The project manager's time is limited, and the opportunity to discuss the project elements with the team is also limited if the project is to be properly managed. Therefore, the project manager must balance his/her time for communications by ________.

being reasonably available to key team members without having an unrestricted open-door policy

showing his/her interest and concern for work progress through random discussions with groups at their work sites

maintaining a written record of all pertinent project information and description for use by the team

Effective communications between elements of a large project improves the probability of success for the project through better information exchanges. In addition to the communication skills required for effective communication, communication planning focuses primarily on ________.

Communicating requirements to project participants is the key to establishing the basis for building a product to "conform to the requirements." Poor communication is often the cause of imprecise specifications that a vendor, subcontractor, or implementation team will be working on. The most critical point at which the communications have the chance for being misinterpreted is ________.

during the planning phase when little is fully understood about the project's requirements

during close-out when all parties are attempting to terminate operations and move all assets

The documentation of a project is a form of communication even when the document is completed and placed in a file for future reference. This latent form of communication serves a purpose by recording the facts for future use. Latent communication is often used to ________.

C. record actions of project participants to establish a trail of actionsD. collect bits of information that will subsequently be aggregated for decision makingE. all of the above


Que

A. attitude changes toward the projectB. loss of interest in the project implementationC. assigning new people to the projectD. having key people unavailable for consultationE. all of the above


Que The major processes of project communications management areA.

B.

C.

D.

E. Communications planning, change reporting, project records, and acceptance


Que The three major types of communication areA. Written, oral, and graphicB. Written, oral, and visualC. Verbal, written, and electronicD. Verbal, formal documentation, and informal documentationE. Verbal, project records, and computerized


Que

A. Communication is the prime focus of an expediter type of project managerB. Team members are often physically separated in a matrix or project environmentC.

D.

Closing out a project's contract is both an intellectual (cognitive) issue and an emotional (affective) issue dealing with details and attitude, respectively. The communication needed to effectively complete the contract must deal with both issues. Therefore, the project manager's job is to communicate with the customer to confirm the deliverables, meet the specification or negotiate a settlement, and obtain certifications while managing the customer's emotional side in ________.

Communications requirements, information distribution, performance reporting, and administrative procedures

Communications planning, information distribution, performance reporting, andadministrative closure

Communications planning, information distribution, progress reporting, andresponse planning

Communications planning, information distribution, schedule reportring, andstakeholder analysis

Communication barriers are a more frequent source of conflict in matrix and projectized environments than functional organizations for all the following reasons EXCEPT

There are increased numbers of levels of authority in a matrix or projectized environment

Team members are often separated in teh timing of their contributions to a matrix or project environment

E.


Que A communication plan details all of the following EXCEPTA.

B.

C. Methods for accessing information between scheduled communcationsD.

E. Production schedules showing when each type of communication will be produced


Que The three principal reasons for maintaining good document control areA.

B.

C.

D. Security, change management, andd procedureal documentationE. Security, maintaining propoer approvals, and optimizing paperwork flow


Que Ways to improve listening ability include all of the following EXCEPTA. Focusing on concepts and ideasB. Listening to feedbackC. providing feedbackD. Performing other activiteis while the speaker is talkingE. Allowing the speaker to complete the entire message


Que

A. Cultural differencesB. Differences in motivationC. Unclear expectationsD. Shared assumptionsE. Environment circumstances


Que

A. FeedbackB. Communication blockers

Team members with differing skills and backgrounds can be asked to contribute to proejct results

To whom information will flow, and what methods will be used to distribute various typesof information

What information will be gathered, how it will be gathered, and how often it will begathered

All memos, correspondence, reports, and documents related to the project from all personnel

Timely communcation, collection of performance appraisal data, and assuringproper disposal of sensitive documents

Timely communication, maintaining proper approvals, and communication cost control

Effective communication, ability to reconstruct why decisions were made, and historicalvalue

Communication barriers between the sender and receiver can include all of the following EXCEPT

Statements such as "It's never been done before" or "It will cost a fortune" are examples of

C. Conflict generatorsD. Forcing E. Facilitation


Que The communicaiton "expediter" of a project team isA. The MIS subject matter expertB. A project managerC. A database managerD. A project secretaryE. The project client


Que All of the following aid in achieving consensus EXCEPTA. Avoiding conflictB. Maintaining a focus on the problem, not each otherC. Avoiding voting, trading, or averagingD. Avoiding self-oriented behaviorE. Seeking facts


Que Inputs to communication planning includeA.

B. Stakeholder requirements, project logistics, and project scheduleC. Stakeholder analysis, communication barriers, and organization structureD.

E. Stakeholder survey, RAM, WBS, and adminstrative procedures


Que All of the following are communication tools EXCEPTA. MemosB. VideosC. Body LanguageD. Inputting data into a spreadsheetE. Verbal circulation of a rumor


Que

A. Information distribution systemsB. Communications technologyC. Internal communications systemsD. Information retrieval systemsE. Project records

Communications requirements, communication technology, constraints, and assumptions

Communication requirements, project organization chart, and communication technology

Manual filing systems, electronic text databases, and project management software are examples of


Que

A. 10%B. 30%C. 50%D. 70%E. 90%


Que

A. Formalizing and controlling communication between team membersB. Promoting harmony and trust between team membersC. Ensuring that feedback occurs in both directionsD. Recognizing the importance of the interpersonal cmomunication networkE. Understanding that communication involves both sending and receiving messages


Que A "tight matrix" is an organizational optionA. In which all team members are brought together in one locationB. Between a weak matrix and a strong matrixC.

D. In which project partidcipants act as a coordinated teamE. In which a functional level of management exists


Que Communication is the PRIME responsibilty of a ProjectA. ExpediterB. CoordinatorC. Manager in a weak matrix environmentD. Manager in a strong matrix environmentE. Manager in a projectized environment


Que Communications technology factors include all of the following EXCEPTA. Expected staffing levelsB. Project lengthC. Executive requirementsD. Availability of technologyE. Immediacy of the need for information


Que

Most project managers spend about ___________ of their work time engaged in some form of communications

All of the following are important if the project manager is to effectively manage communications within the project team EXCEPT

In which functional managers operate in a dual reporting structure reporting to boththeir own departments and to the project manager

The best overall effective method of resolving conflict in a project environment is

A. SmoothingB. WithdrawalC. Problem solvingD. CompromiseE. Confrontation


Que

A. Trend analysisB. Decision tree analysisC. Earned value analysisD. Performance reviewsE. Information distribution tools and techniques


Que The sender is responsible forA. Scheduling communication exchangeB. Ensuring the receiver agrees with the messageC. Confirming message is understoodD. Presenting the message in the most favorable mannerE. Interpreting the message correctly


Que

A. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationshipsB.

C.

D. The availability of technology in place at the project locationE. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationship


Que

A. As part of Administrative ClosureB. Following the plan as outlined in Quality ManagementC. As requested by uppoer managementD. As part of contract close-outE. As the last step in project management


Que The four key stakeholders on every project areA. Senior managers, customer, sponsor, and functional managersB. Project manager, project team, senior managers, and customer

Tools and techniques for performance reporting include all of the following EXCEPT

Information required to determine project communications requirements typically includes all of the following EXCEPT

Logistics of how many individuals will be involved with the project and at which locations

External information needs, disciplines, departments, and specialties involved in the project

Formal acceptance by the client or sponsor of the product of the proejct should be prepared and distributed ______________.

C. Project manager, customer, performing organizatoin and sponsorD. Project manager, functional managers, senior managers, and customerE. Suppliers, contractors, customers, and sponsors


Que

A. Be extremely clear when communicating with team membersB.

C.

D.

E. All of the above


Que

A. Stakeholders' responsibilities and relationships with the project organizationB. Disciplines, departments, and specialities involved in the projectC. The number of individuals involved in the project and their locationsD. External communication requirementsE. Project audit requirements


Que The first step in preparing a presentation is toA. Define the audienceB. Determine the objectiveC. Decide on the general form of the presentationD. Plan a presentation strategyE. Assess the environment in which the presentation will be delivered


Que The three project situations that require the most negotiation skills areA.

B.

C. Developing the project team, WBS, and scope statementD.

E.

PMgroup Planning

Miscommunication, disparities in information, and unequal access to information are significant trust inhibitors on teams that are not collocated. A project manager in this situation should

Develop a communication plan to ensure that team members are kept informed of team issues

Keep communication flowing to conteract the isolation of individuals on distributed teams

Facilitate clear communication by encouraging the technique of having one person repeat what was heard to ensure understanding

To determine project communication requirements, typically all the following information is needed except

working with functional managers to ensure that resources are available to support the project, providing performance appraisals to project team members, and developing the WBS

Developing the WBS, determining the master schedule, and managing project changes

Using subcontractors, developing the project scope statement, and managing changes after the project is underway

Securing uppoer management support for the project, working with functional managers, and building the project team

506 Que # 506Que The purpose of the communication management plan is to provideA. Detailed information on the methods that will be used to gather and store informatoinB.

C.

D. A and BE. A, B, and C


Que

A. Has supervisory experienceB. Is a qualified negotiatorC. Is profit orientedD. Is educated in a technical fieldE. Works well with others


Que All the following are objectives of the kickoff meeting exceptA. Establishing working relationships and lines of communicationB. Setting team goals and objectivesC. Reviewing project plansD. Establishing individual and group responsibilities and accountabilitiesE. Discussing specific legal issues regarding the contract


Que

A. Remain patient when the other person digresses on arcane topicsB. Emphasize the practicality of his or her ideasC. Present ideas in a logical, step-by-step mannerD. Allow for small talk, focusing on procedural detailsE. Reference his or her recomendations to TQM practices


Que

A. Performance reviewsB. Variance analysisC. Trend analysisD. Earned value analysisE. Information distribution tools and techniques


Que The 50-50 rule of progress reporting is used to

A description of the information to be distributed, including its format, content, and level of detail and the conventions and definitions to be used

A procedure to update the communication management plan as the project progresses

Of the following qualifications, which one is the most important for a project manager?

When communicating with a process-oriented person, a project manager should

Of the five tools and techniques for performance reporting, which one integrates cost and schedule information as a key element of its approach?

A. Calculate the exact BCWPB. Provide a good statistical approximation of BCWPC. Determine schedule varianceD. Determine schedule variance in monetary termsE. Control very large projects


Que

A. BCQP/ACWPB. BCWS/BCWPC. ACWS/BCWSD. BCWP/BCWSE. BCWP - BCWS


Que The performance measurement baseline is theA. BCWSB. BCWPC. ACWPD. ACWSE. ETC

PMgroup ExecutingQue All the following are barriers to communication exceptA. Liquiated damages provisions in fixed-price contractsB. Difficulties with technical languageC. Detrimental attitudes associated with low compensationD. Distracting environmental factorsE. Lack of clear communication channels

514 Que # 514

PMgroup ClosingQue During the project closeout phase, most conflict arises from

515 Que # 515A. Schedule problemsB. Cost overrunsC. Technical problemsD. Working interfacesE. Personality conflicts


A. SponsorB. CustomerC. Performing organizationD. Senior managementE. None of the above

516 Que # 516

The SPI, which is used to forecast project completion date, is calculated by using which formula?

In general, disagreements among stakeholders should be resolved in favor of the


A. Bring everyone together frequently for meetingsB. Conduct informal audioconference meetings regularlyC. Hold a project kickoff meetingD.


PMgroup PlanningQue

A. Ensure that all communication is clear and understoodB. Speak or write as he/she would like to be spoken or written toC. Have the project team prepare a project communication planD. Ensure that team members have the information needed to do their workE. Ensure that team membes have the tools available to facilitate communication

518 Que # 518

PMgroup PlanningQue The tool or technique used for communication planning isA. Stakeholder analysisB. Communication skillsC. Information retrieval systemsD. Information distribution systemsE. None of the above

519 Que # 519


A. Group oppressionB. GroupspeakC. GroupthinkD. GroupthoughtE. Groupgrope

520 Que # 520


A. Mimic the content of the messageB. Probe, then evaluate the contentC. Evaluate the cotent, then adviseD. Rephrase the content and reflect the feelingE. None of the above

521 Que # 521

When the project team is not collocated, establishing a way to help team members communicate quickly and frequently is essential. One practical approach is to

Set up an electronic yearbook that lists each team member's accomplishments and background

A project manager who wants to create a receptive atmosphere for communicating should

Which of the following terms describes the strong pressures within a group to conform to group norms at the expense of critical and innovative thinking?

Empathetic listening entails understanding another person's frame of reference. To exhibit empathetic listening skills, a project manager should

PMgroup ExecutingQue The presence of communication barriers is most likely to lead toA. Reduced productivityB. Increased hostilityC. Low moraleD. Increased conflictE. Increased stress

522 Que # 522

PMgroup ClosingQue

523 Que # 523A. Project archives, formal acceptance, and lessons learnedB. Change requests, project records, and lessons learnedC. Lessons learned, performance reports, and change requestsD. Communication management plans, change requests, and project archivesE. None of the above

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. Be as brief as possible and emphasize the practicality of his or her ideasB. Provide options, including the pros and consC. Stress the relationships between his/her proposals and the people concernedD. Remain patient if the other person goes off on tangentsE. Speak as quickly as possible to ensure that all the information is conveyed

524 Que # 524

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. Having a war roomB. Using a tight matrixC. Being a good communication blockerD. Being a communication expeditorE. Holding effective meetings

525 Que # 525

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. Stakeholder responsibility relationshipsB. External information needsC. Availability of technologyD. The project's organizational structureE. Expected project staffing

526 Que # 526

PMgroup Controlling

As a project communication management process, administrative closeout consists of verifying and documenting project results to formalize acceptance of the project product by the customer. The output generated from administrative closeout activities consists of

When communicating with an action-oriented person, a project manager should

The project manager can enhance project communication and team building by doing all the following except

Of the following factors, which one has the greatest effect on the project's communication requirements?

Que Paraphrasing can be achieved by restatementA. In different termsB. From general to specific termsC. From specific to general termsD. In opposite termsE. All of the above

527 Que # 527


A. Each side may misinterpret what theother side has saidB. Each side may give up on the other sideC. One side may try to confuse the other sideD. One side may be too busy thinking about what to say next to hear what is being saidE. Either side may not be paying attention

528 Que # 528


A.

B. Effective meetings, a war room, and a tight matrix promote effective communicationC. If a project consists of 12 people, 48 potential channels of communication existD.


PMgroup ControllingQue

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

530 Que # 530

PMgroup ExecutingQue The project manager who adopts the shareholder manager leadership styleA. Solicits little or no information from his or her team and makes decisions aloneB. Solicits input fro the team and makes decisions aloneC. Invites team members to share in project decision deliberations

The most common communication problem that occurs during negotiation is that

Which of the following is true regarding communication within a project environment?

The project manager must assume the primary burden of responsibility to ensure that messages sent have been received

Most project managers spend 30% of their working hours engaged in communication

Performance reports are used to provide information to stakeholders on project scope, schedule, cost, and quality. Which statement most accurately describes this process?

The configuration control board receives performance reports and generates change requests to modify aspects of the project

Performance reporting includes status reports, which detail where the project is now; progress reports, which describe accomplishments; and forecasts, which predit future status and progress

Performance reporting focuses on examining earned value analysis to determine whether cost overruns will require budget revisions

Performance reporting includes histograms flow charts, and bar charts to show network dependencies and relationships

Performance reporting provides variance analysis information, which helps the project team adhere to the zero variance principle

D. Delegates decision making to the team without much information exchangeE. Lets the project team assume as much leadership responsibility as it will accept

531 Que # 531

PMgroup ControllingQue All the following are examples of informal written communication exceptA. Entineers' notesB. e-Mail messagesC. The management planD. Memos to team membersE. Post-it notes messages

532 Que # 532

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. StakeholdersB. PlannersC. ContractorsD. CustomerE. Team members

533 Que # 533

PMgroup ControllingQue The LOB technique is best suited as a performance reporting technique toA. Display a future job to facilitate analysis of the work involvedB.

C. Determine which work sequences wil take the longest to complete the projectD. Assure the customer that the articles it is buying will be available when neededE.

534 Que # 534


A. Physical attributesB. Aesthetic attributesC. SignsD. SymbolsE. All of the above

535 Que # 535


A. Communication management plan, project plan, and information distribution systemB.

Communication planning is a process for dtermining the information and communmication needs of the

Show the customer how various activities relate to one another in the production or development process

Determine which sequences of the effort have been positive and which have been negative to focus attention on areas for improvement

In person-to-person communication, messages are sent on verbal levels and nonverbal levels simultaneously. If nonverbal cues and the spoken message are incongruous, the flow of comnication is hindered. Nonverbal communication can involve the use of

Which of the following tools or techniques are used in the information distribution process?

Information distribution system, information retrieval system, and performance reports

C.

D. Communication skills, work results, and status reportsE. Performance reviews, peformance reports, and poejct plan

536 Que # 536

PMgroup ControllingQue In dealing with the customer, the project manager shouldA. Disclose information only at regular intervals to maintain consistencyB. Stirve to develop a friendly, honest, and open relationshipC. Be hones to the extent that th eproject organization is protected from litigationD. Try to maximize profits by encouraging scope creepE. Do whatever it takes to satisfy the customer and win additional business

537 Que # 537


A. Stress the uniqueness of the idea or topic at handB. Stress the relationships between his/her proposals and the people concernedC. Be precise about the value of teh ideas to overall organizational goalsD. Focus on personnel performance issues firstE. Describe the ideas using anecdotal evidence to support recommendations

538 Que # 538

PMgroup PlanningQue The communication process consists of the following componentsA. CommunicatorB. MessageC. FunctionD. RecipientE. Medium

539 Que # 539


A. Win-winB. Getting to yesC. NegotiationD. ArbitrationE. Confrontation

540 Que # 540


A. Adjust the resource allocationB. Improve budget estimatingC. Follow the communication plan

Communication skills, information retrieval system, and information distribution system`

When communicating with a people-oriented person, a project manager should

The process of conferring with others to come to terms or reach an agreement is called

The project manager has changed the scope without communicating the change to the rest of the project team. The project is now over budget. What action would prevent this from happening in the future?

D. Hold more meetingsE.


A. Call the customer immediatelyB. Analyze the impact and request more budgetC. Analyze impact to cost and schedule, review and implement contingency plansD. Call a team meeting, apologize and get a quick agreement on a solutionE.

ANSWERS

100 A101 D102 E103 B104 D105 B106 C107 D108 E109 B110 E111 E112 B113 D114 B115 D116 E117 C118 B119 D120 E121 D122 A123 D124 C125 A126 C127 B128 D129 E130 A131 C132 C133 C134 B135 D

The project manager has changed the scope without communicating the change to the rest of the project team. The project is now over budget. What should the project manager do now?

136 C137 B138 D139 E140 B141 B142 E143 E410 B411 C412 A413 D414 C415 D416 D417 B418 B419 A420 A421 D422 D423 E424 A425 A426 A427 C428 C429 B430 C431 D432 A501 C502 E503 E504 B505 D506 E507 E508 E509 C510 D511 B512 D513 A514 A515 A516 B517 B518 B519 A520 C521 D

522 D523 A524 A525 C526 D527 E528 A529 B530 B531 D532 C533 A534 D535 E536 C537 B538 B539 C540 C600 C601 C

PROJECT HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT


Que

A. are customer based and not project basedB. do not appear on the project scheduleC. do not occur frequently enough to avoid surprisesD.

E. none of the abovePMgroup Planning

101 Que # 101Que

A. should be consideredB. will undermine the authority and power of the project managerC. can work as long as those on the task force are experts on the issueD. all of the aboveE. PMgroup Planning

102 Que # 102Que MBO usually involvesA. measurable and verifiable objectivesB. objectives set by the employeeC. self-appraisals by the employeeD. implementation throughout the organizationE. all of the abovePMgroup Planning

103 Que # 103Que Priorities in a matrix organization are ultimately set byA. the project managerB. the functional mangerC. upper managementD. a super project managerE. c or dPMgroup Executing

104 Que # 104Que

A. TrueB. FalseC. D. E. PMgroup Planning

105 Que # 105Que In a matrix organization, the project manager is likely to experienceA. conflict and difficult team buildingB. a sharing of accountabilityC. good customer relations

Formal reporting and reviews violate the basic principles of project management because they

must be reviewed by a central project authority before being forwarded to the customer and top management

If more than several departments must be involved in a decision, use of a task force

Project management is an effective and powerful strategy and should be implemented in every organization.

D. difficulty in getting the best workers assigned to the projectE. a, c and dPMgroup Planning

106 Que # 106Que

A. establishment of a lead divisionB. direct control by top managementC. very clear definition of responsibility and authorityD. project coordinatorE. budgeting cost controlPMgroup Executing

107 Que # 107Que

A. formal and legitimate powerB. expert and referent powerC. legimate and coercive powerD. reward and expert power E. legimate and reward powerPMgroup Planning

109 Que # 109Que

A. FunctionalB. ExpeditorC. MatrixD. CateringE. ProjectizedPMgroup Planning

110 Que # 110Que The difference between a strong and weak matrix is best described asA. the effectiveness of the project manager in making his project successfulB. the project vs. functional influence in decision makingC. the project vs. functional balance in power and authorityD. b and cE. all of the abovePMgroup Executing

111 Que # 111Que Which of the following roles is not appropriate for the project manager?A. integratorB. communicatorC. team leaderD. technical consultantE. climate creatorPMgroup Executing

112 Que # 112Que Which of the following are appropriate motivation factors or reward systems?

A. achievement

Which of the following should not be considered as an effective and viable alternative to project management?

The key to achieving and maintaining success in the role of a project manager is the use of

You have just been assigned as the project manager of a 15 year 200 trillion dollar project to marry the first couple on Mars. In addition to buying a wedding present, you will probably want to describe which type of project organization in your management plan?

B. responsibilityC. salaryD. personal aspirationsE. recognitionPMgroup Executing

113 Que # 113Que

A. Project CoordinatorB. Project ManagerC. Task Force LeaderD. Project SpecialistE. Technical ConsultantPMgroup Planning

114 Que # 114Que

A. least equal to the highest level of functional manager to be dealt withB. the same level as a functional managerC. the very top of the organizationD. the level of a super project managerE.


Que

A. thinking, acting, directing, and reviewingB. thinking, planning, controlling, and monitoringC. planning, controlling, tracking, and actingD. planning, doing, briefing, and reviewingE. planning, organizing, leading, and controllingPMgroup Planning

116 Que # 116Que

A. planning; functional staffB. planning; project teamC. feasibility study; project teamD. implementation; subcontractorsE. implementation; functional staffPMgroup Planning

117 Que # 117Que

A. is expected to discuss all facts of the technical parameters of the projectB. will be leading individuals without having direct control over them

An employee evaluation appears on your desk that includes the following descriptions skilled, specialty focused, strong technical background, filtered listener, limited experience in interfacing, avoids conflict, good at developing techniques and operates well in the management hierarchy. Your first thought is to consider this person for a position as a

For an effective matrix organization, the level of the project manager should be at

the level of a functional manager in a weak matrix, and a level above that in a strong matrix

As for any manager, the project manager's responsibilities, consist of the four basic functions of ________.

The project manager should be assigned to a project in its early stages. This permits the project manager to participate in the ________ conducted by the ________.

The project manager leads a project team that is comprised of many different skills and disciplines. S/he must use an exceptional number of negotiating skills because s/he ________.

C. will encounter the shoptalk of each unique disciplineD. will be using these skills to keep from accepting additional workE. is the chief contract negotiator for all project subcontractsPMgroup Executing

118 Que # 118Que

A. administrative officesB. financial officesC. technical fieldsD. functional areasE. labor poolPMgroup Planning

119 Que # 119Que

A. mechanical, electrical, and materialB. human, machine, and fluidC. personal, organizational, and systemD. software, hardware, and humanE. documented, undocumented, and otherPMgroup Planning

120 Que # 120Que

A. communication linksB. monitoring activitiesC. report flowD. bondingE. conflict resolutionPMgroup Planning

121 Que # 121Que

A. absolute, direct, and indirectB. direction, coordination, and liaisonC. formal, informal, and persuasiveD. formal, reward, and directE. formal, reward, and penaltyPMgroup Planning

122 Que # 122Que

A. physical and mentalB. spiritual and emotionalC. expert and assumedD. expert and referentE. mental and emotionalPMgroup Planning

123 Que # 123

Most project managers are promoted to from the ________ without having prior education and training in managerial functions.

The project manager is responsible for the project's interface management. The three types of interfaces to be managed are ________.

Once established, the project integration process must be maintained through continuous, effective ________ across interfaces.

When appointed, a project manager has the inherent forms of legitimate power conveyed to him/her. The three forms of legitimate power are ________.

To further the objectives of the project, the project manager may possess two forms of power that are obtained through other than a formal appointment (legitimate power). These two forms of power are ________.

Que

A. construction, rebuild, and reworkB. timing, schedule, and deliverC. cost, schedule, and quality/performanceD. quality/performance, control, and assuranceE. testing, performance, and deliveryPMgroup Executing

124 Que # 124Que

A. project office, functional divisions, field sites, and corporate officesB. project priorities, personnel resources, technical issues, and scheduling issuesC. planning phase, implementation phase, execution phase, and close-out phaseD. team building, team integration, functional coordination, and customer coordinationE. individual, team, vendor, and subcontractor managementPMgroup Executing

125 Que # 125Que

A. confrontationB. compromiseC. smoothingD. forcingE. withdrawalPMgroup Executing

126 Que # 126Que

A. works well with othersB. experienced in his/her technical fieldC. a good negotiatorD. well-liked by project teamE. some supervisory experiencePMgroup Executing

127 Que # 127Que

A. leadershipB. project managementC. the project manager's responsibilitiesD. implementationE. team buildingPMgroup Executing

128 Que # 128

The project manager is the primary interface with the customer for all projects and must be an effective communicator to convey the project's status. In this regard, the project manager should keep the customer informed of the status of the project's ________ progress.

The project usually has a high degree of conflict during its life cycle, and the project manager must be an effective manager of that conflict. The most common areas in which conflict will be realized are ________.

The five types of conflict resolution are listed below and represent, in the general order of importance, the methods a project manager should use to manage conflict. The one used most often by project managers to resolve conflict is ________.

Although the desirable traits and characteristics for a project manager may vary slightly between industries, a few common ones are universal, but one that is not universally desirable is ________.

The process of getting a group of diverse individuals to work effectively together as a team is the definition of ________.

Que

A. must pursue individual interestsB. must be interdependentC. must have a reason to work togetherD. must be committed to working togetherE. must have a moderate level of competition and conflictPMgroup Executing

129 Que # 129Que

A. team member frustrationB. excessive conflict and individual competitionC. unproductive meetingsD. lack of trust/confidence in the project managerE. all of the abovePMgroup Executing

130 Que # 130Que

A. clear organizational structureB. improved monetary rewardsC. clear aims/goalsD. improved individual creativityE. fewer people-problemsPMgroup Executing

131 Que # 131Que

A. poor project tools and lack of project planningB. lack of top management support and too much supervision by top managementC. lack of top management support and an inept project managerD. unproductive people on the project team and an inept project managerE. shortage of funds for bonuses and overly trained personnel on project teamPMgroup Planning

132 Que # 132Que

A. leaderB. project's technical directorC. system integratorD. project advisorE. project plannerPMgroup Executing

133 Que # 133

Team building focuses on getting all members to contribute toward common goals to achieve synergism. Of the following characteristics, the one that is not compatible with team building is ________.

A team is often a collection of individuals vying with others for power, prestige, recognition, and personal autonomy, but never unity of purpose. The collection of people who are not a team is frequently characterized by ________.

In addition to improving the success rate for goal achievements, team building has many benefits for individuals, but one characteristic that is not a benefit of team building is ________.

Team building, with all of its success orientation, may have some limitations under certain identified conditions. Two such conditions are ________.

The role of the project manager has several different elements, implying that s/he is responsible for many activities, but one role that is not considered one of the responsibilities of a project manager is ________.

Que

A. introducing team members to one anotherB. establishing working relationships within the teamC. setting goals and objectives for the teamD. identifying project problem areasE. all of the abovePMgroup Executing

134 Que # 134Que

A. set limited times and opportunities for discussions; social contactsB. encourage open conversations; politicsC. practice what s/he preaches; social contactsD. encourage frank discussions; making promisesE. keep promises; being too openPMgroup Executing

135 Que # 135Que

A. the schedule of paydays and holidays to permit planning for rest and relaxationB.

C. clear, unambiguous goals as to where the project is headedD.

E. that key decisions have been made and how the key decisions impact the teamPMgroup Executing

136 Que # 136Que

A. Let's do this . . .B. Do we have some better information?C. I believe we are saying . . .D. I have another subject to address if this is too difficult to solve nowE. I feel we can now come to agreement on this issuePMgroup Executing

137 Que # 137Que

A. talking to top managementB. visiting the customerC. attending project meetingsD. writing reportsE. visiting site locations

A kickoff meeting is one of the best methods to get the project team started on the right path toward becoming an integrated group. Objectives of the kickoff meeting include ________.

In building team confidence in himself/herself, a project manager should ________ with team members and avoid ________.

Conflict within a project team can be avoided with prior planning and by maintaining effective communications between the project manager and the team. The most important information for the project manager to convey to the team is ________.

the system of rewards that permits recognition of team members through monetary or nonmonetary awards

that top management will not be interfering with this project as it usually does with other projects

The project manager is the leader of the project team and needs to be forward-reaching in obtaining a consensus on an issue. However, it would be counterproductive to an attempted resolution of an issue if the project manager said, "________."

Project managers often work 10 or more hours per day to fit the many activities into their professional schedule. There is a general agreement that all the professional time is not used as efficiently as possible. The major consumer of time, nearly two hours per day, is ________.


Que

A. failing to organize sufficientlyB. poor planningC. difficulty in saying no to peopleD. spending too much time delegating and following upE. the requirement to supervise inept project team membersPMgroup Planning

139 Que # 139Que

A. "I already delegate enough work"B. "Subjects are too confidential to involve others"C. "My subordinates aren't sufficiently qualified"D. "I can do it better"E. all of the abovePMgroup Planning

140 Que # 140Que

A. delegating and coordinating group activitiesB. reaching a group decisionC. resolving conflictD. conducting a meetingE. all of the abovePMgroup Planning

141 Que # 141Que

A. type of industry, and type of projectB. project manager's desires, and client's wishesC. people available, and top management's desiresD. project manager-client relations, and expectations of stakeholdersE. project manager's expectations, and top management's expectationsPMgroup Planning

142 Que # 142Que

A. changes; reduces

According to a 1981 survey, there are three categories (with average percentages) of a projects manager's use of professional time self-determined use (46.4%), others determine how to use (25.9%), and system determines how to use (27.7%). Project managers indicated a strong tendency to allocate time by self-determination, but they also indicated that their most serious cause of time conflicts was ________.

Delegation of work to subordinates in a project gives the project manager more time to accomplish other tasks and plan the work for the future. To avoid delegating work, many project managers use the excuse ________.

Theories of motivation and leadership give project managers a conceptual framework in which to operate, but practical skills are important in applying this knowledge. Skills most easily learned through group assignments and practical exercises include ________.

Project management organizations are designed to perform specific functions in the most efficient manner. The six major factors that should influence the development of a project management organization are type of structure, type of staffing, attitude toward risk, communications channels, ________.

The project is often implemented by a matrix organization because the required specialists cannot be justified on a full-time basis. The use of a matrix organization ________ the apparent capabilities for marketing purposes and ________ the overall manpower fluctuations as the project progresses.

B. reduces; maximizesC. enhances; minimizesD. minimizes; stabilizesE. none of the abovePMgroup Planning

143 Que # 143Que

A. conflicting skill requirementsB. unstable tasking at the functional areaC. additional work hours commuting between jobsD. two supervisors with possible conflicting requirementsE. additional work without the resources to accomplish itPMgroup Planning

144 Que # 144Que

A. make "busy" work for the staff during idle timeB. make use of the full-time staff for efficiency and productivityC. loan the individuals to the functional organization during slack periodsD.

E. train the individuals in new skill areas to ensure that work is accomplishedPMgroup Planning

145 Que # 145Que

A. performing their assigned jobs well and improving individual skillsB.

C. minimizing the amount of work accomplished so the project will be extendedD.

E. having anxieties regarding their next assignment after the project is completedPMgroup Planning

146 Que # 146Que

A. the organization chart is detailed, and individual names are assigned to the chartB. the project manager is experienced, and full-time staff are assigned to the projectC.

D.

E.

PMgroup Planning

The matrix organization reduces the part-time (functional) employee's anxiety about job security, but it has the adverse effect of giving the employee ________.

The independent project organization is useful in having a dedicated staff reporting to the project manager and performing all functions for the project. The adverse side of this dedicated staff is that the project manager must ________.

frequently hire and fire people to maintain the correct skill balance for the required work

The independent project organization provides stability for the staff during execution of the project. From a personal viewpoint, the major concern of the staff is ________.

keeping the functional staff out of the project to preclude interference with the progress

ensuring the budget is spent so the project will not have any residue of funds for re-allocation

A project organization may be highly structured to achieve benefits of efficiency. Two major contributors to the definition of a highly structured project organization are ________.

individuals know what is expected of them, and standards are well defined and understood

the project manager is dictatorial, and the staff works to only well-defined specifications

communications are handled only by the supervisory chain, and the liaison with thirdparties is conducted by formal correspondence

147 Que # 147Que

A. innovative or creative work and with high-level professionalsB. routine work and with a new staffC. production operations and with the construction industryD. planning operations and with the functional staffE. none of the abovePMgroup Executing

148 Que # 148Que

A. ability and resourcesB. power and authorityC. will and desireD. seniority and maturityE. need and desirePMgroup Planning

149 Que # 149Que

A. are new to a project environment and need to learnB. are eager to please management and easy to pleaseC. will stay with the project until completion, regardless of their qualificationsD. better match the skill requirements than those being replacedE. are more mature in the industry and understand the need to complete projectsPMgroup Planning

150 Que # 150Que

A. need time to adjust the plan to fit his/her concept of the projectB.

C.

D.

E. have problems with the technical approach, schedule, or budget in the planPMgroup Executing

151 Que # 151Que

The open or loosely structured project organization does not rely on well-defined standards and procedures for guiding the work efforts. Therefore, this organization should be used for ________.

The level of the reporting superior for the project manager is viewed as critical because it also implies the amount of interest and emphasis that the corporation places on the project. From a practical standpoint, when a project manager reports to a senior officer of the company, the project manager then has access to an individual with the ________ to resolve interproject conflicts.

Changes to the project staff are necessary because of personal desires and the re-allocation of resources to more critical projects. Planning for staff changes can ease the turbulence, and the project manager should look for replacement people who ________.

Project planning is best accomplished by the project manager because s/he can be held completely responsible for executing the work. When the project manager is not involved in the planning, it is most likely that s/he will ________.

quickly grasp and agree with the planning if top management directs the immediateimplementation

not like the plan under any circumstance because it is the project manager's prerogative to develop the budget and schedule

not care whether the planning is flawed because s/he always has an excuse for anyfailure

There is a long-term need to develop individuals within a company to assume positions of leadership and greater responsibility. Comparing the functional and project organization, the opportunity for personnel development ________.

A. is greater in the project organizationB. is greater in the functional organizationC. cannot be determined between the two organizationsD. is greater in the project organization during the planning phase onlyE.


Que

A. are similar but are met through different practicesB. are similar and are met through similar practicesC.

D.

E.


Que

A. recognized leadership skills with organizational abilityB. breadth of experience in related projectsC. ability to communicate and work with othersD. ability to obtain maximum input from team membersE. all of the abovePMgroup Planning

154 Que # 154Que

A. an informal meeting or the project kickoff meetingB. the organization's communication organ or the local newspaperC. the letter of appointment or the project charterD. the project policy manual or the project execution manualE. a special letter to the project manager or the letter of appointmentPMgroup Planning

394 Que # 394Que

A. Disciplinary, autocratic, and aprticipativeB. Projectized, matrix, and functionalC. Team building, team development, and responsibility assignmentD. Directing, coaching, supporting, and delegatingE. Staff planning, team training, and performance monitoringPMgroup Planning

is greater in the functional organization when the individuals are allowed to matrix to a project

The title of project manager is universally used to identify the single person responsible for the accomplishment of work to meet a company's objectives for a defined area of work. Throughout the industries, the project manager's responsibilities ________.

are similar for major responsibilities but different for the detailed practices to meet the responsibilities

are considerably different and follow the practices of the industry for meeting the responsibilities

are somewhat different but generally follow the same practices for meeting the responsibilities

The role of the project manager will differ depending upon whether s/he works for the owner (buyer), performing contractor, or supplier. The attributes and characteristics, however, are similar and include having ________.

The project manager's authority should be commensurate with the degree of assigned responsibility. Senior management should define the project manager's authorities and publicly announce them in either ________.

The project manager's leadership style should be matched to the corresponding developmental level of the proejct team and should move through successive steps in the following order

395 Que # 395Que

A. AvailabilityB. Personal interestC. Personal characteristicsD. Political philosophyE. Previous experiencePMgroup Planning

396 Que # 396Que Human resource administration is the primary responsibility of theA. Project Management TeamB. Human Resources DepartmentC. Executive ManagerD. Line ManagersE. Project ManagerPMgroup Planning

397 Que # 397Que A project coordinator may typically be found in a ____________ environmentA. ProjectizedB. Stron matrixC. Weak matrixD. Balance matrixE. Phase IPMgroup Planning

398 Que # 398Que

A. To reduce costsB. To improve moraleC. To aid in staffing teh next projectD. To control material resources neededE. To reduce uncertaintyPMgroup Executing

399 Que # 399Que

A. Vacation time, assignment of a personal staff assistantB. Work satisfaction, fringe benefitsC. Plush office space, performance-based slaray raiseD. A sense of personal achievement, work satisfactionE. A bonus for completion on time, major recognition eventsPMgroup Executing

400 Que # 400Que A mandatory prerequisite for team building isA. Commitment from top level managementB. Collocation of team membersC. Open discussion of poor individual performanceD. Funding for staff development activitiesE. Shared work ethics among members of teh teamPMgroup Executing

401 Que # 401

In selecting from the pool for team assignments, all of the following characteristics should be evaluated EXCEPT

It is important that the staffing plan address how personnel will be released when no longer needed on the project for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

Motivation factors can be divided into two classes staisfiers and dissatisfiers. Examples of satisfiers are

Que

A. I onlyB. II onlyC. III onlyD. I and III onlyE. I, II, and IIIPMgroup Planning

402 Que # 402Que

A. A strong matrix organizationB. A project coordinatorC. A project expediterD. A functional organizationE. Direct executive involvementPMgroup Planning

403 Que # 403Que Project Human Resource Management is divided intoA. Organizational planning, staff acquisition, and performance appraisalB. Leadershiop, t4eam building, and negotiationC. Recruitment, labor relations, and personnel administrationD. Team building, communication, and labor relationsE. Organizational planning, staff acquisition, and team developmentPMgroup Planning

404 Que # 404Que Aids in staff acquisition include all of the following EXCEPTA. Staffing management planB. Procurement C. Team directoryD. TrainingE. NegotiationPMgroup Planning

405 Que # 405Que All of the following are outputs of Organizational Planning EXCEPTA. Project organization chargB. Staffing management planC. Project templateD. Supporting detailE. Project interfacesPMgroup Executing

406 Que # 406Que A key barrier to team development isA. A strong matrix management structureB. When major problems delay the project completion date or budget targetsC. When teaam members are accountable to both functional and project managersD. When formal training plans cannot be implementedE. When members cannot be collocatedPMgroup Planning

407 Que # 407

Collocation can mean that I. All team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the project II. Most team members are moved to a central physical location for the life of the project. III. A "war room" is established where team membesr can meet periodically

For a large, complex project ____________ is best for handling cross-functional project needs

Que

A. It varies considerably from company to companyB. It is dependent on corporate policiesC. It is determined by senior managementD. It is weak in a strong matrix organizationE. It depends on the project manager's philosophy or stylePMgroup Planning

408 Que # 408Que

A. Strong matrixB. Weak matrixC. ProjectizedD. FunctionalE. DepartmentalizedPMgroup Planning

409 Que # 409Que

A. I onlyB. II and IV onlyC. I, III, and IV onlyD. II, III, and IV onlyE. I, II, III, and IVPMgroup Executing

501 Que # 501Que All of the following are examples of team-building techniques exceptA. Off-site activities to improve interpersonal relationships among team membersB. Reward and recognition systemsC. Location of the team in one work areaD. The kickoff meetingE. Smoothing over of team conflicts by the project managerPMgroup Planning

502 Que # 502Que Output per person per hour of input describesA. Economies of scaleB. Value marginal productC. ProducivityD. The learning curveE. Say's lawPMgroup Executing

503 Que # 503Que According to the expectancy theory of motivationA. Poor performance is the natural outcome of poor trainingB. Managers should not expect too much of workersC. Motivation to act is linked to an outcome that is expected to have valueD. Downsizing companies can expect to have motivation problemsE. Managers should expect that employees who are paid more will work harderPMgroup Executing

504 Que # 504

All of the following statements about the level of authority of the project manager are true EXCEPT

The project manager has the highest level of direct authority in a _____________ environment.

In a typical matrix organization, functional managers are responsible for I. General administrative philosophy II. Assignment of personnel III. Developing standards IV. Monitoring performance

Que According to McGregor, a manager who uses Theory X sees workers asA. Highly motivated, willing to take responsibility, and reliableB. Highly untrustworthy, needing to be watched and closely managed at all timesC. Very productive when first given an assignmentD. Unproductive at first, followed by periods of high productivityE. Two basic types "dragons" and "drones" PMgroup Planning

505 Que # 505Que

A. Resource Gantt chartB. PERT diagramC. Time-line analysis matrixD. Resource spreadsheetE. Leveling chartPMgroup Planning

506 Que # 506Que

A. Levels at which the project and the participating functional managers reportB. Support provided to the project and functional managers from top managementC. Physical distances between the people involved in the projectD. Amount of time spent on the project by the respective managersE. All of the abovePMgroup Executing

507 Que # 507Que

A.

B. Team members know they are accountable for achieving project deliverablesC. Synergy will likely result from team interactionD. A and BE. A, B, and CPMgroup Executing

508 Que # 508Que Which of the following factors affects team building the least?A. A faulty project conceptB. Unsupportive top managementC. A project in troubleD. Unproductive membersE. Compensation of project team membersPMgroup Executing

509 Que # 509Que

A.

B.

A chart that shows the level of all project resources by time period is known as a

In the strong and weak matrix structures, the balance of power may be shifted to either the project manager or functional manager by changing the

Which of the following is considered an advantage of empowerment for project teams?

It encourages team members to find better ways of doing things to meet project objectives

Project team members who work in different locations tend not to see themselves as a team or unified group. To rectify such a situation, a project manager should

Ensure that eery member of the project team uses e-mail as a form of communication

Recognize that this is a lose-lose situation because people at distant sites are more drawn to staff and events at the local level

C.

D. Create symbols and structures that solidify the unity of the dispersed work groupE. Provide team members with the latest in communication technologyPMgroup Executing

510 Que # 510Que

A. Laissez-faireB. DemocraticC. AutocraticD. DirectiveE. AntipodalPMgroup Planning

511 Que # 511Que

A. Project personnel must report to more than one bossB. Matrix structure is complex to monitor and controlC. Tendency toward duplication of effort is greatD. Project personnel experience conflicting priorities in work assignmentsE.


Que

A. Strong matrixB. ProjectizedC. Project coordinatorD. Project expeditorE. Weak matrixPMgroup Executing

513 Que # 513Que All the following are symptoms of bad teamwork in the project team exceptA. FrustrationB. Excessive meetingsC. Lack of trust or confidence in the projrect mamagerD. Unhealthy competitionE. Unproductive meetingsPMgroup Executing

514 Que # 514Que The primary method of reducing conflict in projects is toA. Hold periodic group meetingsB. Use group facilitatorsC. Perform careful project planningD. Enforce strict rules about arguingE. Limit communications among team membersPMgroup Planning

515 Que # 515

Mandate that the team follow the vision and mission statement of his or her organization

Which of the following is an appropriate management style to use when the project manager wants to encourage the staff to pool its knowledge to make the best decision possible?

All the following are disadvantages of the matrix form of project organization except

Experience gained in the matrix organiztaion can be readily applied to other forms of project organization

In which form of project organization would the project manager be likely to exercise themost control over project resources?

Que

A. Resource infringementB. Schedule jugglingC. Pairwise trade-offD. The Multiattribute Utility TheoryE. Resource levelingPMgroup Executing

516 Que # 516Que

A. There is flexibility in the use of staffB.

C.

D. The customer is the focus of activity and concernE.


Que The input to organizatoinal planning consists ofA. Project interfaces, staffing requirements, and constraintsB. Organizational interfaces, technical interfaces, and interpersonal interfacesC.

D.

E.


Que

A.

B. Conduct periodic face-to-face team meetingsC. Assign pairs of people to work together on parts of the projectD. Solicit and promote team member ideasE. All of the abovePMgroup Planning

519 Que # 519Que A responsibility assignment matrix is used toA. Show who is responsible for whatB.

C. Help the project manager keep track of who must approve whatD. Help the project manager keep track of who must report to whomE. All of the above

Adjusting the timing of tasks so that resources are not over committed is called

One alternative to dedicating office space for project team members to call "home" is to assign responsibility for the project to the functional unit that has the most interest in ensuring its success or can be the most helpful in implementing it. All the following are advantages of this alternative except

Specialists in the functional unit can be used by different projects and can share knowledge and expertise

The functional unit serves as a base for technological continuity when people choose to leave the project

The functional unit contains the normal career path for advancement for individuals whose expertise is in the functional area

Organizational structure of teh performing organization, constraints, and assumptions

Overall resource requirements, expected staff assignments, and preferences of the project management team

Human resource practices of the performing organization, collective bargaining agreements, and staffing requirements

When members of a project team are not collocated they have limited interaction and limited knowledge of each other. A project manager in this situation should

Establish ways for team members to learn more about each other professionally and personally

Show critical interfaces between units that may require special managerial coordination


Que

A. The level of authority of the project managerB.

C.

D.

E.


Que

A. Win-loseB. Yield-loseC. Lose-leaveD. CompromiseE. Integrative


Que A key component of concurrent engineering isA. Placing all work under the control of a functional managerB. Creating teams that have representatives from different project phasesC. Involving the implementors of a project in the design phaseD. Reducing the workload of matrixed employeesE. Eliminating the need for tesing personnel


Que

A. A resource matrixB. A Branson diagramC. A responsibility indexD. An analytical engineE. A resource Gantt chart


Que

A. Formal, reward, penaltyB. Reward, referent, formalC. Expert, referent, formalD. Individual, group, formalE. Reward, expert, referent

Major dificulties arise when multiple projects need to be managed in the functional organizational structure because of

Conflicts over the relative priorities of different projects in competition for limited resources

Project team members who are focused on their functional specialty rather than on the project

The grouping of people by specialty area rather than as a team to support the project

The need for the project manager to use interpersonal skills to resolve conflicts informally

A project manager who has a low concern for personal goals and a high concern for relationships is practicing which style of conflict resolution?

A chart that shows who is assigned to do a task without regard to when it will be done is called

The three types of power available to the project manager based solely on his or her position in the organization include


Que

A. Communication barriersB. Conflicting interestsC. Ambiguous jurisdictionsD. Need for consensusE. Dependence on one party


Que

A. Problem orientedB. Discipline orientedC. Politically sensitive to top management's needsD. Focused on individual project activitiesE. All of the above


Que

A. Differing priorities, interests, and judgements of team mambersB. Role conflictsC. Lack of team member commitmentD. Amount of physical office space allotted to each team memberE. Communication problems


Que The primary result of effective team development isA. Improved project performanceB. Input to peformance appraisalsC. An effective, smoothly running teamD.

E.


Que The method most often used by project managers to solve conflict isA. ConfrontationB. CompromiseC. SmoothingD. ForcingE. None of the above


In both the weak and strong matrix organizatoinal structures, the primary condition leading to conflict is

The chances for succesful completion of a multidisciplinary project are increased if project team members are

All of the following have been found to be major barriers to building effective project teams except

An understanding by project team members that the porject manager is ultimately responsible for project performance

Enhancement of the ability of stakeholders to contribute as individuals and team mebers

Que

A. Ability of the organization to achieve its goalsB.

C. Degree of authority the project manage has over team resourcesD. Degree to which team members bond togetherE. Size of the project team


Que

A. Laissez-faireB. AutocraticC. BureaucraticD. MegalomaniacalE. Judicious


Que

A.

B.

C. Conflict is to be avoided whenever possibleD.

E.


Que Each of the following is a destructive role on a project team exceptA. WithdrawerB. Recognition seekerC. Topic jumperD. Gate keeperE. Dominator


Que

A. Build trustB. Exercise his/her power and authorityC. Establish a reward and recognition systemD. Obtain the support of the functional managers in the other locationsE. Exercise his/her right to control all aspects of the project

The terms strong matrix and weak matrix when applied to the matrix structure in project organization refer to the

Physical proximity of project team members to one another and to the project manager

A manager who makes decisions without considering the information provided by project team members is using which management style?

In organizing a project, a project manager must deal with conflict. Which statement is true regarding conflict in projects?

A matrix form of organization can produce a lack of clear role definitions and lead to ambiguous jurisdictions between and among functional leaders and project managers

Sources of conflict include project priorities, PERT/CPM schedules, contract administrative procedures, and type of contract

By the closeout phase, conflicts regarding schedules and human resources are resolved, but new conflicts arise, such as project priorities and cost

Strong matrix project managers have few human resource conflicts, because they can dictate their needs to functional managers

The key way for a project manager to promote optimum team performance in project teams whose members are not collocated is to


Que

A. EgocentricB. Don't ask, don't tellC. Laissez-faireD. ParticipativeE. Democratic


Que

A. Personalities, cost objectives, and schedulesB. Schedules, technical opinions, and project prioritiesC. Cost objectives, administrative procedures, and schedulesD. Schedules, project priorities, and personnel resourcesE. Personalities, project priorities, and cost objectives


Que A constraining factor that may affect the organization of the project team isA. The organizational structure of the performing organizatoinB. Collective bargaining agreementsC. Preferences of the project teamD. Expected team assignmentsE. All of the above


Que

A. Become alienated with the organization and leaveB. Lack motivation but will not be dissatisfied with their workC. Lack motivation and become dissatisfied with their workD. Become dissatisfied only if they do not receive salary increasesE. Use the workplace as a means to fulfill social needs more than professional ones


Que What are Maslow's three highest levels of human needs?A. Physiological, safety, and socialB. Recognition, responsibility, and rewardC. Self-actualization, esteem, and socialD. Happiness, health, and prosperityE. Life, love, and laughter


A management style characterized by little or no information flowing up or down between the project manager and project team is called

Conflicts in which of the following three areas represent over 50% of all project conflicts?

According to Herzberg's motivator-hygiene Theory of Motivation, if achievement, recognition, responsibility, advancement or promotion, and positive supervisor attitude are not present, employees will

Que

A.

B. The project coordinator cannot personally make or enforce decisionsC. The project coordinator reports to a higher level manager in the organizationD.

E. The project expeditor form of organization is used only on less costly projects

ANSWERS

100 E101 A102 E103 E104 B105 E106 E107 D109 E110 D111 D112 E113 D114 A115 E116 B117 B118 C119 C120 A121 E122 D123 C124 B125 A126 D127 E128 A129 E130 B131 D132 D133 E134 B135 C136 D137 C138 C139 E

The major difference between the project coordinator and project expeditor forms of organization is that

Strong commitment to the project usually does not exist in the project expeditor form of organization

The project expeditor acts only as an intermediary between management and the project team

140 E141 D142 C143 D144 B145 E146 C147 A148 B149 D150 E151 A152 D153 E154 C394 D395 D396 B397 C398 D399 D400 A401 E402 A403 E404 D405 E406 C407 D408 C409 D501 E502 C503 C504 B505 D506 E507 E508 E509 D510 B511 E512 B513 B514 C515 E516 D517 A518 E519 E520 B521 B

522 C523 A524 A525 C526 A527 D528 A529 A530 C531 B532 A533 D534 A535 C536 D537 E538 C539 C540 C

PROJECT QUALITY MANAGEMENT


Que All of the following statements about acceptance sampling plans are true exceptA.

B. Acceptance sampling plans are necessary when destructive inspections are requiredC.

D.

E.


Que

A. 0.10 inchB. 0.19 inchC. 0.34 inchD. 0.49 inchE. 0.67 inchPMgroup Controlling

102 Que # 102Que

A. 14.30%B. 3.12%C. 2.73%D. 1.56%E. 0.78%PMgroup Controlling

103 Que # 103Que

A. Differences among machinesB. Differences among workersC. Differences among materialsD. Differences in each of these factors over timeE. None of the above (all are examples)PMgroup Controlling

Acceptance sampling plans are beneficial when the cost of inspection is high and the resulting loss of passing nonconforming units is not great

Acceptance sampling plans are never as effective at rejecting nonconforming units as 100 percent inspection, even when the inspection process is very tedious

Acceptance sampling plans do not directly control the quality of a series of lots; they instead specify the risk of accepting lots of given quality

Acceptance sampling plans are not very effective for inspecting small lots of custom-made products

A quality control (QC) manager for a manufacturing firm is calculating the expected standard deviation (s) for the length of hex bolts being produced on the assembly line. There are two sources of variation in the length of the hex bolts production variation and measurement error. The QC manager knows that the standard deviations from these two sources is 0.24 inch and 0.43 inch, respectively. Assuming that there are no other significant sources of error, what answer should the QC manager calculate for the total standard deviation of the length of the hex bolts?

The rule of seven is used by quality control engineers to determine whether a process is out of control. If a run of seven or more samples lays on one side of the process mean, the process is said to be out of control. What is the probability that a run of seven on either side of the Process mean is due to random variation?

Control chart theory is based on the differentiation of the causes of variations in quality. Variations in quality may be produced by assignable causes. All of the following are examples of assignable causes except

104 Que # 104Que

A. IncreaseB. DecreaseC. Remain unchangedD. Not determinable from given dataE. None of the abovePMgroup Controlling

105 Que # 105Que All of the following statements about control charts are true exceptA. Control charts can be used to establish as well as maintain process controlB.

C. All data points outside the control chart limits are variations explained byD. a and BE. b and CPMgroup Controlling

106 Que # 106Que

A. The use of quality control circlesB. Small, continuous improvements in quality controlC. The use of worker suggestion systemsD. The use of quality control chartsE. Focusing quality control efforts on production outputPMgroup Planning

107 Que # 107Que Quality management deals with all of the following topics exceptA. Conformance to requirements/specificationsB. Satisfying the needs of the customerC. Making Products more desirable and luxuriousD. A and CE. B and CPMgroup Executing

108 Que # 108Que Which of the following statements about the cost of quality are true?A.

B.

C.

D. a and BE. a and CPMgroup Controlling

109 Que # 109Que The zero defects conceptA. Is a performance standard for managementB. Is a motivational technique that promotes "doing it right the first time".

The same quality control manager decides to increase his daily sample size from three to six. The size of the control band will

Control charts are used to determine acceptance limits when no limits are stipulated by the product specification; otherwise, one should use the limits dictated by the specification.

Japanese quality control has improved dramatically in the last 30 years for all of the following reasons except

The cost of quality is the expense of nonconformance to requirements and specifications

The costs of quality are mostly the direct responsibility of workers who are manufacturing the product

Quality control programs should only be implemented when the costs of quality are excessive

C.

D. A and CE. B and CPMgroup Executing

110 Que # 110Que Quality assuranceA. Refers to the prevention of product defectsB.

C.

D. A and BE. b and CPMgroup Planning

111 Que # 111Que

A. Zero Defects programB. Theory X managementC. Theory Y managementD. Quality Control CirclesE. A and CPMgroup Controlling

112 Que # 112Que

A.

B.

C.

D. The project manager who has ultimately responsibility for the entire projectE. The customer who must ensure that he is receiving a quality product from the vendorPMgroup Controlling

113 Que # 113Que

A.

B.

C. When a process is subject to constant but stable tool wearD. A and BE. A and CPMgroup Executing

114 Que # 114Que

Is used by management to communicate to all employees that everyone should do things right the first time.

Is an auditing function that provides feedback to the project team and Client about the quality of output being produced

Is the technical process that includes the construction of control charts which specify acceptability limits for conforming output

Financial compensation is the primary motivational tool for which of the following management theories or programs?

In the project environment, the individual ultimately responsible for quality control is

The line workers who must strive "to do things right the first time' to avoid quality problems

The company's quality control manager who must work with the project members to ensure the quality control program is effective

The head of the production department who retains ultimate quality control responsibility for all the company's projects

An acceptance control chart has limits that are based on the specification limits for the product rather than limits which differentiate between random and assignable causes. Under which of the following circumstance should a QC manager consider using an acceptance control chart?

When the engineering tolerance on a dimension greatly exceeds the natural dispersion of the manufacturing process

When the number of samples outside the current control chart limits become too costly and Cumbersome to investigate

The majority of product defects could be prevented in most processes if manufacturers would do the following

A.

B.

C. Create a quality control departmentD. A and BE. A and CPMgroup Planning

115 Que # 115Que Quality attributesA. Are used to determine how effectively the organization accomplishes its goalsB. Can be objective or subjective in natureC. Are specific quality characteristics for which a product is designed, built, and testedD. A and BE. B and CPMgroup Planning

116 Que # 116Que Most quality problemsA. Originate in the quality department where the ultimate responsibility for quality restsB. Originate on the shop floor because of waste and product reworkC. Are the result of management inattention to potential quality improvement ideasD. Could be eliminated if shop supervisors monitored their workers more closelyE. A and BPMgroup Executing

117 Que # 117Que

A.

B.

C.

D.

E. A and dPMgroup Executing

118 Que # 118Que

A. Improving the performance of the companyB. Self-improvementC. Financial incentivesD. Recognition among co-workersE. Strengthening of relationships between co-workers.PMgroup Controlling

119 Que # 119Que

Increase the use of acceptance control charts instead of standard three-sigma control charts

Make a concerted effort to eliminate the potential for product defects in the design stage

The Pareto Principle is a technique used by quality managers to determine which quality control problems concerning a particular service or manufacturing process should be corrected. Which of the following statements best represents the philosophy employed by this principle?

In order to minimize financial losses from quality control problems, all problems which have a measurable cost associated with them should be corrected.

The majority of defects are caused by a small percentage of the identifiable problems. Improvement efforts should be reserved for these few vital problems.

In order to achieve zero defects, all quality control problems, including those which do not have a direct financial cost, should be corrected.

Generally, 80% of the quality control problems are justifiable for correction via cost-benefit analysis. The remaining 20% are not financially worthy of improvement efforts.

The Japanese Quality Control (QC) Circle movement motivated its participants in many ways. Which of the following represents the most important motivation for the QC circle participant

In order to achieve long-term quality improvements, management must do the following

A.

B.

C.

D. Establish financial incentive packages for workersE. A and DPMgroup Executing

120 Que # 120Que Quality assurance isA. top management's intention regarding qualityB. functions determining implementation of the quality policyC. actions to provide confidence of satisfying quality requirementsD. responsibilities and processes which implement quality managementE. all of the abovePMgroup Initiating

121 Que # 121Que Quality isA. zero defectsB. a problemC. a specificationD. a costE. a, c and dPMgroup Controlling

122 Que # 122Que Which are the best two charts to show trends in a process?A. Pareto and ControlB. Control and RunC. Histogram and RunD. Gantt and PertE. Gantt and CPMPMgroup Executing

123 Que # 123Que If the acceptance sampling attribute for a lot is 30%, this means thatA. 30% of all lots must be testedB. 30% of all lots must pass the testC. any given lot must have 30% or fewer defectsD. a sample of a given lot must have 30% or fewer defects to pass the entire lotE. c and dPMgroup Planning

124 Que # 124Que The pillar(s) of quality is (are)A. Quality is freeB. Doing it right the first timeC. Zero defectsD. Process improvementE. B and CPMgroup Planning

125 Que # 125Que When a product or service completely meets a customer's requirementsA. quality is achieved.

Motivate the employees with seminars, contests, and institution of programs such as "Quality Improvement" day

Create a quality control department and give the head of the department ultimate responsibility for quality improvement

Implement of a formal quality control program with worker and management involvement

B. cost of quality is high.C. cost of quality is low.D. the customer pays the minimum price.E. a and b.PMgroup Executing

126 Que # 126Que

A. DesignB. Design, development, and prototypeC. Design and prototypeD. Development, prototype, and fabricationE. None of the abovePMgroup Planning

127 Que # 127Que Cost of quality is a concept that includesA. the cost necessary for ensuring conformance to requirements.B. the life cycle cost of the project.C. all research and development costs related to the project.D. only the cost of the quality control functionE. a and b.PMgroup Controlling

128 Que # 128Que

A. management.B. assurance.C. process review.D. control.E. checks.PMgroup Controlling

129 Que # 129Que Quality control isA.

B.

C.

D.

E. assuring the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury.PMgroup Planning

130 Que # 130Que Quality planning isA.

B.

Using Pareto's Rule, and given the data in the following table, where should corrective action focus? Origin of problem % of problems Design

80 Development 2 Prototype 9 Testing 6 Fabrication 3

The process of determining that technical processes and procedures are being performed in conformance with scope requirements and quality plans is called quality

identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance.

evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality) standards.

taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the project customer.

identifying which quality standards are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

monitoring specific project results to determine if they comply with relevant quality standards and identifying ways to eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance.

C.

D.

E. assuring the production of goods that meet the highest standards of luxury.PMgroup Executing

131 Que # 131Que

A. a project completed in the shortest possible time.B. a product or service that conforms to the requirement specification.C. an award-winning product that brings public recognition to the project.D. an innovative project that establishes the qualifications of the project team.E. B and C.PMgroup Executing

132 Que # 132Que

A. increased inspectionB. Continuous improvementC. Quality circlesD. Statistical quality controlE. Use of worker suggestion systemsPMgroup Executing

133 Que # 133Que

A. quality control analysis.B. marginal analysis.C. standard quality analysis.D. conformance analysis.E. systems analysis.PMgroup Executing

134 Que # 134Que Which of the following best characterizes the results of an increase in quality*?A. increased productivity, increased cost-effectiveness, and decreased cost risk.B. Reduced productivity and no change to cost-effectiveness or cost risk.C. Reduced productivity and an increase in overall product or service cost.D. increased productivity and cost-effectiveness.E. increased productivity, decreased cost-effectiveness and increased cost risk.PMgroup Executing

135 Que # 135Que Which of the following statements regarding quality is false?A.

B. Future gains in quality will often rely on advanced technology.C.

D.

E. A and C.

evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards

taking action to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project so as to provide added benefits to both the performing organization and the project customer.

Quality management includes forming and directing a team of people to achieve a qualitative goal within an effective cost and time frame that results in

According to current quality management thinking, which of the following approaches to quality improvement is least likely to produce positive results ?

The concept that states "the optimal quality level is reached at the point where the incremental revenue from product improvement equals the incremental cost to secure it" comes from

Quality improvement depends upon better definition and increased awareness of the requirements specifications.

Recognition of key actions required of each team member is necessary to meet quality objectives.

Computer-aided design systems can improve quality, but only at the expense of an increase in the cost of design.


Que

A. increase it.B. Decrease it.C. No effect on it.D. First increase it, then decrease it.E. First decrease it, then increase it.PMgroup Executing

137 Que # 137Que

A. increase as well.B. remain the same.C. decrease.D. decrease initially then increase slightly.E. increase then tend to level offPMgroup Executing

138 Que # 138Que The primary driver(s) behind the demand for continual quality improvement is/are

A. an increase in the number of projects being worked.B.

C.

D.

E. b and d.PMgroup Planning

139 Que # 139Que The concept of quality is based onA. meeting luxury goods standards.B. producing excellent products that are superior to other similar items.C. conforming to the requirements specificationsD. maintaining uniformity of designE. a and c.PMgroup Executing

140 Que # 140Que An assignable variance tells usA. our equipment is becoming obsolete.B. top management should initiate increased worker training.C. there is an identifiable problem that must he fixed.D. schedule variances will be reduced.E. ours use of quality circles is inadequate.PMgroup Planning

141 Que # 141Que From a high level perspective, qualityA. is ensured by having inspectors.

You are sampling items from a batch and plotting the results on a control chart. How will an increase in the number of items in the sample affect the value of the standard deviation used to set the control limit?

If the level of conformance directly increases as a result of new processes. different resources, or changed methods. the required cost of monitoring is likely to

the government cost improvement reports that have created widespread public interest in quality.

the prevalence of media reports on quality!- circles and other quality improvement techniques

the need to both reduce costs and ensure consistency in the performance of products and services.

B. cannot be quantitatively measured.C. and productivity are inconsistent objectives.D. is primarily (85-95%) a management problem.E. problems are usually caused by unmotivated employees.PMgroup Controlling

142 Que # 142Que Which is not a commonly used quality management tool?A. Fishbone diagramB. CSSR reportC. Pareto chartD. Control chartE. None of the above (all are commonly used)PMgroup Executing

143 Que # 143Que Quality is often influenced by all of the following exceptA. fabrication processes and methods.B. supervision.C. inspectionD. cost of materials.E. design.PMgroup Planning

144 Que # 144Que

A. designB. conceptC. fabricationD. performanceE. costPMgroup Controlling

145 Que # 145Que

A. improving the overall system of productionB. increasing the number of quality inspectors.C. making use of run charts.D. making better use of Pareto charts.E. identifying patterns of variance using control charts.PMgroup Controlling

146 Que # 146Que

A. The project manager should apply the "rule of seven."B. There is no problem as long as the variances lie within the control band.C. Negative variance indicates a problem which should be remedied.D. These variances are most likely caused by random factors.E. increased worker ownership should be encouraged.PMgroup Executing

147 Que # 147Que The project management team's for quality should

The___ of a product or service most affects its reliability and maintenance characteristics.

Random variance in a process, as measured by the standard deviation. can be directly reduced by

A project manager notices that all the measurements recorded on a control chart lie within the control band range. However, most of the measurements are below the midpoint (negative variance). Quality management practice offers us what guidance in dealing with this situation?

A. extend beyond the completion of the project.B. stop at the point of delivery. .C. be significantly reduced by a good warranty..D. be ignored by the project manager.E. a and c.PMgroup Planning

148 Que # 148Que On a project, quality should generally be ofA. equal priority with cost and schedule.B. lower priority than cost and schedule.C. equal priority with cost, but higher priority than schedule.D. equal priority with schedule. but higher priority than cost.E. higher priority than cost and schedule.PMgroup Executing

149 Que # 149Que

A. When destructive testing is requiredB. When the cost of 100% inspection is high.C. When we believe there are not many defects.D. a, b, and c.E. a and b.PMgroup Planning

150 Que # 150Que

A. by planning it into the project.B. by developing careful mechanisms to inspect for qualityC. by developing prestigious products and processes.D. by striving to do the best job possible.E. by conducting quality circle activities.PMgroup Planning

151 Que # 151Que

A. manufacturing/buildingB. advertisingC. overheadD. post-completion supportE. a and dPMgroup Planning

152 Que # 152Que From the project perspective, quality attributesA. are used to determine how effectively the performing organization supports the projectB. can be objective or subjective in nature.C. are specific characteristics for which a product is designed, built. and testedD. b and c.E. a and b.PMgroup Executing

153 Que # 153Que From the project manager's viewpoint, quality assurance involvesA. conducting studies to determine if design methods will support quality requirements.

100% inspection for defects may be neither possible nor desirable. When is sampling for defects likely to be most useful?

A fundamental tenet of modern quality management holds that quality is most likely to be achieved

Poor quality in a design project is likely to directly affect ________________ costs.

B.

C. monitoring inspection activities to ensure that the work is performed as specified.D. a, b, and c.E. a and c.PMgroup Executing

154 Que # 154Que Just-in-time (JIT) is the concept of reducing inventories toA. 25% of former stock.B. Less than half of former stock.C. 75% of peak stock.D. zero stock.E. 15% of the cost of the product for a planned stock.PMgroup Executing

155 Que # 155Que Of the following statements, which one(s) is/are true?A.

B. Quality is 10% skill and 90% luck.C.

D. None of the above.E. a and c.PMgroup Controlling

156 Que # 156Que

A. twoB. threesC. fourD. fiveE. twelvePMgroup Controlling

157 Que # 157Que

A. control controlB. vertical bar chart.C. histograms.D. Pareto chant.E. run chant.PMgroup Executing

158 Que # 158Que

A. alwaysB. usuallyC. notD. seldomE. intermittentlyPMgroup Planning

159 Que # 159

identifying applicable laws, ordinances and regulations that the project must comply with.

Quality is the usual result when skilled designers and skilled implementors work on the project.

Quality can be achieved with the proper combination of personnel, materials, methods and time to do the work.

Some organizations today are using "six sigma", to set the upper and lower limits on control charts rather than the traditional sigmas, which are?

The quality management tool that can be described as "a diagram that ranks and displays defects in order of frequency of occurrence (from left to right)" is a

From the project manager's perspective, quality management is ______________ limited to assessing the attributes of the tools provided to do the work.

Que

A. senior management.B. procurement or purchasing.C. engineering.D. manufacturing.E. quality control.PMgroup Planning

160 Que # 160Que

A. Commitment to the projectB. Team member flexibilityC. Frequent turnover of personnelD. Team interest in workmanshipE. Clearly defined goalsPMgroup Planning

161 Que # 161Que Primary responsibility for quality management in the project rests with theA. project engineer.B. purchasing agent.C. quality manager.D. project manager.E. company president.PMgroup Planning

162 Que # 162Que The ISO 9000 series isA. a set of instructions for preparing control charts.B. a set of guidelines for quality.!C. a set of forms and procedures to ensure quality. .D. an international standard that describes a recommended quality system.E. intended to be applied only to manufactured products.PMgroup Initiating

163 Que # 163Que Unless evidence indicates otherwise, a process is assumed to beA. in control.B. out of control.C. working at full capacity.D. working at less than full capacity.E. operating within required engineering tolerances.PMgroup Executing

164 Que # 164Que

A. The ISO term for progress measurementB. Comparing planned project practices to those of other projects.C. A technique used to test certain types of electronic equipment.D. The difference between grade'' and quality.E. The measurement of customer satisfaction.PMgroup PlanningQue

The primary responsibility for establishing design and test specifications should rest with

Which of the following is least likely to contribute to developing an effective project team supportive of quality?

Which of the following statements best characterizes the quality management practice called benchmarking?

Quality management is defined as the process of ensuring that a project meets the ________ of the project's clients, participants, and shareholders.

165 Que # 165A. specifications and statements of workB. legal and financial obligationsC. expectations and desiresD. needs and expectationsE. legal and moral requirementsPMgroup Initiating

166 Que # 166Que The primary components of quality management are quality ________.A. inspections, certifications, and validationsB. philosophy, assurance, and controlC. form, fit, and functionD. reliability, maintainability, and availabilityE. insurance, assurance, and warrantyPMgroup Executing

167 Que # 167Que

A. time, scope, cost, and resourcesB. human resources, dollars, materials, and durationC. time, location, duration, and completionD. organization, design, objectives, and resourcesE. management, staff, workers, and contractorsPMgroup Controlling

168 Que # 168Que

A. inspect, certify, and verifyB. examine, analyze, and reportC. inspect, examine, and determineD. identify, measure, and reportE. reveal, establish, and recordPMgroup Executing

169 Que # 169Que

A. corporate presidentB. director of project managementC. quality assurance managerD. project managerE. individualPMgroup Executing

170 Que # 170Que

A. immediate feedback to permit adjustments to the processB. early identification of errors prior to further integrationC. minimization of end product repairs and material wasteD. reduction in the number of end product inspections and tests

Quality assurance is defined as the managerial process that determines ________ that provide the customers with performance standards and feedback on the performance.

Quality control is the technical processes that ________ the project's progress against the performance standards.

Responsibility within the project for quality must be defined and promulgated to everyone contributing to the end product. First and foremost, the ________ has the ultimate responsibility for conformance to requirements when provided with the tools, skills, knowledge, and opportunities.

Self-inspection by the individual performing the work is used to achieve quality in a product. The advantages of self-inspection include ________.

E. all of the abovePMgroup Controlling

171 Que # 171Que

A. slogan; whenever possibleB. slogan; most of the timeC. standard; at all timesD. standard; whenever possibleE. standard; during critical operationsPMgroup Controlling

172 Que # 172Que

A. 100 percent inspection and random rejectionB. acceptance sampling and automatic rejectionC. continuous sampling and error detection methodsD. random sampling and corrective proceduresE. statistical sampling and control proceduresPMgroup Controlling

173 Que # 173Que

A. is a method of rejecting errors or variances from standards following self-inspectionB.

C.

D.

E. compares the error rate of individuals to determine the compensation for bonusesPMgroup Executing

174 Que # 174Que

A. does not require an expenditure of resourcesB. is accurate enough with a sampling of less than one percentC.

D.

E. is a good tool to gain customer confidence during a period of high rejectsPMgroup Controlling

175 Que # 175Que

A. sixB. fiveC. fourD. three

Zero Defects is an element of the quality management philosophy that is a ________ for all workers to be achieved ________.

Statistical Process Control is used in quality programs to determine whether repetitive operations meet predictable standards. The process uses ________ to permit accurate monitoring of the operation.

Statistical Decision Making includes Pareto Analysis as a means of reducing errors in the total project process. Pareto Analysis ________.

is a procedure for ranking the errors to identify those contributing the most to failures [PMBOK p. B-2]

counts errors or failures to determine the added cost of all operations that do not meet the requirements

compares the error rate with the pass rate to determine the allowable number of errors per 1,000

Statistical sampling is a method to determine the conformance to requirement for some element or product of a project. The advantage of statistical sampling is that it ________.

does not require 100 percent sampling of the elements to achieve a satisfactory inference of the population

needs to be conducted only when there is a problem discovered with the end product or when the customer has some rejects

Statistical Process Control uses diagrams called "Control Charts." These charts depict horizontal, parallel lines to represent ________ standard deviations.

E. twoPMgroup Controlling

176 Que # 176Que

A. random sample; cross-matrix sampleB. real sample; simulated sampleC. 100 percent sampling; 10 percent samplingD. sampling run; average of several runsE. random sampling; continuous samplingPMgroup Executing

177 Que # 177Que

A. 85B. 75C. 65D. 55E. 50PMgroup Executing

178 Que # 178Que

A.

B. purchased materials will never meet the requirements of the projectC. services are amenable to statistical sampling even for small lotsD. it looks good to the customer when there is a mathematical approach to qualityE. statistics provide a basis for customer acceptance of the projectsPMgroup Planning

179 Que # 179Que

A. early detectionB. early correctionC. late detectionD. late correctionE. preventionPMgroup Planning

180 Que # 180Que

A. producing a product that meets the requirementB. nonconformance to the requiremenTC. any cost for quality personnel and toolsD. any extra cost to hire a quality consultantE. all extra efforts to implement a quality programPMgroup Planning

181 Que # 181

When data is plotted on the control charts, the data is of two types R and X-bar. The R data represent points of a ________ while the X-bar data represent points of a(n) ________.

The cost of quality has been argued as being primarily driven by the workers. When items were produced that did not meet the customers' expectations, the workers were "found" to be at fault. Current thinking is that management has at least ________ percent of the responsibility for the cost of quality.

Statistical sampling methods are valid for most projects, regardless of the lack of repetitive processes, because ________.

projects rely on external vendors for products that must meet contractual specifications to conform to the requirements

A quality program within a project should be based on ________ of errors to improve productivity along with quality levels.

The cost of quality is needed to identify opportunities for improvement. The cost of quality is, therefore, defined as the dollar value associated with ________.

Que

A. first as the prime driver for a projectB. second behind cost but ahead of scheduleC. second behind schedule but ahead of costD. equal to cost and scheduleE. third behind cost and schedulePMgroup Executing

182 Que # 182Que

A. identify the specific errorB. correct the specific errorC. determine the root cause of the errorD. correct the root cause of the errorE. all of the abovePMgroup Controlling

183 Que # 183Que

A. identify all the faulty work that has been completedB. identify all the work that has been correctly accomplishedC. determine the single most urgent area for improvementD. determine the quality baseline from which improvements will be madeE. evaluate the quality audit's effectiveness in identifying errorsPMgroup Executing

184 Que # 184Que

A. avoid commitment to correction on an "out of warranty" itemB. talk to them until they see the reason the complaints are trivialC.

D. provide them with the full scope of the contracted product or serviceE.


Que

A. direct, indirect, and overheadB. one-time, recurring, and variableC. variable, fixed, and semi-fixedD. prevention, appraisal, and failureE. build, repair, and testPMgroup Planning

186 Que # 186Que

In a project, the common parameters are cost, schedule, and quality. In relationship to the others, quality should be ranked ________.

When errors that affect quality are discovered, the procedure to improve the situation should be to ________.

A quality audit is a powerful tool in any quality improvement program. For a project that is starting a quality improvement program, the initial audit is used to ________.

Customers are the driving force in any project and determine the requirements to be met. In dealing with customers' complaints, it is important to ________.

give them something more than they contracted to receive to suppress any feelings of dissatisfaction

realize that customers ask for too much and to change their perceptions about the product or service requirements

In computing the cost of producing a quality product, the major areas of costs contribute to the sale price of the product. The ratio of the ________ costs determine whether an effective quality program is fully implemented.

The 14-step process to quality improvement is a progressive approach to total involvement of everyone in a company toward the production of quality products and services. The 14-steps do not include ________.

A. management commitmentB. quality improvement teamC. quality measurementD. goal achievement measuresE. supervisor trainingPMgroup Controlling

187 Que # 187Que

A. visibly reinforcing the growth of quality improvements to the workersB. reflecting the precise status of quality failuresC. identifying to customers the failure rates of productsD. setting standards and goals for acceptable levels of qualityE. showing that all goals have been achievedPMgroup Planning

188 Que # 188Que

A. do not apply to the service, but the criterion is pass or failB. are always artificial and present only false indications of progressC.

D. are not applicable if the service is to an internal function of the projectE. relate only to the actual expenditures of funds or receipt or revenuesPMgroup Executing

189 Que # 189Que

A. an annual bonus increase paid at the end of the yearB. an immediate cash award that is commensurate with the deedC. a nonmonetary award presented in a public forum as soon as the deed is identifiedD. a nonmonetary award presented in privateE. a combination of monetary and nonmonetary award presented in privatePMgroup Planning

190 Que # 190Que

A. materials; inferior fabricationB. standards; gold platingC. practices; poor workmanshipD. pricing; gougingE. warranty; poor service after product salePMgroup Planning

191 Que # 191Que

Trend charts reflect the relative status of a program. Trend charts are effective means of ________.

In many projects, the end product is a "service" that does not have physical characteristics and attributes to be measured to ensure conformance to the requirement. When service is the end product of a project, measurements ________.

can be established based on customer expectations and the responsibility assigned to individuals

Recognition of personnel achievements is an important building block to the attainment of a superior quality program. The form of recognition should be ________.

Quality in a project's product is essential for the enhancement of the project manager and the selling organization. To ensure that the customer perceives a quality product, the project manager must inform the customer of the ________ to be used so the customer will not have a perception of ________.

As one of its goals the project organization has quality to specified performance measures. When compared with the functional organization, the project organization ________.

A. achieves higher levels of qualityB. is always tailored to meet the specific quality goalsC. is less disciplined in the implementation of qualityD. is more disciplined in the implementation of qualityE. none of the abovePMgroup Controlling

192 Que # 192Que

A. defines requirements and performance standardsB. measures results of operationsC. compares measured results to performance standardsD. initiates corrective actions for variancesE. all of the abovePMgroup Controlling

193 Que # 193Que

A. visual and nonvisual; processes and componentsB. visual and aural; processes and materialsC. visual and technical; materials and end productsD. aural and tactile; materials and end productsE. aural and tactile; processes and proceduresPMgroup Controlling

194 Que # 194Que

A. operator, maintainer, and environmentalB. stress, destructive, and operatingC. in-house, public, and privateD. laboratory, destructive, and nondestructiveE. laboratory, fabrication, and productPMgroup Planning

195 Que # 195Que

A. the required processes and proceduresB. the inspection planC. the types of test to be conductedD. the documentation requirements for actions (testing, inspections, etc.)E. all of the abovePMgroup Executing

196 Que # 196Que

A. there is never enough information collectedB. the system is incapable of processing all the required information

The technical performance of the project is derived from the quality program instituted by the project manager. Quality control is one part of the quality program that ________.

Quality control includes inspection to ensure that standards of performance are being met. Inspection includes ________ examination of ________.

Quality control methods extend beyond the external characteristics of the product or components of the product. The types of testing of the product or components include ________.

Each project needs a quality program plan to define the parameters of the overall approach to meeting quality requirements. As a minimum, the quality program plan addresses ________.

In a quality management information system, there is a need to collect data and format such data into an information output that is useful to the project manager. In developing such an information system, it is good to remember that an optimum system doesn't supply all the information because ________.

C. some information costs more to collect than it is worthD. some information is not available for collection and inputE. most information relies on related data to generate thE proper outputPMgroup Executing

197 Que # 197Que

A. excellenceB. superior qualityC. deviation plus qualityD. gold platingE. silver platingPMgroup Planning

198 Que # 198Que

A. directions, elasticitiesB. volumes, distancesC. speeds (velocities), volumesD. distances, speeds (velocities)E. lengths, widthsPMgroup Controlling

199 Que # 199Que

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.


Que

A.

B.

C. it leads to increased customer requirements for other parts of the system

Quality is one part of the three major parameters of a project. When the quality in a project exceeds the specifications, that is called ________.

In the quality area, process control is becoming an important element of the manufacturing to rigorous specifications to provide a consistently uniform output. The control of a process is divided into controlling temperatures, pressures, flows, ________ , and levels in terms of rates and time.

Process control is distinct and separate from the data gathering function in a quality program. While process control regulates the functions, data gathering is used to ________.

collect information on the relative performance standards of the process so the output can be enhanced through continuous adjustments to the input functions

validate the controlling function as performing correctly and provide information on equipment servicing intervals

provide the historical records for production lots as to the specifications and actual measurements of a product

generate the control charts to determine the variances in the product and the number of nonconforming products

ensure the products are within tolerances and to identify those products that require reworking or scrapping

In the area of quality, project managers are struggling with the training and indoctrination of individuals in the need to do the work right the first time to conform to the requirement. Occasionally, the project manager will discover an individual, either in the planning or actual work, doing more than is called for in the specification. These individuals need training to reduce the level of "over building" because ________.

the extra value given to the customer is not recognized or needed to complete the project

the increases to the system specifications place that portion out of balance with the other system components

D.

E.


Que

A. a significant reduction in engineering errorsB. less rework required because of design errorsC. improved updating of designs over the former manual methodsD. more timely posting of changes to designsE. all of the abovePMgroup Executing

202 Que # 202Que

A. examining the vendor's quality proceduresB. examining surfacesC. testing personnel skillsD. checking dimensionsE. witnessing destructive and nondestructive testsPMgroup Executing

203 Que # 203Que

A. facilities and shop spaceB. experience and capability with similar workC. quality assurance and control proceduresD. organization and quality of work in processE. all of the abovePMgroup Executing

204 Que # 204Que

exceeding the specified requirement is wasting time and money at no value added to the project

the project must be reworked in other areas to increase the level of "goodness" to the same as the "over build"

The use of CAD (computer-aided design) is emerging as a new technology with the goal of reducing the time and money spent to produce and update design drawings. In some cases, the CAD is being used to control other computers and machines to manufacture basic components of equipment. Because the CAD software has the capability to perform checks of the design and make changes to designs as they are approved, there has been ________.

The key to quality is to design and build to the requirements and avoid attempts to inspect quality into the product. There is a need, however, to conduct inspections at critical junctures in the assembly process to ensure defective items are identified prior to making a costly interface or concealing a physical attribute that cannot be inspected at a later time. An inspection plan will identify the points at which examinations of processes, materials, or assemblies are required. However, inspection plans normally do not include ________.

The inspection of the project throughout the implementation phase is critical to ensure that quality standards are being met. The use of vendors is most often required to obtain critical materials, components, or subassemblies. To determine a vendor's capabilities to produce a product to the specifications, a "shop survey" or audit of the vendor may be required. The areas for the audit should include ________.

The quality program may include the requirement for "witnessed inspections" of critical items for the project. When a subcontractor or vendor is to conduct a destructive test, the project manager must ensure the test is validated (witnessed) by a qualified member of his/her team. The purchase order or contract should contain a statement that requires the subcontractor or vendor performing the test to ________.

A.

B. notify the project manager, in writing, of the date and time for witnessing the testC.

D.

E.

PMgroup ControllingQue Inputs to quality control are all of the following EXCEPT

378 Que # 378A. Work resultsB. Quality management planC. Operational definitionD. ChecklistsE. Process adjustmentsPMgroup PlanningQue One of the fundamental tenets of quality management is that quality

379 Que # 379A. Exceeds client expectationsB. Does not costC. Is planned in, not inspected inD. Is assured through careful planningE. Requires constant monitoringPMgroup ExecutingQue Standards for products and services are critical to the process of satisfying

380 Que # 380A. Customer requirementsB. The scope statementC. Upper managementD. Functional requirementsE. SpecificationsPMgroup ExecutingQue

381 Que # 381A. Less reworkB. higher productivityC. Lower costsD. Stakeholder staisfactionE. Fewer change ordersPMgroup PlanningQue In the quality management discipline, benefits ____________ costs.

382 Que # 382A. EqualB. OutweighC. Are less thanD. Cannot be evaluated in relation toE. Are substantiated byPMgroup PlanningQue "Design of experiements" is an analytical technique that helps

give a 30-day notice of when the test will be conducted and to provide a certificate of completion within seven days following the test

retain the residue of the item destroyed for a period of one year following completion of the project

have present at the test at least three independent sources (individuals) who are qualified in destructive testing procedures

report the results of the testing to an independent laboratory for confirmation and validation of the procedures

All of the following are primary benefit(s) of meeting quality requirements EXCEPT

383 Que # 383A. Determine how various elements of a system interrelateB. Anticipate what and where quality problems might occurC. Identify which variables have the most influence on the overall outcomeD. Establish a standard by which to measure performanceE. Compare actual or planned project practices to those of other projectsPMgroup PlanningQue

384 Que # 384A. The overall project planB. The WBSC. The project scopeD. External stakeholdersrE. Standards and GuidelinesPMgroup ExecutingQue Project quality assurance

385 Que # 385A. Includes policing the conformance of thr project team to specificationsB.

C.

D. Provides confidence that the project will satisfy relevant quality standardsE. Reduces the probability of project completion on schedulePMgroup ExecutingQue What does "cost of quality" mean?

386 Que # 386A. The sacrifice of unessential project objectives to meet essential quality standardsB. The life-cycle cost of the projectC. The cost of ensuring conformance to requirementsD. The cost of meeting project objectivesE. The budgeted allowance for Quality Management ActivitiesPMgroup ControllingQue

387 Que # 387A. Pareto diagramB. Bar chartC. Network diagramD. Critical pathE. Pie chartPMgroup PlanningQue Quality standards and criteria should be defined in the ____________ phase.

388 Que # 388A. ConceptualB. PlanningC. ImplementationD. Risk identificationE. Communication planningPMgroup PlanningQue Major cost categories of quality include all of the following EXCEPT

The quality management plan provides input to ___________ and addresses quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement.

Provides the project team and stakeholders with standards, by which the project performance is measured

Is a managerial process that defines the organization, design, resources, and objectives of quality management

The diagram that ranks defects in teh order of frequency of occurrence using a Histogram to depict 100% of the defects is called a

389 Que # 389A. AppraisalB. PreventionC. External failureD. Measurement and test equipmentE. Computer operationsPMgroup PlanningQue

390 Que # 390A. The performing organizationB. The project management teamC. Executive managementD. The projectE. Overhead costsPMgroup ControllingQue Staistical quality control tools include all of the following EXCEPT

391 Que # 391A. FlowchartingB. Pareto diagramsC. Contol chartsD. Estimates of control tendencyE. Trend analysisPMgroup ExecutingQue

392 Que # 392A. SatisfactionB. CapabilityC. ImprovementD. PerformanceE. All of the abovePMgroup ExecutingQue

393 Que # 393A. PlanningB. ControlC. AssuranceD. ImprovementE. BenchmarkingPMgroup Initiating

501 Que # 501Que The primary purpose of ISO 9000 is toA. Establish a basic set of quality system standardsB.

C. Provide a basis for the quality policy of an organizationD.

E. Provide for leading-edge quality

Investment in defect prevention and appraisal (product quality improvement) must often be borne by

The use of quality management tools is essential to provide the greatest degree of

Quality ______________ is evaluating overall project performance on a regular basis to provide confidence that the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

Identify the quality standards that are relevant to a project and determine how to meet them

Plan and implement activities to ensure that a project will satisfy relevant quality standards

PMgroup InitiatingQue

502 Que # 502A. Beneficial because we all learn from our mistakesB. InevitableC. More a result of management than of the person performing the jobD. Unlikely if a sufficitne number of inspectors is used in the processE. More costly than the sophisticated design owrk required to prevent itPMgroup ExecutingQue Rework is

503 Que # 503A. An input to the quality control processB. An output of the quality assurance processC. Action taken to bring a nonconforming item into complianceD. An adjustment made that is based on quality control measurementsE. All of the abovePMgroup ExecutingQue The quality function deployment process is used to

504 Que # 504A. Provide better product definition and product developmentB. Help products succeed in the marketplaceC. Establish a customer complaint and feedback systemD. Help identify processes underway in other organizations that should be emulatedE. Support production planning and the just-in-time approachPMgroup ExecutingQue

505 Que # 505A. Pareto chartB. Cause-and-effect diagramC. Control chartD. PERT chartE. Scatter diagramPMgroup PlanningQue The principal objective of project quality management is

506 Que # 506A. Quality assurance using quality circlesB. Quality control through design inspectionsC. Meeting the requirements of ISO 9000D. Satisfying the needs of the projectE. Educating employees about the importance of qualityPMgroup ExecutingQue The purpose of the Taguchi method is to

507 Que # 507A. Manage the flow of material for better visibility and controlB.

C.

Traditional thinking (before Crosby, Juran, Deming, and others) on quality performance standards held that error is

Kaoru Ishikawa led the Japanese Union of Scientists and Engineers in its efforts to introduce methods for quality control. In simplifying techniques so workers could understand and apply them, he concentrated on seven tools. Which item is NOT one of the seven tools he popularized?

Manage resources, requirements, and production so that the right material arrives at the rightplace at the right time, ready for use

Use statistical techniques to compute a "loss function" to determine the cost of producing products that fail to achieve a target value

D.

E. Regulate coordination and communication among process stagesPMgroup ExecutingQue Which term describes a type of quality audit?

508 Que # 508A. InternalB. ExternalC. BaselineD. SystemE. All of the abovePMgroup ExecutingQue Commonly used root-cuase analysis techniques in quality management are

509 Que # 509A. Cause-and-effect diagramsB. Fishbone diagramsC. Ishikawa diagramsD. System or proecess flowchartsE. All of the abovePMgroup ExecutingQue The two components of product availability are

510 Que # 510A. Usability and maintainabilityB. Producibility and maintainabilityC. Usability and reliabilityD. Reliability and maintainabilityE. Operability and usabilityPMgroup ExecutingQue

511 Que # 511A. Documented and well-disseminated statements of purpose and visionB. A set of goals and objectives linked to the purpose and visionC. A set of strategic and tactical plansD.

E. A quality assurance and control department reporting to senior managementPMgroup PlanningQue Quality and grade are

512 Que # 512A.

B.

C. Concepts signifying similar characeristics, such as low quality and low gradeD. Concepts used as part of a total quality management programE.


Design, group, and manage production operations as self-contained flexible cells capable ofstart-to-finish processing of a family of items

Constancy of purpose is a core concept for contuous improvement. An organization displaying consistency of purpose must have all the following elements except

An awareness by all members of the organization of the purpose, vision, goals, and objectives and their roles in achieving them

Similar concepts showing the characteristics of an entity that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs

Different concepts because grade pertains to entities with the same functional use but different quality requirements

Not applicable to project quality management because they are oriented toward the manufacturing environment

Opportunities for improvement are identified by measuring quality, which is defined as the monetary value associated with

513 Que # 513A. Producing a product that meets the requirementsB. Nonconformance to the requirementC. Any cost for quality personnel and toolsD. Any extra cost to hire quality assurance personnelE. All extra efforts to implement a quality programPMgroup PlanningQue The difference between the quality plan and the quality system is that the quality

514 Que # 514A. Plan is prepared for individual products, project, services, or contractsB. System is prepared for individual products, projects, services, or contractsC. System describes quality assurance project-by-projectD.

E. Plan is not part of the management information system of the organizationPMgroup ExecutingQue

515 Que # 515A. Standard deviation and varianceB. Special causes and random causesC. Tolerances and control limitsD. Attribute sampling and variable sampliingE. All of the abovePMgroup ExecutingQue The primary purpose of benchmarking is to

516 Que # 516A. Conduct industrial espionageB. Perform marketing research to forecast how well a particular product will sellC. Measure products, services, and processes against those of other organizationsD.

E. Determine performance targetsPMgroup PlanningQue

517 Que # 517A. Quality is designed into the product or services, not inspected into it.B. Quality is the concern of middle management and the quality superivisorC.

D.

E. Audits of quality assurance systems have been developedPMgroup PlanningQue

518 Que # 518A. Completed checklistsB. Process adjustments

System is used by a single organizational entity, generally the quality assurance department

In terms of statistical process control, the project team should know the differences between

Understand and collect data on customer requirements to focus attention on meeting customer needs

Project quality management was once thought to include only inspection or quality control. In recent years, the concept of project quality management has broadened. Which statement is not representative of the new definition of quality management?

Customers require a documented and, in some cases, registered quality assurance system

National and international standards and guidelines for quality assurance systems are available

Which of the following is the primary objective of establishing a quality assurance process?

C. Quality improvementD. The Quality Management PlanE. Quality control measurementsPMgroup PlanningQue

519 Que # 519A. First, as the prime driver for a projectB. Second, behind cost but ahead of scheduleC. Second, behind schedule but ahead of costD. Equal to cost and scheduleE. Third, behind cost and schedulePMgroup PlanningQue

520 Que # 520A. Provides incentives to vendors to make quality commitmentsB. Provides incentives to vendors to reduce pricesC. Permits better planningD. Reduces buyer-related costsE. All of the abovePMgroup ExecutingQue The primary feature of a quality audit is that it

521 Que # 521A. Helps an organization attain formal certification of its quality management programB. Provides objective evidence about quality system performanceC. Provides opportunities to identify needed personnel improvementsD. Provides objective evidence about nonconformanceE. Helps to meet regulatory requirementsPMgroup PlanningQue In quality planning, who should inform stakeholders of the quality policy?

522 Que # 522A. Head of the organizationB. Project managerC. Project teamD. Functional managersE. Project contol officerPMgroup ExecutingQue

523 Que # 523A. Management reviewsB. Peer reviewsC. Competency center reviewsD. Fitness reviews and auditsE. All of the abovePMgroup PlanningQue The increasing emphasis on project quality management can be attributed to the

524 Que # 524

Three important parameters of a project are cost, schedule, and quality. In relationship to the others, quality should be ranked

Long-term contracting is an important aspect of project quality management because it

The project manager should conduct reviews and audits to monitor and direct the quality level of the work. Key reviews and audits that help support the development of a quality project team are

A.

B. Importance and prestige of obtaining ISO 9000 certificationC. Power of top management as a stakeholder in the processD. Power of customers as stakeholders in the processE. Need to meet government requirements placed on organizationsPMgroup ExecutingQue

525 Que # 525A. The project managerB. Top managementC. Employees participating in quality circlesD. StakeholdersE. CustomersPMgroup ExecutingQue

526 Que # 526A. CustomerB. Project managerC. Senior managementD. Vendors and suppliersE. Project teamPMgroup ExecutingQue Quality assurance consists of the

527 Que # 527A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

PMgroup PlanningQue A failure-mode effects and criticality analysis is used to

528 Que # 528A.

B.

C. Detect and analyze failure-mode problems in manufacturingD.

E. Help management set priorities in its existing manufacturing processes to avoid failuresPMgroup PlanningQue Design of experiements is a technique used in quality planning to

Formation of quality circles by employees dissatisfied with their company's quality practices

The continuous improvement process provides a way for an organization to create and sustain a culture of continuous improvement. As such, it should be directed by

The quality team for the project consists of several groups. Which of the following project participants plays the most important role in the quality function?

Acivities in the quality system designed to provide confidence that the project will satisfy relevant quality standards

Actions taken to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of the project to provide added benefits to the project stakeholders

Methods to monitor project results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards

Identification of the quality standards that are relevant to the project and determination of ways to satisfy them

Processes needed to ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken

Analyze the product development cycle after product release to determine strengths and weakenesses

Evaluate failure modes and causes associated with the design and manufacture of an existing product

Evaluate failure modes and causes associated with the design and manufacture of an new product

529 Que # 529A. Identify which variables have the most influence on overall outcomesB. Provide a comparison between project quality management practicesC. Show how variious elements of a system relateD. Identify where less rework will be requiredE. All of the abovePMgroup ExecutingQue The Kanban technique is an approach that supports the

530 Que # 530A. Taguchi methodB. Just-in-time conceptC. Use of control chartsD. Development of Pareto diagramsE. Development of Ishikawa or fishbone diagramsPMgroup ExecutingQue In attribute sampling the

531 Que # 531A. Result does or does not conformB. Reesult is rated on a continuous scale that measures the degree of conformityC. Emphasis is on normal process variationD. Emphasis is on determining whether a result falls within specific control limitsE. Emphasis is on unusual or special causesPMgroup PlanningQue The ISO 9000 standards provide

532 Que # 532A. A description of how products should be producedB. Specifics for the implementation of quality systemsC. A framework for quality systemsD. The maximum process requirements necessary to ensure customers a good productE. A list of all the activities that must be performed during the production of a productPMgroup ExecutingQue Kaizen is an approach to continuous improvement that emphasizes

533 Que # 533A. Customer satisfaction over costB. Major advancesC. Zero defectsD. Incremental inmprovementE. Use of quality circlesPMgroup PlanningQue The quality management plan describes all the following except the

534 Que # 534A.

B. Method for implementing the quality policyC. Project quality systemD. Quality control, quality assurance, and quality improvement plans for the projectE. Procedures used to conduct trade-off analyses among cost, schedule, and qualityPMgroup PlanningQue ISO 9000 registration is granted to

535 Que # 535A. Specific products produced by an organizationB. Specific projects underway in an organization

Organizational structure, responsibilities, procedures, processes, and resources needed to implement project quality management

C. An organization as a wholeD. Services provided by an organizationE. Specific procedures in an organizationPMgroup ControllingQue A Pareto diagram is used to

536 Que # 536A. Show how many results were generated, by type or category of identified causeB. Forecast future outcomes based on historical resultsC. Show the trade-offs between benefits and costsD. Show which variables have the most influence on the overall outcomeE.

PMgroup ControllingQue The "rule of seven" as applied to statistical process control charts means that

537 Que # 537A. Seven rejects typically occur per thousand inspectionsB. Seven consecutive points are ascending, descending, or the sameC. At least seven inspectors should be in place for every thousand employeesD. The quality control group should measure the process at least seven times to validate itE.


538 Que # 538A. Does not require an expenditure of resourcesB. Is accurate enough with a sampling of less than 1%C.

D.

E. Is a good tool to gain customer confidence during a period of high rejectsPMgroup ControllingQue The statistical control chart is a tool used primarily to help

539 Que # 539A. Monitor process variation over timeB. Measure the degree of conformityC. Determine whether results conformD. Analyze how problems occurE. Determine whether results conform to requirementsPMgroup PlanningQue

540 Que # 540A. Customer satisfactionB. Prevention over inspectionC. Management responsibilityD. Processes within phasesE. All of the above

603 Que # 603PMgroup Controlling

Show how various causes and subcauses combine to create potential problems or effects

A process is not out of control even though seven measurements fall outside the lower and upper control limits

Statistical sampling is a method to determine the conformance to requirements for some element or product of a project. Its greatest advantage is that it

Does not require 100% inspection of the elements to achieve a satisfactory inference of the population

Needs to be conducted only when a problem is discovered with the end-product or when the customer has some rejects.

Modern quality management and modern project management are aligned with regard to

Que

A. Quality controlB. Quality assuranceC. Quality planningD. Quality AuditE.


A. PERT analysisB. Sensitivity analysisC. Pareto diagramD. FlowchartingE.

ANSWERS

100 C101 D102 D103 E104 B105 E106 E107 C108 A109 D110 B111 B112 D113 E114 B115 E116 C117 B118 A119 C120 C121 C122 B123 D124 E125 A126 A127 A128 D129 B130 A131 B132 A

A poured concrete footing has been tested to determine the compliance with applicable requirements. This is an example of

The number of defects has become unacceptable. What process should the project manager use to identify the cause?

133 B134 A135 B136 B137 C138 E139 C140 C141 D142 E143 C144 A145 E146 A147 A148 A149 E150 A151 E152 D153 E154 D155 E156 B157 D158 C159 E160 C161 D162 D163 A164 B165 D166 B167 D168 B169 E170 E171 C172 E173 B174 C175 D176 D177 A178 A179 E180 B181 D182 E183 D184 D

185 D186 D187 A188 C189 C190 B191 C192 E193 C194 D195 E196 C197 D198 D199 B200 D201 E202 C203 E204 B378 E379 C380 A381 E382 B383 C384 A385 D386 C387 A388 B389 E390 A391 D392 A393 C501 A502 B503 C504 A505 D506 D507 C508 E509 E510 D511 E512 B513 B514 A515 E516 C

517 B518 C519 D520 E521 D522 C523 E524 D525 B526 A527 A528 D529 A530 B531 A532 C533 D534 E535 C536 A537 B538 C539 A540 E603 A605 D

PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT


Que

A. Schedule estimate at completionB. Cost estimate at completionC. Cost Performance IndexD. Schedule Performance IndexE. both a and b


Que All work packages are completeA. at EAC timeB. when BAC is equal to EACC. when BCWP intersects BCWSD. when schedule variance is zeroE. c and d


Que Earned value isA. the base line planB. completed work valueC. cost/cost varianceD. percent over or under budgetE. a and b


Que

A. New Year's DayB. St. Patrick's DayC. EasterD. Mother's DayE. the 4th of July


Que

A. our productivity was less than plannedB. our cost estimate at completion is 6C. our CPI and SPI are both positiveD. our cost variance is negative

The relationship between the budgeted actual cost, actual work completed and work planned will determine the

You could tell Diane was worried about her project. Her folks had been working on the project since Independence Day. Here it was already Halloween and they were just finishing up work that was supposed to have been completed by Labor Day. "Oh dear", she confided to her friend, "Instead of completing by Christmas, at this rate I expect we won't be done until

Diane was so concerned about her project that she woke up dreaming about it. She thought to herself, "Well, our BCWP is 2, our ACWP is 4 and our BCWS is 6, so that means

E. a, c and d


Que

A. Cost varianceB. Percent over or underC. Schedule varianceD. CPIE. this is not a valid measurement


Que Rework costs ____ times budgeted costs.A. +75, -25B. +25, -10C. 85D. 10 to 15E. 25 to 50


Que

A. estimated project payoutB. return on investmentC. net present valueD. discounted cash flowE. internal rate of return


Que If the ACWP exceeds the BCWP, the cost estimate at completion willA. increaseB. decreaseC. depend on the BCWSD. exceed the schedule estimate at completionE. a and d


Que

A. $2,000,000 B. $4,000,000 C. $6,000,000 D. $8,000,000 E. Cannot be determined without the EAC


The measurement which best shows the difference between actual work and actual costs is

If part of a project's costs will be paid in future years, the best way to determine the value of those costs in today's dollars is

If the BCWS = $1,000,000, the BAC = $2,000,000, the ACWP = $1,500,000, the BCWP = $500,000 and you're halfway through the project after two years, what is the cost estimate at completion?

Que

A. rough order of magnitude, guestimate, and actualB. traditional, classical, and contemporaryC. order of magnitude, budget, and definitiveD. concept, budget, and designE. engineering, quoted, and definitive


Que

A. engineeringB. budgetC. conceptD. definitiveE. contingency


Que

A. budgetB. definitiveC. parametricD. analogyE. contingency


Que

A. project; budget overrun allowanceB. engineering; management allowanceC. management; contingency allowanceD. management; mismanagement allowanceE. planned; unplanned work allowance


Que

A. human resource skillsB. depreciation costsC. prospective projects managersD. implementation of cost controlsE. availability of cost accounting methods

Cost management requires a critical look at future expenditures and the controls exercised over those expenditures. The three types of cost estimates through which project expenditures are made are ________.

The cost estimate with the most precise estimate (i.e., the smallest range of error) is the ________ estimate.

The cost estimate that has a range for error of minus 10 percent to plus 25 percent is the ________ estimate.

There are usually two types of reserves in a project's budget. The ________ reserve is for cost variances from the plan because of inaccurate estimates or pricing and costs overruns, while the ________ is to accommodate costs for project work that were not included in the plan through error or oversight.

Feasibility studies are evaluations of both the technical and economic aspects of a potential project. In the economic area, one would look at such items as interest rates, present worth factors, capitalization costs, and ________.


Que

A. borrowing money from a bankB. selling stocks in the project or corporationC. selling bonds on the projectD. selling lottery tickets on the projectE. leasing or renting existing property to another


Que

A. purchase, repair, and operationB. development, procurement, and operation/maintenanceC. procurement, lease, and disposalD. procurement, operation, and disposalE. operation, maintenance, and storage


Que

A. there are fewer costs at project initiation until the work force is fully staffedB.

C.

D.

E.


Que

A. project management planB. budgetC. responsibility matrixD. configuration management planE. work breakdown structure

PMgroup Planning

Project financing can be extremely complex and can come from a variety of sources. However, ________ is not a potential source of financing for a project.

Life cycle costing is a concept whereby all costs for a system are computed to determine the total cost of ownership. Life cycle cost categories include ________.

The integration of cost and schedule to provide measures of the project's performance is the earned value system, or contract performance measurement. The baseline for the earned value system is depicted as a slight "S" curve because ________.

there are workers who have not been paid, so the expense is not shown on the chart

there are more expenses to get a project started than are required on a normal operating basis

this is just a traditional method of plotting the costs and has no relationship to the actual expenditures

this approximation has proven to be nearly correct when all costs and expenditures have been accounted for at project completion

The pricing of a project can be extremely complex in the development of valid cost estimates and price quotes from vendors. The tool that facilitates the pricing of a project by a structured decomposition of the total into individual elements of labor, material, and equipment is the ________.

119 Que # 119Que

A. customerB. historical recordsC. senior engineersD. top managementE. independent consultants


Que

A. work package cost/priceB. work breakdown structure elementC. cost correlation matrixD. computer coded bar chartE. code of accounts


Que

A. a change in contract scopeB. delays in scheduleC. lack of work force experienceD. integration uncertainty for project elementsE. contractor claims for out-of-scope work


Que

A. retained at the remaining dollar levelB. increased to meet unidentified surprisesC. decreased to reduce the accounting workD. spent to ensure there is no extra money shown in the budgetE. reduced to a percentage of the remaining work


Que

A. increased by the amount of added workB. unchanged because the contract is in placeC. decreased because the work has not been started

In estimating the cost of work, the best source of cost information can be obtained from the ________.

Setting up a cost control system requires matching the work packages to the cost accounting system. The direct mapping of the work packages to the accounting is accomplished by establishing a ________.

Cost overruns on a project have major impacts on the profitability of operations, but ________ do(es) not necessarily contribute to cost overruns of a project budget.

Suppose the contingency allowance established to cover unforeseen activities of a project has been set at eight percent of the total project cost. The total dollars in the contingency allowance should be ________ as the project nears completion.

Suppose a contract has been in force for six months and the work is progressing, and then the buyer requests some changes in the design. The changes do not affect completed work but add some new items and subtract some existing items. The cost to the buyer to accomplish these changes is ________.

D. unchanged because the buyer (customer) is always rightE. unknown because the cost of the changed work is not specified


Que

A. cost differenceB. schedule varianceC. overrun conditionsD. schedule differenceE. cost variance


Que

A. ACWP/BCWSB. ACWP/BCWPC. BCWP/ACWPD. BCWS/ACWPE. BCWS/BCWP


Que

A. underspent and behind scheduleB. overspent and ahead of scheduleC. underspent and ahead of scheduleD. overspent and behind scheduleE. cannot be determined from available data


Que

A. bonuses, fees, and awardsB. labor, materials, and equipmentC. labor, supervision, and feesD. overhead, G&A, and feesE. G&A, facilities, and transportation


In the earned values system, the focus is on "cost of work," which is divided into "scheduled" and "performed" work. This is further defined as "budgeted" and "actual" work. The formula "BCWP - BCWS" provides the ________.

Indices can provide an indication of the status of a project. In the earned values system, there are two indices Cost Performance Index (CPI) and Schedule Performance Index (SPI). The formula for CPI is ________.

Suppose that in the earned value system, the status of the project is reported as BCWS = 100, ACWP = 110, BCWP = 95. The project is now ________.

Projects have direct and indirect costs that the project manager must track to ensure the budget is not exceeded. The project manager has the most control over direct costs such as ________.

Que

A. $11,844,000; $11,412,000B. $10,400,000; $10,040,000C. $10,800,000; $10,400,000D. $11,232,000; $10,832,000E. $12,484,000; $11,244,000


Que

A. $100 (x = 30)B. $200 (x = 30)C. $300 (x = 10)D. $200 (x = 10)E. cannot be determined from available data


Que

A. a project budget systemB. a project computer systemC. a project change controlD. a project status reportingE. cash-flow projections


Que

A. start of the planningB. start of the implementationC. end of the planningD. end of the implementationE. middle of the implementation


A project is being advertised to solicit bidders. The buyer has asked for two types of price first, if payment is made in total upon completion of the project; second, if payment is made 50 percent at the midpoint of completion and 50 percent upon total completion. This is a two-year project that is being priced at $10,000,000 when the cost of money is not included. Assume money is borrowed in two equal increments-at the start of year 1 and year 2. If the interest rate over the two years is eight percent, the total bid under each option (i.e., payment at the end; payment at midpoint) is ________.

The cost of money and cash flow can adversely affect the financial status of the project. One method of encouraging early payment of invoices is to offer a discount for payment within a few days. If an invoice for $10,000 was paid within (x) days (see each possible answer for value of x), the method "two 10, net 30" would provide a savings of ________.

Project financial audits are used to determine the current status of the financial health of a project, but ________ is/are not an area for financial audit.

A project audit is often a three-step process using different skills to assess the condition of the health of the project. The first audit, or first audit opportunity, is at the ________ phase.

Que

A. change orders to the contractB. expenditures to buy materialsC. revised cost estimates made in-houseD. changes to subcontractor's scope of workE. correction to the work breakdown structure to eliminate some tasks


Que

A. either method is acceptable under an incremental payment schedule contractB.

C.

D.

E. the credit at 50 percent completion is better because it reduces the billing cycle


Que

A. capability at the beginningB. margin (rate) at the midpointC. margin (rate) at the endD. goals at the beginningE. goals at the end


Que

A. making three estimates and taking the averageB. continually making estimates as the project progressesC. also including the range of potential error for an estimated itemD. using two or more cost estimating techniques to arrive at an average costE. delaying estimates until all information is acquired


The budget for a project is the baseline from which future expenditures are measured. Of the following, ________ do(es) not cause change to the budget baseline during project implementation.

In the earned value system for determining project status, there are several methods of accepting credit for the completion of work. In the most common method, full credit is allowed after the work package is complete. A second method is to allow full credit when 50 percent of the work package is complete to permit the performing contractor (seller) to receive credit for work-in-process. From the seller's point of view, ________.

the credit at 100 percent completion is better for either a lump-sum or incremental payment contract because the accounting is more accurate

the credit at 100 percent completion is better because the accounting lags the work-in-process by 30 days in any type of payment schedule

the credit at 50 percent completion is better because it improves the cash flow under an incremental payment schedule

Because of the investment or risk associated with a project, the decision may be to ensure a high profitability. When this is the case, senior management should agree on profit ________ of the project.

Estimating costs for a project is difficult because of the lack of historical cost records, the uncertainty regarding the future state of the economy, and the lack of understanding as to the full scope of work. Successive estimating is one method of accounting for the uncertainty of cost estimating by ________.

Que

A. price, net worth, and net present valueB. alternative outcomes, risk factors, and given quantitiesC. risk factors, price, and alternativesD. price, quantities, and time of purchaseE. risk factors, contract type, and project duration


Que

A. analogous estimatesB. parametric estimatesC. top-down estimatesD. bottom-up estimatesE. function point estimates


Que The ________ identifies the project elements that costs will be allocated to.

A. work breakdown structureB. PERT estimatesC. earned valueD. order of magnitude estimateE. BCWR


Que

A. cumulative actuals + (ETC X CPI)B. cumulative actuals + new estimate for cost of work remainingC. cumulative actuals + remaining budgetD. all of the aboveE. none of the above


Que The best way to manage the costs of change requests is to ________.A. accept them orallyB. allow them to happen in ad hoc fashionC. impose change unilaterallyD. document and authorize all changesE. use the earned value system


The degree of uncertainty (lack of information) in a project affects the ability of cost estimators to make precise estimates to determine the total cost. One method to resolve the uncertainty is influence diagramming, which is used to evaluate ________.

The most accurate estimates (and the most expensive to produce) are _______.

The EAC is a forecasting technique based on past project performance. It can be calculated using the formula ________.

Que

A. transportation, deterioration, and storageB. storage, damage, and deteriorationC. transportation, storage, and shortageD. transportation, storage, and lossE. quantities, storage, and damage


Que

A. the participants' business reasons for the projectB. the share of ownership to be retainedC. the level of risk the participants are to shareD. the project's anticipated cash flow and tax benefits, if anyE. all of the above


Que

A. additional tax relief is pursuedB. lines of credit are openedC. accesses to sources of new capital are maintainedD. maximum financing is usedE. late receipt of funds is avoided


Que

A. control of a business; low risk for operation and maintenanceB. high internal rate of return; favorable tax write-offC. favorable tax write-off; new source of fundsD. ownership without risk of operation; favorable tax write-offE. reduced quality (performance) risk; reduced cost risk


Materials management is crucial to the success of the project when resources are needed at a specified time and place to ensure continued progress. An assessment of the materials costs should consider not only the cost of purchase but also ________.

Project financing is critical to large projects where neither the owner (buyer) or contractor (seller) has sufficient funds available to cover the costs incurred during project implementation. In such cases, a third party must provide the necessary capital. The third party evaluates the feasibility of financing the project based on ________.

The financing plan for a project should detail the methods of obtaining and dispensing the capital over the full duration of the project. In preparing the plan and considering risk and reward, management should ensure that participants' credit standing is preserved, maximum leverage is used, tax benefits are optimized, flexibility is incorporated into ownership, and ________.

Investors are often used to obtain the necessary financing for major projects, which can transfer the ownership to the investors. The system is then leased back for operation and use. The major advantage for the investors is ________ , and the major advantage for the user of the system is ________.

Que

A. the willingness of the owners to make paymentsB. future cash flows to be generated by the entityC. the debt-to-liquidity ratioD. the entity's internal rate of return on operationsE. future ownership and operating cycles


Que

A. cash, inventories, sales, and receivablesB. cash, sales, receipts, and receivablesC. receipts, savings, receivables, and inventoriesD. cash, receivables, inventories, and payablesE. sales, receipts, inventories, and stock


Que

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.


Que

A.

B.

C.

Lending institutions are eager to finance projects that have an excellent potential for being successful and repaying the loans. Timely repayment of the debt depends largely on ________.

The success of a project is usually considered its ability to meet the objectives established prior to the start of the project. In a more global view, to become a functioning entity the project must have working capital, which consists of ________.

Under any type of contract, the owner (buyer) is always concerned with the cost of a project and the contractor's (seller's) expenditure rates. Although the fixed price contract transfers much of the risk to the contractor, the owner has a lot at risk in terms of meeting his/her objectives. One of the best methods of controlling contractor expenditure rates under any type of contract is to ________.

hold back a portion of the payment until all work is completed to the satisfaction of the technical inspectors

ensure that only fixed price contracts are awarded and that payment is only upon satisfactory completion of the project

have an "owner's representative" monitor and track all expenditures and have power to disapprove any expenditure that is not justified to him/her

track and pay the costs of the contract by phases or stages and evaluate the costs at each review/decision point

set up a duplicate project accounting system, track all costs, and validate the costs as being the best value for the owner

The budget for a major project lasting several years is usually prepared to reflect expenditures on an annual basis. The budget is, therefore, compared to expenditures at the end of each accounting cycle (i.e., each year). This poses a potential problem because _________ .

the budget will always be greater than the rate of expenditure when delays are encountered in paying the billings

the expenditure rate will be viewed optimistically (underspent) and the project manager will attempt to increase expenditures

the budget is not representative of the expenditure rate when there is an increase to the scope of work

D.

E.


Que Project Cost Management includes all of the following functions EXCEPTA. Resource planningB. Resource levelingC. Cost estimatingD. Cost budgetingE. Cost control


Que

A. BCWS = 100, BCWP = 110B. ACWP = 100, BCWP = 110C. BCWS = 100, ACWP = 110D. ACWP = 110, BCWP = 100E. BCWP = 100, BCWS = 110


Que Earned value can best be defined asA. The value of the equipment that has been installed as of the data dateB. The sum of the labor costs, which have been incurred on the project ot dateC. A method of measuring project performanceD. A method of measuring the amount of money that has been spent to dateE.


Que The output from resource planning includesA. Job descriptionsB. Salary schedulesC. The types of resources requiredD. Analogous estimating E. Historical informaiton


Que

A. I onlyB. II onlyC. III onlyD. I and II onlyE. I, II, and III

the budget changes too frequently to permit a valid comparison of the plan versus the actual expenditures

schedule delays or restructuring of the workload will affect costs during the accounting periods and give false indications of expenditure rates

Which of the following choices indicates that your project was 10% under budget?

The Actual Cost of Work Performed minus the Budgeted Cost of Work Performed

Cost estimates may be expressed in I. Units of currency II. Staff hours III. Staff days


Que All of the following are functions of cost control EXCEPTA.

B. Monitoring cost performance to detect variances from the cost baselineC.

D.

E.


Que

A. II onlyB. Ii and III onlyC. III and IV onlyD. I, II, and IV onlyE. I, II, III, and IV


Que Cost estimates include all of the following resource categories EXCEPTA. LaborB. MaterialsC. SuppliesD. Inflation allowancesE. Time allocations


Que Parametric cost estimating involvesA. Using the WBS as the basis for estimatingB. Defining the parameters of the project life cycleC. Caldculating individual cost estimates for each work packageD. Using rates and factors based on historical experience to estimate costsE. Using the actual cost of a similar project to extimate total proejct costs


Que

A.

B. The WBS

Informing the appropriate project stakeholders of authorized changes in the cost baseline

Ensuring that all appropriate changes are recorded accurately in the cost baseline

Allocating the overall estimates to individual work packages in order to establisha cost baseline

Preventing incorrect, inappropriate, or unauthorized changes from being included in the cost baseline

During the sixth monthly update on a ten month $30K project, the analysis shows that the BCWS is $20K, and the ACWP is $10K. The BCWP is also determined to be $15K. What can be ascertained from these figures? I. Less has been accomplished that was planned II. Less has been spent than planned III. To complete the project on schedule, costs will exceed budget IV. The project will probably complete behind schedule, but under budget

All of the following choices represent inputs to the resource planning process EXCEPT

The policies of the particular organization (e.g. use of contracting or internalstaffing, or lease or purchase major equipment)

C. Descriptions of the available resourcesD. The actual final cost of the last projectE. The scope statement


Que

A. I onlyB. III onlyC. I and III onlyD. II and III onlyE. I, II, and III only


Que

A. I, II, and III onlyB. I, II, and IV onlyC. I, III, and IV onlyD. II, III, and IV onlyE. I, II, III, and IV


Que In the earned value system, cost variance is computed asA. BCWP - BCWSB. BCWP - ACWPC. ACWP - BCWPD. ACWP - BCWSE. BCWS - BCWP


Que

A. III onlyB. I and II onlyC. II and III onlyD. I, III, and IV onlyE. I, II, III, and IV


Que Analogous estimatingA. Uses bottom-estimating techniquesB. Uses the actual costs from a previous, similar project

Cost control is concerned with I. Influencing the factors that create change to the cost base line II. Determining that the cost baseline has changed III. Managing cost changes when they occur

Historical results used in cost estimating may include I. Project team knowledge II. Project files III. Commerial cost estimating databases IV. Actual time to complete similar projects

Earned value includes I. Percent complete II. Actual cost of work performed III. Comleted work value IV. Budgeted cost of work performed

C. Is used most frequently in the later stages of a projectD. Uses project characteristics in a mathematical modelE. Summarizes estimates for individual work items


Que Inputs to resource planning include all of the following EXCEPTA. The WBSB. The Scope statementC. A resource pool descriptionD. Organization policiesE. Resource requirements


Que

A. Resource Planning and Cost EstimatingB. Cost Estimating and Cost BudgetingC. Cost Budgeting and Cost ControlD. Resource Planning and Cost ControlE. Resource Planning, Cost Estimating, and Cost Control


Que

A. BCWP and ACWPB. BCWP and CVC. CPI and CVD. ACWP and CPIE. ACWP and ETC


Que If BCWS = 100, BCWP = 98, adn ACWP = 104, the project isA. Ahead of scheduleB. Headed for a cost overrunC. Operating at project cost projectionsD. Likely to come in under budget at completionE. Behind schedule


Que Which is an acceptable cause for "re-baselining" a $10M projectA.

B. The client has authorized a $10K addition to the scope of the projectC.

D.

Of the following four major processes contained in Project Cost Mangement, which are concerned with the Cost Baseline?

In order to determine the project's Estimate at Completion, which of the following information is needed?

The monthly Consumer Price Index on some commodities essential to the project has gone up by 1.6%, an increase of 46% over the 1.1% that had been budgeted

The contractor's company has instituted a Quality Program in which it has pledged to spend $1M during the next year

The productivity in the Dratfting Department is lower than anticipated which has resulted in 1,000 additional hours, a 78% increase over what was budgeted

E. The engineering dpartment has converted to a new $200K CAD system


Que

A. Item 1B. Item 2C. Item 3D. Item 4E. Item 5


Que

A. Item 1B. Item 2C. Item 3D. Item 4E. Item 5


Que

A. +$300 and the project is behind scheduleB. -$300 and the project is ahead of scheduleC. +$8K and the project is on scheduleD. +$200 and the project is ahead of scheduleE. -$200 and the project is behind schedule


Que

A. 0.20; actual costs are exactly as plannedB. 0.80; actual costs have exceeded planned costsC. 0.80; actual costs are less than planned costsD. 1.25; actual costs have exceeded planned costsE. 1.25; actual costs are less than planned costs

Which item is most over budget?Item BCWS ACWP BCWP 1 10,000 11,000 10,000 2 9,000 8,000 7,000 3 8,000 8,000 8,000 4 7,000 7,000 5,000 5 6,000 9,000 6,000

Which item has the lowest SPI?Item BCWS ACWP BCWP 1 10,000 11,000 10,000 2 9,000 8,000 7,000 3 8,000 8,000 8,000 4 7,000 7,000 5,000 5 6,000 9,000 6,000

According to earned value analysis, the SV of the project described below is

What is the CPI for this project, and what does it tell us about cost performance thus far?BCWS = $2.2KBCWP = $2KACWP = $2.5KBAC = $10K


Que The CV is BCWS = $2.2KBCWP = $2KACWP = $2.5KBAC = $10KA. $300 B. ($300)C. $500 D. ($500)E. None of the above


Que

A. $10K; the original project budgetB. $10K; the revised estimate for total project cost (based on performance thus far)

C. $12,500; the original project budgetD.

E. None of the above


Que Life-cyle cost estimates consider theA.

B.

C. Cost of ownership, including the costs of operations and disposalD. Project cost at the time of customer acceptanceE. Acquisition costs only


Que

A. Straight-lineB. Double-declining balanceC. Rapid capital deductionD. A and BE. All of the above


Que

A. The initial outlay to get a project startedB. Costs that have been expended alreadyC. The average cost per unitD. The marginal costE. Total indirect and direct costs

What is the EAC for this project, and what does it represent?BCWS = $2.2KBCWP = $2KACWP = $2.5KBAC = $10K

$12,500; the revised estimate for total project cost (based on performance thus far)

Costs of the project for the concept, planning, implementation, and closeout phases

Expected profits, measured by subtracting total costs from estimated gross revenues

Accelerated depreciation allows a company to write capital expenses off its taxes more quickly. Which of the following is a recognized method of accelerated depreciation?

Experts contend that sunk costs should not be considered in making financial decisions about the future of a project. Sunk costs are


Que

A. Supports top-down estimatingB. Is a form of expert judgementC.

D.

E. Has an accuracy rate of +/- 10% of actual costs


Que

A. Order-of-magnitudeB. BudgetC. DefinitiveD. InitialE. Detailes


Que

A. Use early start times for noncritical tasksB. use resource leveling to optimize the productivity of project resourcesC. Crash the tasks that have the longest durationD. Crash critical tasks for which cost of crashing is lowestE. Use late start times for noncritical tasks


Que

A. Production equipment that requires less operator training lowers unit costsB. Unit costs decrease as production rates increaseC. Unit costs decrease in a regular pattern as more units are producedD. Costs of training increase as the level of automation increasesE. None of the above


Que Which of the following is NOT an example of a direct cost?A. Salary of the project managerB. Subcontractor expensesC. Materials used by the projectD. ElectricityE. B and D

PMgroup Planning

All the following statements about analogous estimating are true except that it

Is used to estimate total project costs when a limited amount of detailed projectinformation is available

Involves using the cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimatingthe cost of teh current project

Which of the following estimates would most closely predict the actual cost of a project?

If a project is running behind schedule and the project manager decides to crash the network to catch up, which of the following rules should he/she follow?

According to learning curve theory, when many items are produced repetitively

513 Que # 513Que

A. The project is ahead of scheduleB. The project is in trouble because of a cost overrunC. Project costs are within a normal rangeD. The project will finish within the original budgetE. Sufficient information is not available


Que In bottom-up cost estimating, accuracy is enhancedA. With smaller work itemsB. By using accurate historical informationC. If previous projects are similar in fact, not just in appearanceD. If the individuals or groups preparing the estimates are fully qualifiedE. Through the use of computerized toos


Que Working capital consists ofA. Current assets minus current liabilitiesB. Funds reserved for bid and proposal costsC. Funds set aside for unforeseen problemsD. Current liabilities plus current assetsE. Current liabilities minus current assets


Que According to the law of dimishing returnsA. Using more resources will result in proportionately more outputB. Using fewer resources will result in greater profitC. Using more resources will result in proportionately less outputD. Using more resources will result in the projrect's taking less timeE. Smaller production runs will increase unit costs, thereby reducing profit


Que

A. Pareto diagramB. KanbanC. Configuration managementD. Value analysisE. Management by objectives


Que The cost management planA. Describes how CVs will be managedB. Establishes the cost baselineC. Measures and monitors cost performance on the project

As the fourth month on the Acme project, cumulative planned expenditures were $100K. Actual expenditures totaled $120K. How is the Acme project doing?

Which of the following is a tool for analyzing a design, determining its functions, and assessing how to provide those functions cost-effectively?



Que Cost accountsA. Are charge accounts for personnel time managementB. Summarize project costs at level 2 of the WBSC. Identify and track management reservesD.

E. All of the above


Que

A. After-tax profit reported to the governmentB. Average rate of return for the projectC. EAC minus BACD. CV percentageE. Ratio of discounted revenues over discounted costs


Que A resource-limited project is one in whichA.

B.

C. Th eproject must be finished by a certain time using a few resources as possible

D.

E. All of the above


Que Considering the project schedule during the cost budgeting processA. Identifies the project elements so that costs can be allocatedB. Allows costs to be assigned to the time period when they will be incurredC. Provides another way to help measure and monitor cost performanceD. A and BE. A, B, and C


Que Resource leveling is an important tool for the project manager becauseA.

B.

C. Morale on the project may be increased

Represent the basic level at which project performance is measured and reported

The internal rate of return is a measure of a project's expected profitability that can be thought of as the

The project must be finished as soon as possible but without exceeding a specific level of resource usage

Functional managers do not allocate the required number of resources at the time required by the project manager

The project manager is rewarded if only a few of the allocated resources are used

Less management attention is required if the use of a given resource is nearly constant over time

A just-in-time inventory policy may be used without worrying that the quantity delivered will be incorect

D.

E. All of the above


Que The purpose of resource planning is toA. Determine the physical resources needed to perform project activitiesB. Approximate the costs of resources needed to complete project activitiesC.

D. Determine the resources that are potentially availableE. Assess the organizational policies concerning resources for use on the project


Que

A. Variable costB. Total costC. Fixed costD. Indirect costE. Opportunity cost


Que

A. Bottom-up estimatingB. Parametric modelingC. Analogous estimatingD. Computerized toolsE. Range estimating


Que Net present value is the A. After-tax value of working capitalB. Value today of future cash flowC. Total budget as of todayD. Total budget as of today plus management reserveE. Future value of present cash flow


Que Supporting detail for cost estimates should includeA. A description of the scope of workB. Documentation of the basis of teh estimateC. Documentation of any assumptions madeD. An indication of teh range of resultsE. All of the above

PMgroup Planning

Stable labor levels will result in fewer problems with regard to administration of personnel and payroll

Provide quantitative assessments of the costs of resources required to complete project activities

The cost of investing in a particular project and, therefore, forgoing the potential benefits of other projects is known as

Which of the following techniques for cost estimating is considered the least accurate?

529 Que # 529Que Financial analysis of payback period identifies the

A. Ratio of discounted revenues over discounted costsB. Future value of money invested todayC. Project that is expected to become profitable most quicklyD. Point in time where costs exceed profitE. Margin that has been earned


Que The purpose of cost budgeting is toA.

B.

C. Monitor cost performance to detect variances from the planD.

E. All of the above


Que Resource loading describesA.

B. The number of people assigned to each taskC. The amount of materials needed for each taskD.

E.


Que

A. Cost of conformance (doing it right the first time)B. Cost of nonconformanceC. Cost of materialsD. A and BE. A, B, and C


Que To determine EAC, the project manager canA.

B. Take actuals to date plus a new estimate for all remaining workC. Take actuals to date plus the remaining budgetD. A and BE. A, B, and C

Determine the cost of the resources needed to complete project activities and allocate them to the proper chart of accounts for the organization

Provide a quantitative assessment of the likely costs of the resources required to completeproject activities

Allocate cost estimates to individual work items to establish a cost baseline againstwhich project performance can be measured

A method to minimize the period-by-period variations in resources by shifting tasks withintheir slace allowances

The amount of individual resources that an existing schedule requires during specific time periods

The need to finish a project as soon as possible without exceeding a specified level of resource usate

Anticipating the actios and resources required to satisfy customers is an investment in the future. Therefore, the project manager should consider the cost of quality in determining the project's budget. The cost of quality includes the

Take actuals to date plus the remaining project budget modified by a performance factor


Que The undistributed budget is part of the A. Management reserveB. Performance measurement baselineC. Level-of-effort cost accountsD. Indirect pool of accountsE. General and administrative accounts


Que Contingencies should be justifiedA. Explicitly, in advance of committing to the budgetB. Implicitly, to allow for a management reserveC. As needed during the projectD. `At the time the budget is preparedE. At the time the price is determined


Que The process of cost control includes all the following actions exceptA.

B.

C.

D. Informing appropriate stakeholders of authorized changesE.


Que A rolling-wave budget providesA.

B.

C.

D. A basis for monitoring results according to the planE.


Que

A. Current variances are viewed as typical of future variancesB.

Monitoring cost performance to detect variancesa from the plan and determining the reasonsfor both positive and negative variances

Ensuring that all appropriate changes are recorded accurately in the cost baseline

Selecting projects using IRR, present value, or other techniques to ensure profitability

Preventing incorect, inappropriate, or unauthorized changes from being includedin the cost baseline

Maximum assurance that management's oals are reasonable and attainable because supporting details are included

A full-period projection that uses a top-down, unsupported budget along with a fully supported, bottom-up budget for the njearest 6-month segment of the project

A qualitative basis for measuring and rewarding individual and departmental performance

A way to examine individual components of a budget so that management knows the project'sstatus at all times

The method of calculating the EAC by adding the remaining project budget (modified by a performance factor) to the actuals to date is used most often when the

Project management team believes that similar variances will not occur in the future

C.

D. Current variances are viewed as atypical onesE. Original estimating assumptions are considered to be fundamentally flawed


Que The cumulative cost curve for planned and actual expendituresA. Shows the cumulative expenditures for the projectB. Is also knows as a S-curveC. Helps to monitor project performance at a glanceD. Shows the difference beeetween planned and actual expendituresE. All of the above


Que Rebaselining may be an output of cost control whenA. CVs are severe, and a relaistic measure of performance is neededB. Revised cost estimates are prepared and distributed to stakeholders C.


ANSWERS502 B.100 A.105 A.108 A.112 A.121 A.139 A.367 A.514 A.515 A.518 A.521 A.524 A.535 A.538 A.540 A.101 B.102 B.114 B.116 B.119 B.124 B.127 B.131 B.133 B.137 B.146 B.356 B.

Original estimating assumptions are no longer reliable because conditions have changed

Corrective action must be taken to bring expected future performance in linewith the project plan

357 B.368 B.370 B.374 B.375 B.506 B.507 B.520 B.522 B.527 B.534 B.537 B.109 C.110 C.113 C.117 C.125 C.132 C.136 C.142 C.144 C.145 C.358 C.359 C.372 C.505 C.509 C.511 C.516 C.526 C.529 C.536 C.107 D.111 D.115 D.126 D.129 D.130 D.134 D.135 D.138 D.140 D.141 D.147 D.148 D.361 D.362 D.364 D.365 D.369 D.377 D.503 D.504 D.

510 D.512 D.517 D.519 D.530 D.531 D.532 D.103 E.104 E.106 E.118 E.120 E.122 E.123 E.143 E.149 E.360 E.363 E.366 E.371 E.373 E.376 E.501 E.508 E.513 E.523 E.525 E.528 E.533 E.539 E.

PROJECT SCOPE MANAGEMENT


Que

A. ProjectizedB. Strong matrixC. Weak matrixD. Project coordinatorE. Project expediter


Que A clear definition of the users' needs serves as the direct basis for the ...A. Work breakdown structureB. Functional requirementC. Project cost estimateD. Selection of personnelE. Termination decision


Que A technical requirement has which of these characteristics?A. Easy to understandB. A communication tool between the user and the design teamC. Written in non-technical languageD. Developed in cooperation with the userE. Typically describe physical dimensions and performance requirements


Que A Gantt chart is useful in determining ...A. The level of effort for a taskB. When a task starts and stopsC. How task are related to each otherD. Who is assigned to do a taskE. All of the above


Que A work breakdown structure is most useful for ...A. Identifying individual tasks for a projectB. Scheduling the start of tasksC. Developing a cost estimateD. Determining potential delaysE. A and C


Que Scope ManagementA. Entails managing the project's work content

Middle (functional) managers have the greatest influence in the direction of the project in which type of organizational structure?

B.

C.

D. Is not a concern of the project managerE. None of the above


Que The scope statement providesA. A basis for future decisions about the projectB. A baseline to accomplish verification measuresC. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changesD. All of the aboveE. b and C only


Que Utilization of a Work Breakdown StructureA. Assures all work is identifiedB. Subdivides the project into manageable segmentsC. Provides the project sponsor with a time-phase task summaryD. A and BE. All of the above


Que The use of progress reportsA. Are not necessary on small projectsB.

C.

D. All the aboveE. B and C


Que Customer influence in the project planning process isA. Meddlesome and will slow down progressB. Essential in accurately documenting the goals and objectives of the projectC. A minor consideration because the customer has difficulty in stating what he wants

D. Best handled by the sales departmentE. None of the above


Que The WBS isA. An organization oriented family tree of the projectB. A task oriented family tree of the projectC. A cost center structure of the project

Is a subset of configuration management and as such is performed by CM specialists

Is concerned with naming all activities performed, the end products which result, and theresources consumed

Provides a means whereby various levels of authority can judge project performance

Provides insight into project problem areas and the effectiveness of the controls systems

D.



Que Creation of project objectivesA.

B.

C. Is required before funding of the project by the project sponsorD. All of the aboveE. A and B only


Que The Project CharterA. Expresses upper management commitment to the projectB. Provides the authority by which the project may proceedC. Establishes the organizational structure within which the project will operateD. Specifies the overall objectives and timeframes of the projectE. All of the above


Que The Project Charter is developed byA. Senior managementB. The customerC. The project managerD. Both A and CE. None of the above


Que The design phase refers to theA. Concept phaseB. Development phaseC. Implementation phaseD. Acquisition phaseE. A and/or B

PMgroup Initiating121 Que # 121

Que Reliability of a product is most directly affected byA. activities in the Concept phaseB. how well it is builtC. the reputation of the manufacturerD. the project managerE. the company's commitment to quality


Only required on large complex projects where separately identifiable work packages are difficult to construct

Allows for data collection and analysis and progress reporting against which standards of performance can be measured

Is accomplished by selection of measurable variables against which performance can be judged

Que The Development phase is the phase that includesA. appropriations, allocations, assigning and acquisitionB. feasibility, contracts, allocation and acquisitionC. budgets, project plan, appropriations and allocationD. a and cE. a and b


Que Scope ManagementA. involves controlling the project in terms of its goalsB. involves naming all activities to be performedC. prepares the project for progress reportingD. b and cE. all of the above

PMgroup Executing

125 Que # 125Que Earned person-hours refers to

A. percent complete x budgeted hoursB. percent complete x budgeted daysC. earned costD. BCWPE. actual value


Que The greatest potential cost savings in a project are found inA. the project organizationB. good contract negotiationsC. workers' quality suggestions during implementationD. the concept phase and management planE. all of the above


Que

A. +75%, -25%B. +25%, -10%C. +10%, -5%D. impossible to determine from this informationE. the risk tolerance of the project


Que

A. implementing Management by ObjectiveB. difficult team building

Your vice-president of projects wants a budget estimate on his desk by 7 am. tomorrow morning. As you work all night adding up elements in your WBS, you realize it must be accurate within

Diane was thrilled to get her first assignment as project manager. However, she knew the organization style would be a strong matrix organization and this meant the greatest challenge would be

C. organizing her kickoff meetingD. some of the functional managers preferred a hierarchical organizationE. the project workers would report to her as well as to a functional manager


Que Which of the following would you expect to see in a work package?A. durationB. costC. resourceD. quality objectivesE. all of the above


Que The WBS is best described as aA. scheduleB. methodC. organizationD. task-oriented family tree of activitiesE. process


Que

A. will grow linearlyB. will remain constantC. will grow more rapidly than linearlyD. will decreaseE. will be unaffected by project size


Que In general, product specifications are best developed byA. the technical staffB. the project managerC. upper managementD. the logistics departmentE. the contracts department


Que A key attribute of scope verification isA. improved cost estimatesB. improved schedule estimatesC. the central role played by the accounting departmentD. the central role played by the purchasing departmentE. customer acceptance of project efforts


Que Detailed descriptions of work packages are commonly contained in

As we deal with increasingly larger projects, we can anticipate that the amount of project documentation and communication

A. the project charterB. competitive analysesC. requests for tendersD. WBS dictionariesE. statements of work


Que Which of the following is not an example of a source of scope change?A. a change of government regulationsB. failure to include a required feature in the design of telecommunication systemC. a desire to incorporate a newly emerged technology into the project effortD. a need to engage in bottom-up cost estimatingE. customers who change their minds about the desired nature of the deliverable


Que

A. parametric estimationB. scope definitionC. feasability analysisD. market researchE. benefit-cost analysis


Que

A. are carried out by teams of developers working with customersB. employ quality control charts to establish better scope statementsC. are carried out by the organization's leading technical staffD. are written in symbolic notation in order to reduce ambiguityE. are closely supervised by upper management


Que A fundamental role of progress measurement on projects should beA. to identify poor performers, in order to punish themB. to determine whether the project is basically on targetC. to identify whether problems exist so that corrective action can be undertakenD. to assist in the development of a scope statementE. b and c


Que In what phase are the project's scope and objectives determined?A. conceptualB. developmentC. implementationD. close-outE. operations and maintenance

The subdivision of major project deliverables (as identified in the scope statement) into smaller, more manageable components is called

Increasingly, in order to increase the quality of project deliverables, scope definition efforts


Que

A. simulation modelsB. extrapolation from historical dataC. intuitive expert opinionD. Linear programming algorithmsE. the analytical hierarchy process


Que

A. functionalB. matrixC. projectizedD. decentralizedE. hybridized


Que

A. decreasesB. remains the sameC. increasesD. is unimportantE. decreases, then increases


Que

A. matrix structureB. functional structureC. projectized structureD. ego less structureE. self-directed team stucture


Que By whom are project plans generally developed?A. the project General ManagerB. the Director of ProjectsC. the project teamD. the marketing departmentE. the engineering department


Que Which is not an important function of the kickoff meeting?A. to identify project goals

The Delphi technique can be used for information forecasting. The chief characteristic of this technique is that it employs

Allocating human resources is most straightforward in what type of organization?

As technology increases in complexity for a project, the level of uncertainty in the work definition

In general, if a division's activities are focused on the achievement of a single major project, what is the best way for it to structure its operations?

B. to introduce the playersC. to present the project charterD. to present the detailed planE. to get team buy-in


Que An objective is clear ifA. top management proposes itB. project workers formulate it.C. it employs numbers.D. it is developed by the planning team.E. different people reading it hold a single view of its meaning.


Que A WBS numbering system should allow project staff toA. identify the level at which individual WBS elements are found.B. estimate project completion dates.C. identify configuration management milestones.D. estimate the costs of WBS elements.E. a and b


Que

A. A WBS.B. An ERB.C. a sanity check.D. PPBS.E. a project charter


Que

A. an engineering change proposal (ECP).B. a status report.C. a work authorization.D. the project charter.E. an RFP.


Que

A. a specification.B. a baseline.C. a work package.D. traceability.E. a WBS element.

A general description of a project's objectives, coupled with a statement of management authorization, is called

A periodic document (e.g., biweekly, monthly) detailing time, cost, and resource performance is called

"A precise description of a physical item, procedure, service, or result for the purpose of purchase and/or implementation of an item or service" is called


Que Which of the following is not a common project selection mechanism?A. benefit-cost analysisB. scoring sheetsC. engineering review boards (ERBs).D. peer review.E. murder boards.


Que

A. conceptB. developmentC. implementationD. terminationE. B and C


A. Status, trend, variance, and exception.B. Profitability, status, and exception.C. Status, variance, and stock price.D. Balance sheet, status, and trend.E. Status, exception, and financial audit.

165 Que # 165

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. team members are not fully trained to do the job.B.

C. management reserve is rapidly being depleted.D. rebaselining occurs frequently.E. project objectives are poorly defined.

166 Que # 166


A. when cross functional solutions are needed to produce a deliverable.B. when a deliverable must be produced according to a defined deadline.C. when work is unique.D. when a team is producing a one-of-a-kind deliverable.E. when work is routine and repetitively performed by the organization.

167 Que # 167

The following actions characterize which phase of the project life-cycle motivate team, procure goods and services, execute work packages, resolve problems?

Project control depends heavily on the utilization of an effective status reporting system. Which of the following are the most common categories of project reports?

Project mangement specialists frequently distinguish between weak and strong matrix structures. The chief characteristic of a weak matrix is

the functional manager has relatively more influence in making decisions than the project manager.

Project management can be employed in a wide Variety of situations. The circumstance in which it is least necessary is


A. schedule tracking with network diagrams and Gantt charts.B. Budget tracking.C. Export data to spreadsheet and database formats.D. All of the above.E. a and b only.

168 Que # 168

PMgroup PlanningQue Constrained optimization methods of project selection include

A. multi-objective programming algorithms.B. benefit-cost ratios.C. scoring models.D. subjective analyses.E. checklist comparisons of the alternatives.

170 Que # 170


A. Subject matter experts (e.g., engineers).B. Marketing/sales personnel.C. Purchasing experts.D. Operations experts. E. Cost Estimators

171 Que # 171


A. execution, pre-close-outB. development, implementationC. implementation, executionD. study, executionE. study, build

172 Que # 172

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. charterB. budgetC. appointment letter for the project managerD. execution plan/manualE. master schedule

173 Que # 173

PMgroup Planning

Which of the following functions do contemporary project management software packages (e.g., ABT Project Workbench, Microsoft Project) carry out?

In typical project situations, who among the following has the smallest role to play in selecting projects?

Projects are phased to provide controls over the work and to permit the measurement of progress. The four phases of a project are conceptual, ________ , and close-out/termination.

Project objectives provide the broad direction to the project. The project objectives are first documented in the project's ________.

Que

A. manpower, materials, and moneyB. cost, time, and resourcesC. budget, schedule, and resourcesD. outputs, required resources, and timingE. needs, desires, and goals

174 Que # 174

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. determine the most cost-effective methodB. determine the easiest methodC. determine the least risk methodD. determine the safest methodE. all or parts of A through D

175 Que # 175


A. conceptualB. planningC. implementationD. close-outE. any of the above

176 Que # 176

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. charterB. master scheduleC. budget planD. management planE. directive system

177 Que # 177

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. scope volume, cost of financing, and schedule durationsB. scope definition, cost control system, and detail scheduleC. project objectives, project plan, and project charterD. project staff, labor rates, and skill requirementsE. changes to the scope, cost of financing, and labor rates

178 Que # 178

PMgroup Executing

Project objectives are used to describe the scope of a project and are expressed in terms of ________.

There are usually several alternatives available to perform tasks. The purpose of alternative analysis in the project planning is to ________.

Suppose a corporation executive directs that a feasibility study be conducted. This study would be conducted during the ________ phase of the project.

The project ________ prescribes the guidelines within which a project is organized, administered, and managed for the timely accomplishment of project objectives.

The work breakdown structure is a task-oriented "family tree" of activities that provides the basis for developing the ________.

Que

A. status, variance, trend, and exceptionB. cost, trend, schedule, and performanceC. cost, schedule, quality, and exceptionD. analysis, cost, performance, and scheduleE. price, time, materials, and budget

180 Que # 180


A. large, complex projectsB. technically complex workC. the need for diverse skills on a short-term basisD. limited resources to implement the projectE. all of the above

182 Que # 182

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. the number of permanent people assigned to the projectB. the number of functional staff assigned to the projectC. the organization always starts a weak and builds to strongD. a weak matrix is used only to plan the projectE. relative influence is exercised in the decision-making

183 Que # 183

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. weak matrixB. strong matrixC. projectD. functionalE. line and staff

184 Que # 184

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. project and functionalB. jurisdictionalC. sharedD. consultingE. all of the above

185 Que # 185

Planning and implementing a status reporting system for a project is important to effectively manage the rate of progress. Types of project reports include ________.

The matrix organization is often used for a project because it offers advantages over a pure project organization for certain types of projects. The criterion/criteria for selecting a matrix organization is/are ________.

The matrix organization has two forms the weak matrix and the strong matrix. The primary difference between these two forms is that ________.

Suppose there is a great deal of uncertainty associated with a project because the work has not been defined because of the lack of information to develop structured plans. The best organizational structure to use in this situation is the ________ form.

The responsibility chart (or matrix) is a useful tool for defining ________ areas of management.


A. what is to be built; when it is to be builtB. characteristics/attributes; how the work is to be accomplishedC. what skills are to be used; who is to perform the workD. how many items are to be built; the physical attributesE. when the delivery is to be accomplished; why the project is to be implemented

187 Que # 187


A. PERT chartB. linear program chartC. bar chartD. flow chartE. tabular chart

188 Que # 188

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. build cycleB. planning elementC. working interfaceD. work packageE. price element

189 Que # 189

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. design engineeringB. assembly operationsC. planning operationsD. level of effort tasksE. interrupted work operations

191 Que # 191

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. accurate cost-schedule status on a daily basisB. accurate cost-schedule status on a weekly basisC. cost-schedule trends on a monthly basisD. baseline variances on a monthly basisE. baseline variances on a one-time basis

The specification and the statement of work are key elements of the contract for a project. The differences between the two documents are primarily that the specification tells ________ and the statement of work tells ________.

There is a need to illustrate the sequence of activities for the project's feasibility study to permit a macro evaluation of the major tasks. The tool that best meets this requirement is the ________.

The work breakdown structure comprises several levels of decomposition of the total project. The lowest level of definition is always the ________.

In planning for the accomplishment of work, the type of work that cannot be quantified as to the amount of time needed to produce an end product is ________.

In planning for the monitoring and tracking of cost and schedule as an integrated effort, you initiate the earned value system. The output of this system will provide ________.

192 Que # 192

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. project terminationB. contract changesC. earned value baseline changesD. project staffing level changesE. project material requirements

193 Que # 193

PMgroup ClosingQue

A. counted; qualityB. revised; as-builtC. reviewed; workingD. used; spacingE. used; excellent

194 Que # 194

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. predict trends and highlight problemsB. analyze problems and establish contingency costsC. determine personnel shortfalls and planning problemsD. determine successes and shortfallsE. identify and assign responsibilities

195 Que # 195

PMgroup ClosingQue

A. project accounting will be accomplishedB. charges will be made against the projectC. invoices will be processedD. bills will be paidE. labor charges will be paid

196 Que # 196


A. an ad hoc undertaking concerned with a single definable end product

The planning of the project must include all work to be performed to complete the project, but the planning would not normally include ________.

Project close-out requires several actions to ensure the logical termination of the ongoing work and compliance with the terms of the contract. Documentation, for example, must be ________ to reflect the ________ condition for the customer.

The retention of project historical records must be planned during the early phases of the project, which includes the collection, preservation, and recording of information during the implementation. The historical records can be used to ________ for future projects of a similar nature.

The financial close-out of the project requires that a time be established when no further ________.

Project management was born out of the need for a more efficient and effective means to accomplish goals for work of a defined time duration. The criteria for using a project management approach to perform work does not include ________.

B.

C. an undertaking that is of greater complexity of scope than normalD. an undertaking requiring quick response to change and value of timeE. an undertaking with a high degree of interdependence among the tasks

197 Que # 197


A. effective direction and change controlB. guidance to the team and new project objectivesC. a single point of responsibility and decision makingD. planning for the budget and scheduleE. new project controls and new baselines

198 Que # 198


A. budget and scheduleB. quality requirements and scheduleC. size and type of industryD. nature and sizeE. manager and team

199 Que # 199

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. project managerB. project expediterC. functional managerD. logistic specialistE. planning engineer

200 Que # 200


A. require the seller to provide a bonded personB. delegate to the seller the responsibilityC. hire a project management services representativeD. become a project management expertE. hire an audit agency to provide trained auditors

an undertaking that is routine and frequently performed by the present organization

Project management has long been recognized in the U.S. government as the most effective method of managing the acquisition of large systems. This effectiveness is enhanced by the project manager providing ________ throughout the life of the project.

Various project management structures are used in industries. The degree to which project management techniques are utilized depends mainly on the project's ________.

Traditionally, the planning (design, budgeting, scheduling) has been accomplished by a loose conglomeration of independent parties. As the complexity and size of the projects have increased, organizations have formally appointed a ________ to plan, control, and coordinate the resources.

The owner (buyer) of the project may desire to monitor the progress of a company building the project (the seller). When the expertise is not resident in-house for the owner, s/he may ________ to perform these monitoring functions.

201 Que # 201


A. planning and scheduling of workB. budget expendituresC. motivation of team membersD. performance evaluationE. setting priorities and assigning resources

202 Que # 202


A. volume, detailed, and rapidB. accurate, detailed, and formattedC. accurate, timely, and relevantD. engineering, design, and as-builtE. cost, schedule, and quality

203 Que # 203

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. is precisely the effect desired to meet the project's ultimate goalB.

C. ensures the project will be successful in meeting both the ultimate and subgoalsD. may conflict with the customer's needs and does not provide guidance for tradeoffs

E.

204 Que # 204

PMgroup PlanningQue

A. improved contract administrationB. conflict reward systemsC. cooperation and communicationD. contract negotiations and changesE. dispute escalation procedures

205 Que # 205

PMgroup Controlling

Project management's use ranges from mature industries to research and development (R&D) activities exploring new technologies. The difficulties in managing R&D work include all but ________.

Management information systems have grown over the past decade because of the need to provide project managers and others with more ________ information to support the decision-making process.

The project's ultimate goal is customer satisfaction while the subgoals for cost, schedule, and quality may be treated equally. This implied or stated equal treatment of the subgoals ________.

ensures the project will be completed as planned and will meet the customer's needs

has no impact on the project because the project manager will decide what is important

The degree of definition and the size of the project's scope affect the relationship between the project manager and the customer. The less defined the scope, the more the need for customer-project manager ________.

Que

A.

B. the designs being incomplete for implementation of the projectC.

D.

E.

206 Que # 206


A. precedence diagramming methodB. PERT or CPMC. project charterD. work breakdown scheduleE. project management plan

208 Que # 208


A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

209 Que # 209


A. risk, cost, and scheduleB. technologies, design, and engineeringC. cost, schedule, and qualityD. conceptual, planning, and implementation phasesE. direct cost, indirect cost, and escalation

Many projects do not complete the full life cycle under a single contractor because the design work is accomplished by a third party. The project manager is, therefore, given designs over which s/he had no control or direction. The disadvantages of having a separate design contractor from the implementation contractor do not include ________.

the designer not having the incentive to ensure the designs are the most cost effective

the designs being prepared on a cost-plus basis-i.e., the more the project costs, the more the designer is paid

the project manager blaming poor performance on the design and the designer blaming the project manager for lack of competency

the project manager's organization suing the design organization for lack of sufficient detail in the design drawings

From a top management perspective, the progress of the project is measured in completion of blocks of work over time. The project manager plans to report the progress using the ________ as the basis for the budget, schedule, resource allocation, and scope definition.

Each project should have a project procedures manual (also called a project execution manual) to set the standard practices to be used during all phases of the project. The project procedures manual is ________.

an independent document that covers cost, schedule, quality, and regulatory factors

a brief statement of the overall project policy that covers policy statements of do's and don'ts for the project

a procedures document that covers procedures that are new and unique to the project

an extension of corporate procedures that covers scope of work, project organization, and systems/procedures to be used

a supplement to corporate procedures that covers roles and responsibilities of functional and project personnel

During the planning and implementation phases, there is often a need to conduct tradeoffs between several alternatives. Unlike selection of competing alternatives, the tradeoffs are usually made between ________.

210 Que # 210


Que A scope change is defined as aA. Change in technical specifications as defined in the WBS.B. Change in project authorization.C. Change in project personnel.D. Modification to the agreed upon project scope as defined in the WBS.E. Modification to the budget as agreed upon for the project.


Que

A. I onlyB. III onlyC. I and II onlyD. I, II, and IIIE.


Que

A. II and III onlyB. I, II, and III onlyC. I, II, and IV onlyD. I, III, and IV onlyE. II, III, and IV only


Que

A. I and II onlyB. I and IV onlyC. II and III onlyD. III and IV onlyE. I, II, III, and IV


Que Poor scope definition may cause all of the following EXCEPTA. Higher project costs.B. ReworkC. Material failureD. Low morale

The Scope management plan includes I. How changes will be integrated into the project. II. An assessment of the stability of the project scope. III. A clear description of how scope changes will be identified and classified.

The Scope Change Control System should include I. Paperwork II. Tracking system III. Approval levels IV. Evaluation process

Benefit measurement methods for selecting a project include I. Comparative approaches II. Economic models III. Linear programming methods IV. Integer programming models

E. Schedule delays


Que

A. I onlyB. III onlyC. I and II onlyD. II and III onlyE. I, II, and III


Que

A. II onlyB. III onlyC. I and III onlyD. II, III, and IV onlyE. I, II, III, and IV


Que A code of accountsA. Uniquely identifies each element of the WBSB. Includes work packages, used to track phase completionC. Is an organizational scheme to keep track of contractsD. Charts elements of the WBS against the timelineE. None of the above


Que Scope verificationA. Is the formal acceptance of the project scope by the stakeholdersB. Refers to the final project report describing the project at completionC. Is not necessary if the project completes on time and on budgetD. Occurs only when revisions or change orders are made to the projectE. Details how the cost estimate matches the element of the projects


Que The change control process should include all of the following EXCEPTA. Scope change controlB. Resource levelingC. Contract administrationD. Quality controlE. Risk change control

Scope change control is the process concerned with I. Influencing factors which create scope change II. Determining that a scope change has occurred III. Managing actual changes when they occur

Scope definition is necessary to I. Evaluate the project at its completion II. Improve the accuracy of cost, time, and resource estimates III. Define a baseline for progress measurement and control IV. Facilitate clear responsibility assignments


Que The scope baseline is the originalA. Project schedule and budgetB. Description in the project charterC. Plan plus or minus approved changesD. Performance measureE. Starting point for contract negotiations


Que The project charter is used for all of the following purposes EXCEPTA. To recognize the existence of the projectB. To refer to the business needC. To describe the projectD. To request bids for different phases of a projectE. To give the project manager authority to apply resources to a project


Que

A. I onlyB. IV onlyC. I and II onlyD. I and III onlyE. III and IV only


Que The project plan should include all of the following exceptA. The project charterB. The project management approachC. Cost estimatesD. A detailed change management processE. Organizational policy


Que Scope planning for a project is fully described asA. The project specification that includes design principles and project objectivesB. A three-level project work brewakdown structureC.

D. The project charterE. The record showing that all project deliverables are completed satisfactorily


Que Scope definition isA. The responsibility of the client to limit the possibility of change orders

Scope initiation is the process which formally I. Recognizes that a new project exists II. Appoints the project manager III. Recognizes that an existing project should continue into the next phase IV. Establishes and describes the need for a project

A written scope statement that includes project justification, major deliverables and the project objectives

B.

C. Determining the responses needed to perform project activitiesD. Analysis of activity sequence, duration, and resource requirementsE. A written statement identifying the quality standards relevant to the project


Que Which of the following statements is true of the WBS?A. The WBS is deliverable-orientedB. Eah level represents an increasing level of detailC. The WBS is an unstructured list of activities in chart formD. The WBS is the same as the Organizational Breakdown StructureE. The WBS referes to the Bill of Material (BOM)


Que Input(s) to scope definition areA. The need for a work-aroundB. The type of contractC. The scope statementD. Work breakdown structure templatesE. Decomposition


Que All of the following are characteristics of a "work package" exceptA. It is a task at the lowest level of any branch of the WBSB. It is a summary task at the top level of the WBSC.

D. It usually contains no more than eighty work hours (effort) to completeE. It may be broken into steps as Activity Definition


Que What is the WBS typically used for?A. As the basis for organizing and defining the total scope of the projectB. To define the project scheduleC. To identify the logical person to be project sponsorD. To define the level of reporting the seller provides to the buyerE. As a record of when work elements are assigned to individuals


Que All the following statments about a WBS are true EXCEPT that it A. Provides a framework for organizing and ordering a project's activitiesB. Can be similar in appearance to an organizational chartC. Breaks down a project into successively greater detail by levelD. Is a scheduling methodE. Is a planning tool

PMgroup Planning

Subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller more manageable components

It consists of manageable units of work that can be planned, budgeted, scheduled, and controlled

503 Que # 503Que

A. Project charterB. Product descriptionC. Decomposition documentD. Scope statement E. WBS


Que

A. FlexibilityB. CapabilityC. RealismD. Ease of useE. Cost


Que Maintenance is crucially important to projects and shouldA. Be included as an activity to be performed during the closeout phaseB.

C. Not be viewed as part of the project life cycleD.

E. Always be viewed as a separate project


Que

A. Project planB. Contract terms and conditionsC. Statement of workD. Project charterE. Resource spreadsheet


Que

A. Benefit-cost ratioB. Payback periodC. Economic value addedD. Peer reviewE. Multiobjective programming


The document that describes the objectives, work content, deliverables, and end-product of a project is the

When an organization chooses a project selection model, the most important criterion is

Have a separate phase in the lifecycle in information systems projects because 60-70% of live-cycle costs of computer systems are generally devoted to maintenance

Be specified in terms of the forms it can take, such as debugging and making enhancements

Each project phase is marked by completion of one or more deliverables. The deliverable for the concept phase of a project is the

All of the following are examples of benefit measurement methods of project selection EXCEPT

Que

A. Improving the accuracy of cost, time, and resource estimatesB. Defining the baseline for performance measurement and controlC. Developing the scope management planD. Facilitating clear assignment of responsibilityE. All of the above


Que A work package isA. A deliverable at the lowest level of the WBSB. A task with a unique identifierC. A description of work proceduresD. A required level of reportingE. An item that cannot be broken down further


Que At a minimum, the project charter should A.

B. Discuss the risks and constraints of the projectC. Designate the organizatoinal structure of the projectD. State the business goals of the performing organizationE. Detail the project deliverables


Que

A. Phase-end reviewB. Phase exitC. Stage gateD. Kill pointE. All of the above


Que

A. Develop the WBS and let it determine the project organizational structureB.

C. Refer to the project charter developed by top managementD.

E. Fit the structure to the contract task for greater cost control


Que During decomposition, the project manager shouldA. Identify the major elements of the project

A clear, concise scope definition serves several purposes. Which of the following is NOT an objective of scope definition?

Describe the responsibilities and authority of the project manager and functional managers

The review of deliverables and project performance at the conclusion of a project phase is called a

When choosing the most appropriate form of project organization, the first step is to

Develop an initial project plan and determine the functional areas responsible for each task

Develop a project schedule, including a top-down flowchart, and identify the functional areas to perform each task

B.

C. Identify constituent elements of the deliverableD. Verify the correctness of the decompositionE. All of the above


Que The 80-hour rule states thatA. The activity durations of tasks should not be more than 80 hoursB.

C.

D. A budget should be established for any task of 80 hours or moreE. Performance should be measured on all tasks of at least 80 hours or more


Que The scope statementA. Does not include project objectives such as cost, schedule, or quality measuresB. Includes a description of project assumptions and constraintsC. Provides a documented basis for preparing the PERT/CPM networkD. Is developed by functional managers during the concept phase of the projectE. Is the basis for the contract between the buyer and seller


Que The project charter should be issued byA. The project managerB. The head of the performing organizationC. A manager external to the projectD. Functional managers and the project managerE. The head of business development


Que

A. WBS matrixB. WBS indexC. Project WBSD. Cost account matrixE. Work package assignment index


Que Completion of project scope activities is measured against theA. RequirementsB. Project planC. Scope statementD. Customer's expectationsE. Goals and objectives of the project

Decide whether adequate cost and duration estimates can be developed at the level of detail for each element

Each task should be broken down into work packages that require no more than 80 hours of work to complete

No one should be assigned to the project unless able to work on it for at least 80 hours

To relate the functional organizations to the WBS elements, the project manager should use a


Que The practice of overlapping project activities is known asA. Concurrent engineeringB. Fast-trackingC. LevelingD. SmoothingE. Crashing


Que

A. ConceptB. PlanningC. ExecutionD. CloseoutE. All phases involve uncertainty to the same degree


Que Scope verificationA.

B. Is the last activity performed on a project before handoff to the customerC.

D.

E.


Que Specifying the technical requirements is an important step because theyA. Describe the characteristics of the deliverable in ordinary languageB. Are used by the project staff to target effortsC. Are useful to both the project staff and the customersD. Are designed to ensure that customers know what they are getting from a projectE. All of the above


Que Written change orders should be required onA. All projects, large and smallB. Large projectsC. Projects with a formal configuration management system in placeD. Projects with a configuration change boardE. Projects for which the cost of a change control system can be justified


The greatest degree of uncertainty is encountered during which phase of the project life cycle?

Improves cost and schedule accuracy, particularly on projects using innovative techniques or technology

Documents the characteristics of the product or service that the project was undertaken to create

Differs from quality control in that scope verification is concerned with the acceptance - not the correctness - of the work results

Verifies that the WBS was prepared in accordance with the organization's project management methodology

Que The principal sources of project failure areA.

B.

C.

D.



Que

A. In this strong matrix the balance of power is shifted to the functional line managersB. In this tight matrix, the balance of power is shifted to the project managerC. In this strong matrix, the balance of power is shifted to the project managerD. The project manager will probably not be reassigned in times of crisisE. The project manager will probably not be challenged by project stakeholders


Que

A. The quality of the schedule and cost control analysisB. Customer satisfactionC. Customer compromise in defining its needsD. A and BE. B and C


Que

A. The chart of accountsB. The code of accountsC. Work packagesD. WBS ID numbersE. The WBS dictionary


Que Which statement about customer expectations is NOT true?A. The product or service should be usable as intended.B.

C.

Lack of a projectized or strong matrix structure, poor scope definition, and lack of a project plan

Lack of commitment or support by top management, disharmony on the project team, and lack of leadership by the project manager

`Poorly identified customer needs, a geographically dispersed project team, and little communication with the customer until the project is delivered

Organizational factors, poorly identified customer needs, inadequately specified project requirements, and poor planning and control

Project A is being administered using a matrix form of organization. The project manager reports to a senior vice president who provides visible support to the project. In this scenario, which of the following statements best describes the relative power of the project manager?

In all projects, needs must be tempered by schedule, cost, and resource constraints. Project success depends primarily on

A WBS is a product-oriented "family tree" of project components. Each item in the WBS is generally assigned a unique identifier; these identifiers are known collectively as

Contractual provisions, including schedule and performance standards, should be met

Changes should be made immediately, and all customer wants should be satisfied without bureaucratic hassle

D.

E. The seller should serve the customer competently and graciosly


A. Cry to upper management about the short budgetB. Rebaseline the projectC. Revise the project charterD. Revise the WBSE.

Answers

100 C101 B102 E103 B104 E105 C106 D107 D110 E111 B113 B114 E115 E117 D120 B121 A122 C123 A125 A126 D127 B129 E130 E131 D133 C134 A135 E136 D137 D138 B139 A140 E141 A142 C

The seller should assume the responsibility of understanding customer needs and wants and addressing them effectively

Senior management has found the solution to a problem with a new product. They authorize funding for a new project to resolve it. After six months the new 2-year project is over budget and behind schedule. What should the project manager do?

143 A144 C145 B148 C151 D152 E153 A155 E156 B158 A161 C162 C165 A166 A167 E168 D170 A171 C172 B173 A174 D175 E176 A177 D178 B180 A182 E183 E184 C185 E187 B188 D189 D191 D192 C193 C194 B195 A196 B197 B198 C199 D200 A201 C202 B203 C204 D205 C206 E208 D209 D210 C313 D

314 D315 B316 E317 C318 E319 D320 A321 A322 B323 C324 D326 D327 E328 C329 B330 A332 C334 B335 A502 D503 D504 C505 C508 D509 E511 C514 A515 A516 E518 B519 E520 B521 B522 C523 D524 B527 B528 A529 D530 B532 A534 D537 C539 B540 B541 C604 B

PROJECT TIME MANAGEMENT


Que Fast-tracking is also known asA. overtime and contractingB. utilizing additional resourcesC. crashingD. concurrent engineeringE. all of the above


Que

A. no slack available for critical tasksB. late start dates earlier than early start datesC. negative total floatD. b and cE. all of the above


Que Time-limited scheduling is best used whenA. there is negative total floatB. resources can be better utilized by taking advantage of existing free floatC. a finish-to-start relationship existsD. fast-trackingE. b and c


Que

A.

B. Time-limited scheduling considers total float but resource leveling does notC.

D. a and cE. all of the above


Que Which relationship dependency is indicative of concurrency?A. Start-to-startB. Start-to-finishC. Finish-to-startD. Finish-to-finishE. a and d


Que

In the network diagram for a completely unrealistic schedule, you would likely find

The major difference(s) between time-limited scheduling and resource leveling is (are)

Time-limited scheduling reschedules based on late start dates, while resource leveling reschedules based on late finish dates

Time-limited scheduling reschedules activities according to resource availability while resource leveling attempts to smooth out resource requirements by rescheduling

Susie has just told Diane, the project manager, that she hasn't started working on her planned activity that was supposed to start a week ago. Which factors will influence Diane's decision whether to escalate to Susie's manager?

A. If the delay is within the amount of free floatB. If the activity has negative floatC. If time-limited scheduling was usedD. If Susie has a reputation for being undependableE. All of the above


Que

A. affect the slack available for subsequent tasksB. require a determination of the late finish dateC. require crashing or fast-trackingD. a and bE. all of the above


Que Which of the following is true about the critical path in a network diagram?A. The critical path represents the shortest single path through the networkB. Activities on the critical path hold the greatest risk for the projectC.

D.

E. Activities on the critical path can never have float


Que The affect of additional resources on the critical pathA. is likely to reduce the project end date by creating parallel tasksB. is likely to require that a revised network diagram be createdC. is negligibleD. has the same effect as crashing this pathE. a, b and d


Que

A. 0B. 1C. 2D. 3E. 4


Que If free float on a task is exceeded, itA. should be of concern to the project managerB. will impact the early start of the succeeding taskC. could impact the late start of the succeeding taskD. could jeopardize the success of the projectE. all of the above

Susie's delays are getting worse and worse. All available slack time for her task has been used. Any additional delays would

Activities on the critical path have their early start date equal to their late start date if the shortest possible duration of the project is to be achieved

Activities on the critical path have their early start date equal to their late finish date if the earliest end date of the project is to be achieved

If the Early Start Date = October 10th, the Late Start Date = October 12th, the Early Finish Date = October 12th and the Late Finish Date = October 14th, and all days that week are working days available to the project, compute the number of slack days for this task.


Que The purpose of performing a backward pass is toA. determine the critical pathB. determine where there is slackC. determine where there is floatD. determine the late finishE. B, C and D


Que A concurrent relationship is shown on a network diagram asA. an arrow going from the start of one task to the start of anotherB. an arrow going from the start of one task to the finish of anotherC. an arrow going to the start of two or more tasksD. a and cE. b and c


Que

A.

B. critical path method, program evolution and review timing, probability design methodC.

D.

E.


Que

A.

B.

C.

D.

E. PERT requires less time to load the input information than does CPM


Que PDM differs from PERT and CPM primarily in its use of ________.A. dummy activities to constrain events

The effective management of the use of time in a project is usually critical to the successful accomplishment of the project's objectives. There are several types of time management tools (called scheduling systems or project management systems) that fall into three categories referred to by the abbreviations CPM, PERT, and PDM. Respectively, these three abbreviations stand for ________.

critical path means, program evaluation and repetitive technology, probabilistic decision method

critical planning method, program evaluation and review technique, program detail method

critical path method, program evaluation and review technique, precedence diagramming method

critical plotting method, program evaluation review technique, precedence diagramming method

Scheduling networks are all similar in their functions and general approach to building a schedule. The major difference between PERT and CPM network input information requirements is ________.

PERT will only accept whole units of time whereas CPM will accept fractions/decimals of units of time (e.g., 2 hours vs. 2.1 hours)

CPM requires that all time estimates are in hours whereas PERT will accept any unit of time (e.g., hours, days, weeks)

PERT requires three time estimates to compute an average whereas CPM requires one point estimate

PERT is primarily a time scheduling system whereas CPM also addresses cost and resources

B. lag time connections to slow the project's progressC. arrows to represent workD. nodes/boxes to represent workE. nodes/boxes to represent slack time


Que

A. start-to-finishB. finish-to-startC. finish-to-finishD. end-to-endE. start-to-start


Que

A. planning, positioning, implementation, and close-outB. concept, planning, implementation, and close-outC. feasibility, concept, implementation, and executionD. concept, feasibility, planning, and implementationE. planning, execution, close-out, and post-project


Que

A. time durationB. sequencing of work (or logic)C. responsibility for work executionD. task activityE. task timing by the calendar


Que

A. skill of the schedulerB. cost of labor for plannersC. type of automated scheduling system usedD. frequency of updates to the scheduleE. availability of resources for the project


Que

A. a cost of $900 for each day of workB. 80 hours of calendar durationC. 80 hours of total resource (labor) timeD. what can be accomplished by one person in one weekE. what can be accomplished by one team in three weeks

PDM uses four different relationships between its nodes to reflect connectivity and lag time, but it does not include ________.

The four distinct phases that are used to control the work during the project's life cycle are ________.

The work breakdown structure is a critical tool for the project and the planning of the project. The lowest level of the work breakdown structure represents the ________ for the schedule network.

The schedule duration of a project is dependent upon the available time until delivery of the system/product. In addition to time, a major contributor to the duration of a project is the ________.

The division of the work breakdown structure into smaller tasks is continued until the lowest level that represents a work package is no more than ________.


Que

A. bar chart of all activities on the summary scheduleB. network of all activities on the summary scheduleC. narrative description of the active tasksD. combination of the full (detail) network and the summary networkE. histogram to show percent of work on the project that has been completed


Que

A. completed workB. unfinished workC. durationD. timingE. dependency relationships


Que

A. project budgetB. project objectivesC. responsibility of achieving project objectivesD. organization of resources available/requiredE. information requirements of management


Que

A. all preceding activities are startedB. most preceding activities are completeC. all preceding activities are completeD. resources are orderedE. resources are identified


Que

A. two; one; up to sixB. one; two; up to sixC. one; one; fourD. one; one; severalE. one; one; two


Suppose the summary network for a major project has 500 activities. For a briefing requirement for senior management, the best method of displaying the progress on the project (schedule vs. calendar) is by using a ________.

The bar chart does not explicitly show the ________ between the activities, which makes it difficult to impute the effects of a delay on one activity.

In the preparation of a network (schedule), factors that must be considered to ensure that the end product meets the needs of the project manager do not include ________.

The rules of network logic state that, except for an independent or time phased start, an activity may not begin before ________.

As originally developed and employed, CPM and PERT could have only ________ start point(s) and ________ end point(s), but the current networks can have ________ start and end points.

Que

A. a stopping point; transition pointsB. zero time usage; milestonesC. a use of one unit of time; decision pointsD. connector points for events; duplicates of other nodesE. activities of importance; major consumers of time


Que

A. engineers who will be working on the projectB. planners who are preparing the scheduleC. knowledgeable supervisory personnelD. customer's representativeE. experience of an independent contractor


Que

A. develop a new logic network with fewer activitiesB. delete activities until the logic is no longer overwhelmingC. eliminate the connecting nodes or lines to let the logic flow togetherD. group like activities in a series to a higher level of workE. group like events in a series to obtain summary events


Que

A. compressing any activities that exceed a specified durationB. sorting all activities into a forward group and a backward groupC. generating new logic for the schedule if it exceeds the desired time durationD. generating the float (slack) on each activity and identifying the critical pathE. separating the critical path from the noncritical path activities in the network


Que

A. only oneB. one or moreC. always more than oneD. always more than twoE. never more than two


In an "activity-on-the-arrow" (i-j) network, the nodes represent ________ and may also be ________.

In preparing the time estimates for a project, the general rule is to use the ________ to estimate each activity.

Often the detailed network contains so many activities that it is difficult to follow the logic and track progress over relatively long periods of time. A summary network is used for this purpose. To develop a summary network from a detailed network, ________.

The computation of the duration of the network after all logic is completed and all time estimates are included in the schedule requires a forward and backward pass (computation). These two functions result in ________.

The critical path, by definition, is considered the longest track through the network. The computation of the critical path will determine that the network has ________ longest (time) path(s).

Que

A. a fixed end date for the project prohibits the schedule from moving beyond a set dateB. fixed milestones in the schedule prohibit sliding of dates beyond a set dateC. work may have been added on the critical pathD. changes may have been made to either the fixed end date or a fixed milestoneE. all of the above


Que

A. change the schedule logic to conduct parallel activities to condense the longest pathB. add resources on the critical path until some activities are reduced a total of five days

C. use a combination of added resources and change to network logicD. obtain authority to extend the schedule by five daysE. all of the above


Que

A. start soonest after completion of activity sixB. subtract six units of time from the pathC. scheduled start on the sixth day of the monthD. start-to-start slack of six units of timeE. start-to-start with a delay of six units of time


Que

A. (a+m+b)/4 = meanB. (a+4m+b)/4 = meanC. (a+4m+b)/6 = meanD. (a+5m+b)/6 = meanE. none of the above


Que

A. two; 95B. three; 95C. four; 99.7D. five; 99.99E. three; 99.7

A network can have minus float on the critical path but never positive float (under optimum scheduling). Some common causes of negative float are that ________.

Suppose a negative slack/float condition has been discovered in the schedule because of poor logic in the initial network. The logic is corrected, but the schedule is now in a negative five-day condition. The method(s) to remove the negative slack is/are to ________.

In a precedence diagram (PDM), the notation "SS6" on one of the connecting lines means ________.

PERT uses three time estimates to arrive at a single "best" estimate for each activity. This is assumed to better account for uncertainty in the estimating process. The formula for computing the "PERT estimate" is ________. (Note a = optimistic, m = most likely, b = pessimistic)

For purposes of computing the mean and standard deviation, it is assumed that the PERT distribution is similar to a normal curve. Therefore, PERT estimates are assumed to have ________ standard deviations and that ________ percent of the estimates are within this distribution.


Que

A. the rule stating that no more than three inputs or outputs can be used on one nodeB. the rule that limits the output to one activity (i.e., that event triggers one activity)C. no rule-the node is not limited to a given number of inputs or outputsD. the rule that dummy activities are limited to one per node of either input or outputE.


Que

A. one of the four relationships of connectivityB. a dashed connectivity for dummy activitiesC. the duration of delay between the finish of one activity and the start of anotherD. the amount of work being accomplished when converted to a bar chartE. resources needed to complete the next activity


Que

A. increases; a later dateB. stabilizes; an earlier dateC. increases; minimum costD. moderates; the first opportunityE. compresses; an earlier date


Que

A.

B. it provides a better basis for understanding networking techniquesC. some activity on the node systems may need to be converted to activity on the arrowD. some systems use a mixture of both techniques in an individual networkE. there is often a need to schedule in both methods for one project


Que

A. comparing the baseline schedule with the current statusB. comparing the current status with the expenditure rate

Suppose a network (activity-on-the-arrow, i-j) is analyzed and that it is noted that one node has six input arrows, including two dummy activities, and two output arrows. This is a violation of ________.

the logic for preparing i-j networks, which can compute only a total of six inputs and outputs combined

In a precedence diagram (PDM), the nodes are the activities and each represents a discrete activity. The placement of the connecting lines to other activities are significant because the lines show ________.

Fast-tracking requires more sophisticated schedule and control methods because it is a practice that ________ the schedule to place the system in operation at ________.

The trend in computerized scheduling systems is toward the use of the precedence diagramming method (activity on the node) as compared to the early systems (PERT and CPM) with activity on the arrow. In teaching new project personnel the scheduling system, it is helpful to teach both methods because ________.

some of the activity on the arrow systems may need to be converted to activity on the node

The success of a project is often unknown until completion because there was little or no planned evaluation of the realistic progress and trends for the future. Determining whether a project will finish on time is best accomplished by ________.

C. running several iterations of the network to conduct a "what if" exerciseD. analyzing the work completed versus the work scheduledE. obtaining the opinions of several members of the project team


Que

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.


Que

A.

B.

C.

D.

E. all of the above


Que

A. "freezes" the start of all activities to identify when supervisors initiate late startsB.

C.

D.

E.

PMgroup Planning

Suppose you are the project manager for a major project that has 14 subcontractors. Managing the schedule is considered critical to the successful completion and activation of the system. To ensure the best control, you direct the project control section leader to develop a schedule that ________.

includes interface points for subcontractors, and you let the subcontractors develop their detail schedules for individual management of time

includes the detailed activities of the subcontractors as well as the details of your work

excludes any subcontractor schedule because the subcontractors are paid to manage to meet the critical interface dates

includes only the subcontractors' schedules and their vendors' or subcontractors' detail schedules

compresses all (yours and subcontractors') activity durations by 10 percent, which will be used as a reserve

Suppose a subcontractor informs the project manager that there is a slippage on the schedule of his/her work by at least two weeks. This work is on the critical path and will negatively impact the project by two weeks if nothing is done. The project manager should ________.

review the contract to determine the subcontractor's obligation to meet the current schedule

review the subcontractor's schedule to determine whether there is an actual two-week delay

review the situation to determine why the subcontractor believes s/he is going to betwo-weeks late

review the project master schedule to determine if there is going to be a two-week impact on the project if the subcontractor delays his/her schedule

The project manager identifies a potential problem with the schedule in that many of the supervisors are not starting work on schedule, but are waiting until all the float (slack) is consumed on an activity before starting. In a few cases, this practice is "pushing" following activities out and absorbing the float downstream. The project manager directs that this practice stop and to ensure compliance ________.

"freezes" the end point of all activities to identify when the supervisors initiate late starts

converts the schedule to a "fixed" activity network so the supervisors have only a given time frame to complete activities

informs the supervisors that any delays in the scheduled activities will result in dismissal of the responsible supervisor

dismisses the most frequent abuser of the scheduling system as an example of the action that will be taken against supervisors for irregular practices

145 Que # 145Que

A. determine whether the Gantt chart has the most current informationB. determine whether the supervisor is accurately reporting progressC. review the system of information inputs to determine the accuracy of the systemD.

E. all of the above


Que

A. the project management planB. the contract(s)C. the project charterD. a separate agreementE. the master schedule


Que

A. the skills may not be available to double the work forceB.

C. there may not be sufficient physical space to accommodate the larger work forceD. the compression of work into fewer hours by more people may be inefficientE. all of the above


Que

A.

B. the progress of work activities has been poor in the beginning of the projectC. the project was started late and the schedule end date must be metD.

E.


During a review of the Gantt (bar) chart, the project manager identifies some tasks that have not been started and are more than two weeks late. All of these activities are the responsibility of one supervisor. The project manager should ________.

discuss the late activities with the supervisor to determine why there are delays in the schedule

When properly managed and used, float (slack) in a schedule provides some flexibility in a schedule. The ownership of float on a major contract may be questioned by the owner (buyer), prime contractor, and subcontractors. Therefore, it is best to include the float ownership in ________.

There is a belief that all task durations can be altered by increasing or reducing the work force. Following this belief, one could compress the schedule to one-half by doubling the work force. The fallacy with this procedure is that ________.

the process may not facilitate the additional personnel (such as a sequential assembly operation)

A project is scheduled to be completed in a set number of days, weeks, or months. The schedule can often be impacted to the extent that work activity must be accelerated by the increase of people and equipment. The most frequent reason for acceleration is that ________.

an increase or change in the scope of work must be completed within the original time frame

an opportunity to place a system in service at an early date forces the owner to impose a new completion date

the project manager believes that the original schedule was not valid and that acceleration is needed to meet the planned end date

Que

A. measure, delay, record, distribute, analyze, and directB. emphasize, visualize, analyze, conceptualize, report, and recordC. promote, highlight, monitor, control, forecast, and reportD. plan, schedule, monitor, control, report, and forecastE. all of the above


Que

A. becomes the current schedule with all changesB. is maintained as the original baseline for post-project evaluationsC. is deleted as being unusable and unneeded to manage the projectD. is amended to remove any errors but maintained for post-project evaluationsE. none of the above


Que

A. conceptual; planningB. implementation; executionC. planning; implementationD. execution; close-outE. none of the above


Que

A. Gantt chart; computerized schedulingB. histogram; automated bar chartC. Pareto diagram; computerized CPMD. CPM network; computerized schedulingE. none of the above


Que

A. engineersB. plannersC. managersD. the scheduling team

The project schedule is more than a document that lays out the activities over time to represent the time dimension of the project; it is a management tool to be used for decision making. As such, the schedule is used by the project management team to ________.

The project schedule is a dynamic document that is maintained in computer systems and that initially reflects the baseline plan. As the schedule is updated to correct errors, change the scope, or reflect actual duration, the baseline schedule ________.

The schedule is an important document to plan and control the use of time and to reflect progress on the project. As such, it should be developed during the ________ phase and updated during the ________ phase.

In scheduling, efficiency demands that the least sophisticated scheduling system be used to save on resources and maintenance time. In a small, simple project with few interdependencies, the most efficient means of graphically portraying the schedule would be by means of a ________. A complex project with many interdependencies would require a ________ system that would facilitate ease of planning and updating as well as reporting progress.

The project schedule is the key to tracking progress in the project. Schedule reports should be easily understood, practical, pertinent, and current because of their intended use by ________.

E. all of the above


Que

A. placement of the activity on the logic diagram lineB. ADM is a deterministic method whereas the PDM is a probabilistic methodC. PDM is a deterministic method whereas the ADM is a probabilistic methodD. PDM is a more accurate methodE. ADM is a more accurate method


Que

A. Using mandatory dependencies as constraintsB. Using discretionary dependencies as constraintsC. The availability of the resources which are assigned to perform the workD. The capabilities of the resources which are assigned to perform the workE. Using the ADM insteady of the PDM of scheduling


Que

A. Weighted averages of activity durations to calculate project durationB. "Dummy" activities to represent logic tiesC. "Free float" instead of "Total float" in the schedule calculationsD. Bar charts instead of logic diagrams to portray the scheduleE. Segmented network logic


Que The "fast-tracking" method of schedule compression involvesA.

B. Work package execution thereby increasing riskC. Going on a "mandatory overtime schedule" in order to compelte the project earlierD.

E. Assigning "dedicated teams" to the critical path activities


Que

A. Resource Utilization HistogramsB. Cash Flow ForecastsC. WBSD. Performance Measurement BaselineE. Purchase Order Curves

PMgroup Planning

The main difference between the two types (ADM and PDM) of the CPM of scheduling is the

The overall duration of the project schedule is influenced by all of the following except

The Program Evaluation and Review Technique method of schedule differs from the CPM because the PERT method uses

The use of industrial engineering technques to improve productivity; thereby finishing the project earlier than originally planned

Calculating the percentage of potential schedule overrun, and reducing each activity'sduration by that percentage in order to enable the project to complete on schedule

The project schedule is useful in the generation of many important documents during the life span of the project. All of the following documents may be generated by a project schedule except

341 Que # 341Que

A. Behind scheduleB. Ahead of scheduleC. Over budgetD. Under budgetE. Ahead of schedule and over budget


Que In what way does free float differ from total float?A.

B. There is no difference - the two terms are functionally equivalentC. Free float affects only the early start of any immediately following activitiesD.

E.


Que

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.


Que

A. Allows the relationships in the logic diagram to contain loopsB.

C.

D. Represents the duration of the project activities in a probabilistic fashionE. Represents the duration of the proejct activities in a deterministic fashion


Que

A. Higher than the ACWPB. Lower than the ACWPC. Higher than the BCWS

As of the data date, your project schedule has a BCWS of 100. The BCWP, however, is 110. This tells you that your project is currently 10%

Free float is the amount of Total float that does not affect the end date, whereas total float is the accumulated amount of Free float.

Free float is commonly referred to as "slack time", wehereas total float is commonlyreferred to as "float time".

An activity's Free Float is calculated by subtracting its total float from the critical path's Total Float.

An example of a "soft logic" dependency, as opposed to a "hard logic" depencency is

Project A, the company's participatin in a Pump Industry Trade show, depends on the successful completion of Project B, which is building the prototype punp that is going to be displayed

To install the plumbing and electrical work at the same time on a single family dwelling.

To schedule all unloading of equipment weighing in excess of fifty tons becausethe daily rent on the crane with that lifiting capability is $10,000.

For the shrink-wrapping on the finished box of software to depend on enclosing the manual and software first.

To schedule the final testing activity of a computer to start seventy-two hours after the mandatory seventy-two hour "burn-in" period.

One way that the Graphical Evaluation and Review Technique differs from the Program Evaluation adn Review Techniques is that it

Represents the Project Baseline Chart in a superimposed fashion over both the logicdiagram and teh Gantt Charts

Uses Object Oriented Programming techniques to allow resource histograms thatare attached to the project' sGantt Charts

Your schedule analysis has shown that your project has a high likelihood of experiencing a schedule overrun. You know this because the BCWP is much

D. Lower than the BCWSE. Higher than the CPI


Que The schedule shoud be "re-baselined" whenA. A sequence of activities has taken longer than originally plannedB.

C. The productivity within a certain discipline has been higher than originally plannedD. A high-duration activity has been accomplished "out-of-sequence"E. Problem experience dictates, in order to justify changes to the client


Que The key inputs into activity definition areA. Work breakdown structure, project schedule, and network diagramB. Project schedule, progress reports, and change requestsC. Project network diagram, constraints, and durationsD.

E. Scope statement, work breakdown structure, and changes required


Que To decrease the total project duration for the least cost is calledA. Duration compresesionB. CrashingC. PERTD. ADM or PDM forward and backward pass to determine the critical pathE. Fast Tracking


Que A Gantt chart is useful in determiningA. The level of effort of a taskB. When a task starts and stopsC. How tasks are related to each otherD. Who is assigned to do a taskE. Relative priority of tasks


Que

A. The WBSB. The Gantt ChartC. Time scaled network diagrammingD. GERTE. CPM


Que PERT is used forA. Developing teh WBSB. Developing cost histograms

The scope has been increased by the client, with an associated approval of the increase

Work breakdown structure, scope statement, and historical information that supports the applicable activity

A network analysis technique that allows for conditional and probabilistic treatment of logical relationships is known as

C.

D. Presenting project summary status to upper managementE.


Que The PDM provides project managers with knowledgte ofA. All levels of the WBSB. Tasks likely to be involved in the project integration and resource allocation functionsC. A graphical representation of the task interdependenciesD. What the project completion date isE. Project duration analysis of which sequence of activities has the least flexibility


Que Analogous estimating is also calledA. Bottom-up estimatingB. Top-down estimatingC. Multiple dureation estimatingD. Deductive estimatingE. Inductions estimating


Que The critical path is calculated by establishing the following datesA. Start to start, start to finish, finish to finish, finish to startB. Early start, early finish, late start, late finishC. Predecessor to successor, predecessor to predecessor, successor to successorD. Primary to secondary, primary to finish, secondary to secondary, finish to finishE. Planned start, actual start, planned finish, actual finish


Que Fast Tracking in time management isA. Doing some or all activities in parallel rather than in sequenceB. Preparing progress reports on a quick turnaround basisC. The timely input of data to calculate the critical pathD. Reducing the time allowed for each project activityE. Minimizing float


Que The most important element necessary for project control isA. Upper management commitmentB. Responsibility over resourcesC. A labor distribution reporting systemD. Clear requirementsE. Sufficient management reserve


Que

A. The arror diagram incorporates PERT in the activity duration

Estimating project duration when there is a high degree of uncertainty with the individualactivity duration estimates

Determining project duration when it is necessary to factor in the conditional probabilistictreatment of logical relationships

A precedence diagram and an arrow diagram are both examples of networks. Which statement describes the primary difference between them?

B. The precedence diagram represents activities as nodesC. The arrow diagram does not indicate critical pathD. The precedence diagram uses float as part of the activity durationE. None of the above; they are virtually identical


Que

A. LagB. LeadC. FloatD. SlackE. None of the above


Que

A. WorkdaysB. Calendar daysC. Resource unitsD. Monetary unitsE. Monetary units and time units


Que Milestones are notA. Activities of zero durationB. Significant events in the project life cycleC. Measures of achievement for expenditures of money or timeD. Set by project stakeholdersE. Best utilized when denoting start and finish of all activities


Que

A. SlackB. Early datesC. Late datesD. Critical path priorityE. Resource production rate


Que The network diagramA. Illustrates project team member communicationB. Identifies the scheduled start and end dates of key activities and administrative tasksC. Displays the logical relationships between project activitiesD. Provides information on schedule performanceE. None of the above


Which term describes a modification of a logical relationship that delays a successor task?

In the earned value method of progress performance measurement, schedule variance is a measure of the time deviation between the actual progress and the planned progress that is measured in

Many resource leveling algorithms are available to project schedulers. Which of the following is not used as a basis for resource leveling?

Que The goal of resource-constrained scheduling is toA. Organize time on construction projectsB. Minimize the overall project duration given the available resources C. Minimize overtime expenses by assigning resources within normal work hoursD. Maximize the efficiency of available resources based on activity sequencesE. Increase productivity through fast-tracking and crashing procedures


Que

A.

B.

C. Activity sequencing, schedule development, risk quantification, and schedule controlD. Schedule development, schedule control, and earned value assessmentsE. Activity definition, duration estimates, activity scheduling, and resource control


Que

A. The total duration of both activities is 7 daysB. Calendar time between the start of A to the finish of B is 11 daysC. The finish date of B is Wednesday the 13thD. A and BE. A, B, and C


Que Schedule control is concerned withA.

B. Determining that the schedule has changedC. Managing the actual changes when and as they occurD. Working to integrate schedule control with other control processesE. All of the above


Que

A. DiscretionaryB. SoftC. PreferentialD. Mandatory or hardE. Regulated


Que

A. SPC analysis

Project time management includes the proceses to ensure timely completion of the project. The major components of time management are

Activity definition, activity sequencing, activity duration estimates, activity cost estimates, and schedule development

Activity definition, activity sequencing, activity duration estimates, schedule development, and schedule control

Activity A has a duration of 3 days and begins on the morning of Monday the 4th. The successor activity, B, has a finish-to-start relationship with A. The finish-to-start relationship has 3 days of lag, and activity B has a duration of 4 days. Sunday is a nonworkday. What can be determined from these data?

Influencing the factors that create schedule changes to ensure that the changes are beneficial

"I cannot test the software until I code the software." This expression describes which of the following dependencies?

The schedule development technique that provides early and late start and finish dates for each acivity is

B. GERTC. CPMD. Monte Carlo simulationE. Expected value


Que Float, or slack, is a measure ofA. Free timeB. Scheduling constraintC. Resource availabilityD. Scheduling flexibilityE. Underscheduled resources


Que In project time management, fast-tracking meansA. Reducing the duration of critical path activities to shorten project durationB. Reducing project duration by redefining logical relationshipsC. Using only the best resources to accomplish work as quickly as possibleD. Coordinating efforts with other projects to reduce administrative frictionE. Using state-of-the-art software to measure project progress


Que

A. The work is unique requiring special network diagrams at various stagesB. The software that manages resources is available over an existing electronic networkC.

D. A and BE. A and C


Que

A. Extra floatB. Free floatC. Total floatD. Expected floatE. Stacked float


Que

A. Final output is described in terms of work packages in the WBSB. Final output is described as deliverables or tangible itemsC. Final output is described as activities or action stepsD. Final output is described in terms of objectives that relate to the scope statementE. Decomposition is used the same way in scope definition and activity definition

Several tools and techniques are available for activity sequencing. The tool or technique selected can be determined by several factors. If the project manager decides to include SUBNETS or FRAGNETS as part of his or her scheduling technique, what would that decision say about the project?

Several identical or nearly identical series of activities are repeated throughout the project

Several types of float are found in project networks. Float that is used by a particular activity and does not affect the float in later activities is called

Decomposition is a technique used for both scope and activity definition. Which statement best describes the role decomposition plays in activity definition as compared to scope definition?


Que

A. AD = Work quantity divided by Production RateB. AD = Work quantity divided by Number of ResourcesC. AD = Production rate divided by Work quantityD. AD = (Production rate times Work quantity) divided by Number of ResourcesE. None of the above


Que The three main types of diagramming methods areA. AOA, PERT, and CPMB. PERT, CPM and GERTC. Precedence, arrow, and conditionalD. AON, AOA and PDME. ADM, PDM and AON


Que

A. Cost and time slope for each activity that can be expeditedB. Cost of additional resources to be added to the projectC. Time that will be saved in the overall schedule when tasks are expeditedD. Changes in technology that result from crashing the projectE. Three probabilistic time estimates of PERT


Que Conditional diagramming methods such as GERT are usedA.

B. For a graphical representation of the networkC.

D. To help expedite the preparattion of a project network diagramE. To easily display dummy activitites in a network


Que Which of the following is NOT an output from activity duration estimating?A. Activity duration estimatesB. Basis of estimatesC. Activity list updatesD. WBS updatesE. An indication of the range of possible results


Que

A. Earliest time each activity in the network can start and finishB. Amount of resources required to complete the project

Which of the following formulas provides the most accurate result for computing activity duration?

To assess the implications of crashing a project, a project manager should first compute

Because PDM and ADM do not allow nonsequential activities, such as loops or conditional branches

To show the four types of dependencies (finish-to-start, finish-to-finish, start-to-start, and start-to-finish)

The primary outcome of performing a forward pass on a network diagram is the determination of the

C. Project's total floatD. A and BE. A, B, and C


Que The project schedule may be presented graphically as aA. Bar chartB. Project network diagram with date informaton addedC. Milestone chartD. Time-scaled network diagramE. All of the above


Que Unlike bar charts, milestone charts showA. Scheduled start or completion of major deliverables and key eventsB. Activity start and end datesC. Expected durationsD. DependenciesE. Logical relationships and critical path


Que

A. Total float for the activity is 9 daysB. The early finish date of the activity is the end of the day on the 13thC. The late finish date is the 25thD. The total calendar time to complete the activity is 4 daysE. A and B


Que The basis for measuring and reporting schedule performance is the A. Schedule baselineB. Number of change requestsC. Difference between planned and actual events and activitiesD. Need for duration compression techniquesE. All of the above


Que Which tool provides a basis to identify the work that must be scheduled?A. Kanban chartB. WBSC. BudgetD. Master scheduleE. Gantt chart


Que

A. Productivity rates

An activity has an early start date of the 10th and a late start date of the 19th. The activity also has a duration of 4 days. There are no nonworkdays. From the information given, what can be concluded about the activity?

Although several factors should be considered when developing estimates, the primary basis for estimating activity time and cost estimates is

B. Resource usageC. Resource availabilityD. A and BE. A and C


Que

A. Resource requirementsB. Resource capabilitiesC. Project team knowledgeD. Past project filesE. All of the above


Que

A. 55.70%B. 68.26%C. 95.46%D. 99.73%E. Cannot be determined


Que The major difference between PERT and CPM is that PERTA. Uses the distribution's mean (expected value) in computing the scheduleB. Uses the most likely estimate to compute floatC.



Que

A. ModificationsB. EnhancementsC. RefinementsD. AlterationsE. Permutations


Que A milestone is best described asA. A combination of related activities and eventsB.

C.

D. A specific project task that requires resources and time to completeE. The last stage leading to project completion

Determining activity durations require developing estimates. Typical input to consider in developing an estimate includes which of the following?

Activity A has a pessimistic (P) estimate of 36 days, a most likely (ML) estimate of 21 days, and an optimistic (O) estimate of 6 days. What is the probability that activity A will be completed in 16 to 26 days?

Focuses on calculating float to determine which activities have the least scheduling flexibility

Updates to the WBS, which are most likely to occur when the project involves new or unproven technology, are often called

An intersection of two or more lines or arrows commonly used for depicting an event or activity

An identifiable point in a project that denotes a reporting requirement or completion of an important activity


Que In project time management, crashing meansA. Reducing project duration by redefining logical relationshipsB. Reducing computer network downtime for schedule risk modelingC. Applying additional resources to all project activitiesD. Randomly applying resources to critical path activitiesE. Applying additional resources to critical path activities by priority


Que A dummy activityA. Is used only in activity-on-arrow networksB. Has zero durationC. Does not require resourcesD. Indicates a precedence relationshipE. All of the above


Que

A. LagB. LevelingC. CrashingD. LeadE. None of the above


Que PERT is an estimating tool thatA. Incorporates risk as an element of the estimateB. Can be used only for estimating level of effort C. Can be used only in PDMD. Uses only historical estimates to calculate standard deviationsE. None of the above


Que

A. IB. II and IIIC. I and II

Which term describes a modification of a logical relationship that accelerates a successor task?

The following activities are in a network diagramactivity Predecessors Duration (days) A. Excavating none 5 B. Pouring foundation A 2 C. Installing outside plumbing A 6 D. Framing B 8 E. Installing inside plumbing D 2 F. Wiring D 3

In the network outlined above, which statements are true? I. Installing outside plumbing is on the critical path II. Installing inside plumbing has a day of slack III. Pouring foundation is on the critical path

D. I and IIIE. I, II, and III


A. Gantt chartB. Network diagramC. Fish bone diagramD. Milestone chartE.

Answers

100 D101 E102 B103 C104 A105 E106 A107 C108 E109 C111 E112 E113 A114 D115 C116 D117 D118 B119 D120 E121 C122 A123 E124 A125 C126 D127 B128 C129 D130 D131 B132 E133 E134 E135 C136 E137 C138 A139 E140 B141 A

Which of the following would be used to present information to upper management?

142 B143 E144 A145 E146 B147 E148 A149 D150 B151 C152 A153 A336 A337 E338 A339 B340 C341 B342 C343 B344 A345 D346 B347 D348 B349 B350 D351 C352 C353 B354 B355 A501 D502 B503 A504 D505 E506 E507 C508 B509 B510 D511 E512 D513 C514 D515 B516 C517 B518 C519 A520 C521 A522 A523 D524 A

525 E526 A527 E528 A529 B530 D531 E532 B533 A534 C535 C536 E537 E538 A539 A540 B606 A

PROJECT INTEGRATION MANAGEMENT

PMgroup PlanningQue # 108Que The project life-cycle can be described as

A. Project concept, project planning, project execution, and project close-outB. Project planning, work authorization, and project reportingC.

D. Project concept, project execution, and project reportingE. All of the above

PMgroup PlanningQue # 109Que Documented work authorizations provide

A. A means for effective internal coordination of the project's activitiesB. An audit trail of all work authorized from project initiation to completionC.

D. All the aboveE. A and B only

PMgroup PlanningQue # 112Que A project is defined as

A.

B.

C.

D.

E. All of the above

PMgroup PlanningQue # 116Que A Program is characterized as

A. A grouping of related tasks lasting one year or lessB. A unique undertaking having a definite time periodC.

D. A project with a cost over $1 millionE. None of the above

PMgroup PlanningQue # 118Que The purpose of configuration management is to ...

A. Insure drawings are updatedB. Control change throughout the projectC. Control change during production onlyD. Generate Engineering Change ProposalsE. Inform the project manager of changes

Project planning, project control, project definition, WBS development and project termination

A means for communication of work activity between the project manager and the performing activities

A coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that has a finite period of performance

A large, complex undertaking with many objectives, multiple sources of funding and no discernable end point

An undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that can be accomplished in less than one year

A group of activities headed by a project manager who has cradle-to-grave life cycle responsibility for the end product

A grouping of similar projects having no definite end that supports the product(s) from cradle to grave

PMgroup PlanningQue # 119Que Selection criteria for project selection include ...

A. Cost vs benefitsB. RiskC. Contribution towards organizational goalsD. Rate of returnE. All of the above

PMgroup PlanningQue # 124Que Configuration or baseline control refers to

A.

B. control over any effort that has been approved by a higher authorityC. engineering tolerancesD. acceptance control charts and their analysisE. a and d

PMgroup PlanningQue # 128Que The nine categories in the PMI exam are skill areas most closely related to

A. corporate visionB. corporate strategyC. specifications project designD. operationsE. product and customer


A. the project planB. a statement of workC. an exception reportD. a Pareto analysisE. a code of accounts


A. strategic planningB. alternative objectives inventoryC. management by objectivesD. contingency planningE. goal tending

PMgroup PlanningQue # 147Que During what phase are project feasibility studies carried out?

procedures monitoring work content and products against the original content and end product

A narrative description of products or services to be supplied under contract is called

The process of establishing clear and achievable objectives measuring their achievement, and adjusting performance in accordance with the results of the measurement is called

A. conceptualB. developmentC. implementationD. close-outE. post-monem

PMgroup PlanningQue # 149Que Configuration management is

A.

B. the production of a scope statementC. the creation of the work breakdown stuctureD. the set of procedures developed to assure that project design criteria are metE. a mechanism to track budget and schedule variances

PMgroup ExecutingQue # 150Que

A. predict trendsB. summarize current project statusC. compute earned valueD. establish blame for project failuresE. a and b

PMgroup PlanningQue # 154Que A key component of any configuration management system is

A. estimate at completion (EAC)B. a change control board (CCB).C. budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP)D. benefit-cost ratios.E. management reserve.

PMgroup ControllingQue # 157Que A role of the change control board is to

A. issue change requests.B. represent top management interests in initiating innovation.C. review the impact of change requests on project costs, schedule, and specifications.D. schedule changes into PERT networks.E. identify new areas of project work.

PMgroup PlanningQue # 159Que A key rule for achieving customer satisfaction is

A. do not spare expenses in product/service developmentB. conduct a needs analysis.C. always do what the customer suggests.D. do not contradict the customer.E. b and c.

a means of monitoring and controlling emerging project scope against the scope baseline

A review of historical data points (e.g., cost or schedule data) over time is most usefully used to


A. They are inherently threatening.B. They are disruptive.C. They can be arbitrary.D. They are resisted by those being evaluated.E. They are unnecessary.

PMgroup ClosingQue # 164Que The final steps in the close-out phase generally lead up to

A. a project selection decision.B. a redefinition of project requirements.C. customer acceptance.D. a final review of the deliverable by the engineering review board.E. a kick-off meeting.

PMgroup ControllingQue # 169Que To be effective, post-project evaluations should be used to

A. punish the poor performers.B. develop historical data to establish baselines for future projects.C. learn lessons.D. All of the above.E. B and C


A. document controlB. procurement/acquisition controlC. personnel hiring controlD. specification controlE. design control


A. size of the budgetB. level of uncertaintyC. location of implementationD. type of scheduling systemE. undefined objectives

PMgroup Planning

Evaluations are carried out throughout the life of a project. Sometimes they entail technical reviews, other times they focus on management audits, and so on. What is not a common problem of evaluations?

During the development of the project control system, several areas are considered for the establishment of mechanisms to guide the project, but the control system for the project does not include ________.

Selection of an organization to prosecute a project depends upon three key items degree of advanced technology in the project, percentage of project personnel in the professional category, and the ________ for the project.

Que # 186Que

A. conceptual, development, and implementationB. conceptual, action, and operational controllingC. development, implementation, and operational controllingD. planning, action, and changesE. planning, implementing, and measuring


A. master scheduleB. budgetC. project organizationD. project management systemE. none of the above

PMgroup InitiatingQue # 207Que

A. control and transition workB. budget and schedule workC. divide and initiate workD. allocate resources and authorize expendituresE. allocate responsibility and authority


A.

B.

C.

D.

E.


The planning evolution is often depicted as a wheel where one action leads to another until the cycle brings a person back to an evaluation of the lower levels of the plans against the top level objectives. The three stages in this planning evolution are ________.

A project management plan encompasses several elements that are often considered separate parts of the project, but the plan does not include a ________.

The project's life cycle consists of four recognized, distinct phases conceptual, planning, implementation, and close-out. The primary purpose of phasing is to ________.

Many times throughout the project, the project manager will be asked by his/her management or the customer to give his/her personal forecast for milestones or targets. The project manager should ________.

never give a personal assessment but defer the question until the official answer can be obtained

give a personal assessment but be certain to include many caveats to show the uncertainty of the answer

give an interim answer that includes the qualifier "I believe" until a better answer can be obtained

tell the asking party that project policy precludes anyone from giving a personal assessment to avoid misunderstandings

be in a position to answer such questions in general at any time, but should take time to respond to questions requiring precise answers

Que

A. I, II, and III onlyB. I, III, and IV onlyC. II, III, and IV onlyD. II, III, and V onlyE. III, IV, and V only

PMgroup PlanningQue # 301Que The Project plan is used to

A. Finalize budget cost estimatesB. Facilitate communication among stakeholdersC. Provide a variable measurement progressD. Develop corrective actionsE. Improve management's general skills


A. I and III onlyB. I and IV onlyC. II and III onlyD. II and IV onlyE. III and IV only

PMgroup PlanningQue # 303Que Performance measurement baselines should

A. Remain the same throughout all phases of the projectB. Change frequently to accommodate current information about the projectC.

D. Change in order to keep the customer happyE. Change only when higher management directs them to be changed

PMgroup PlanningQue # 304Que Which process is included in Project Integration Management?

A. Project plan developmentB. Scope planningC. Scope definitionD. Scope verificationE. Procurement planning

PMgroup ControllingQue # 305Que Identify the Subsidiary Change Control process listed below

Tools included in Overall Change Control are I. Configuration management. II. Performance measurement. III. Project management information system. IV. Performance reports. V. Project plan updates.

The project performance measurement baselines I. Are equivalent to the project plan. II. Are a management control. III. Generally change only intermittently. IV. Document relevant standards.

Change only intermittently and generally only in response to an approved scope change

A. Management systemsB. Risk change controlC. Customer interface control systemsD. Cost estimatesE. Performance reporting


A. Control cost increasesB. Identify and correct problems arising in functional areas of project implementationC. Identify and document physical characteristics of an itemD. Test new systemsE. Estimate and control risk

PMgroup ControllingQue # 307Que A Change Control Board is

A.

B. An informal or formal group of team members responsible for changes to a projectC. An informal group which has oversight of project implementationD.

E.

PMgroup InitiatingQue # 308Que The five basic groups are

A. Planning, checking, directing, monitoring, and recordingB. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closingC. Planning, executing, monitoring, redirecting, and closingD. Planning, executing, directing, closing, and deliveringE. Initiating, executing, monitoring, evaluating, and closing

PMgroup InitiatingQue # 309Que

A. Resolution and actionB. Formatting and creationC. Tools and techniquesD. Process integrationE. Action and integration


A. Activity definition, activity sequencing, activity execution, and activity durationB. Activity definition, activity sequencing, and ativity duration

Configuration Management is any documented procedure used to apply technical administrative direction and surveillance to

A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for ensuring that only a minimal amount of changes occur on the project

A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines

The project manager and several key tem members working to ensure cost and schedulecontrol during the life of the project

The subprocesses of a project are defined by PMI as having an input, __________, and an output.

As a function of Project Time Managem;ent, the process of developing a schedule is made up of

C. Activity identificaiton, activity execution, and activity resultesD. Activity identification, activity sequencing, activity connection, and activity durationE. Activity determination, activity duration, activity implementation, and activity results

PMgroup ControllingQue # 311Que A controlling process for a project's schedule typically will focus on activities

A. Starting earlier than scheduled.B. Starting later than scheduled.C. That vary from the plan, whether late or earlyD. That are only on the critical pathE. That are difficult to carry out

PMgroup InitiatingQue # 325Que A stakeholder is a(n)

A. Project engineerB. Vineyard field workerC. Individual or agency that conrols contingency fundsD. Individual or organization affected by project activitiesE. Organization's corporate attorney

PMgroup PlanningQue # 331Que The following is an example of a process constraint

A. A target completion dateB. A business riskC. The threat of a strike by a subcontractorD. Relationship with the sellerE. The method used to measure project performance

PMgroup PlanningQue # 333Que A program is characterized as a

A. Grouping of related tasks lasting one year or lessB. Unique undertaking having a definite time periodC. A grouping of related projectsD. A project with a cost over $1ME. Sequence of steps constituting a project

PMgroup INTQue # 501Que The purpose of project plan development is to

A. Create a document to guide project execution and controlB. Document project assumptions and constraintsC. Promote communication among stakeholdersD. Define key project reportsE.

PMgroup INTQue # 502Que Overall change control is primarily concerned with

A.

B.

C. Integrating deliverables from different functional specialties on the projectD. Establishing a change control board that oversees the overall changes on the projectE.

PMgroup INTQue # 503Que The principal objective of project stakeholder management is to

A. Identify all potential users of the project to ensure complete requirements analysisB.

C. Be proactive in curtailing stakeholder activities that might adversely affect the projectD. Build goodwill in the case of schedule and cost overrunsE.

PMgroup INTQue # 504Que Most of the project's budget is expended during

A. Project plan developmentB. Project plan executionC. Overall change controlD. Project initiationE.

Que # 505Que Assumptions generally involve some risk because

A. Assumptions are based on lessons learnedB. Historical information may not be availableC. Assumptions are based on constraintsD. Assumptions involve factors that are considered true, real, or certainE.

Que # 506Que All approved changes should be reflected in the

A. Performance measurement baselineB. Change management planC. Quality assurance planD. Project planE.

Que # 507Que

A. Continuous improvement targetsB. Status meetingsC. Employee performance reviewsD. Time reportingE.

Que # 508

Influencing factors that cause change, determining that change has occurred, and managing actual changes as they occur

Maintaining integrity of baselines, integrating product and project scope, and coordinating change across knowledge areas

Thwart criticism of the project by developing a list of responses to known stakeholder concerns

In project plan development, which of the following is not an organizational policy whose effects on the project must be considered?

Que The output of project plan execution consists of A. Work results and change requestsB. Project plan updates and corrective actionC. Baseline changes and work authorizationD. Additional planning and deliverablesE.

Que # 509Que The primary purpose of benchmarking is to

A. Perform marketing research to forecast how well a particular product will sellB. Measure products, services, and processes against those of other organizationsC.

D. Determine performance targetsE.

Que # 510Que Change requests occur in all the following forms except

A. Oral or writtenB. Legally mandated or optionalC. Formal or informalD. Externally or internally initiatedE.

Que # 511Que According to McGregor, a manager who uses Theory X sees workers as

A. Highly motivated, willing to take responsibilityt, and reliableB. Highly untrustworthy, needing to be watched and closely managed at all timesC. Very productive when first given an assignmentD. Unproductive at first, followed by periods of high productivityE.

Que # 512Que

A. Ensures that project objectives are metB. Expedites actions to ensure that activities are completed on timeC. Completes the feedback loop needed to ensure effective project managementD. Involves performing a planned response for a specific project risk eventE.

Que # 513Que A project management information system comprises

A. Any of the project management software used for schedule developmentB.

C. The policies and procedures to follow as the project is performedD.

E.

Que # 514Que A change control board is

Understand and collect data on customer requirements to focus attention on meeting customer needs

Although an output of the various control processes, corrective action is also an input to project plan execution because it

All the required reports to be prepared on the project, who receives each one, and the method of distribution

The tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the output of the other project management processes

A. Recommended for use on all projects, large or smallB. Used as required to approve or reject change requestsC. Managed by the project manager who serves as its secretary D. Composed of key members of the project teamE.

Que # 515Que The project plan should be distributed to

A. All stakeholders in the performing organizationB. All project stakeholdersC. Project team members and the project sponsorD. Those people defined inf the communication management planE.

Que # 516Que

A. Establishing direction, aligning people, and motivating and inspiring othersB. Getting things done through other peopleC. Using charismatic power to motivate others to be productiveD. Using all types of power, as appropriate, as motivational toolsE.

Que # 517Que The change control system includes

A. Procedures to define how documents may be changedB. Specific change requests expected on the project and plans to respond to each oneC. Performance reports that forecast project changesD. A description of the functional and physical characteristics of an item or systemE.

Que # 518Que

A. Become alienated with the organization and leaveB. Lack motivation but will not be dissatisfied with their workC. Lack motivation and become dissatisfied with their workD. Become dissatisfied only if they do not receive salary increasesE.

Que # 519Que

A. Suggested by the project sponsorB. The result of an emergencyC. Suggested by the customerD. Made mandatory by a new regulationE.

Que # 520Que Problem solving, which is an important activity on projects, consists of

Leadership and management are both necessary on projects. One definition of managing is that it involves producing key results expected by stakeholders, whereas leadership involves

According to Herzberg's motivator-hygiene Theory of Motivation, if achievement, recognition, responsibility, advance or promotion, and positive supervisor attitude are not present, employees will

Typically, change control systems include automatic approval of certain types of changes. An example of such a change is one that is

A. Influencing the organization to get things doneB. Defining problems and making decisionsC. Conferring with others to reach a decisionD. Producing key results expected by stakeholdersE.

Que # 521Que Rolling wave planning provides information on the work to be done

A. Throughout all phases of the projectB. For successful completion of the current phase of the projectC. For successful completion of the current phase and subsequent phases of the project

D. In the next phase of the projectE.

Que # 522Que

A. Identifying functional and physical characteristics of an item or systemB. Controlling changes to characteristicsC. Performing an audit to verify conformance to requirementsD. Allowing automatic approval of changesE.

Que # 523Que As applied to projects, temporary means that

A. Projects are short in durationB. Every project has a definite begining and endC. The undertaking will end at an undetermined time in the futureD. Projects can be canceled at any timeE.

Que # 524Que

A. The work authorization systemB. Organizational proceduresC. Product skills and knowledgeD. Organizational policiesE.

Que # 525Que

A. Records of past performanceB. Financial reports from similar projectsC. A predefined budgetD. Lessons learned from prior projectsE.

Que # 526

Configuration management describes procedures to apply technical and administrative direction. Which of the following tasks is not performed in configuration management?

All the following are examples of tools and techniques used in integration management except

Which of the following is an example of a constraint in project plan development?

Que

A. Help show the status of the projectB. Measure overall project progressC. Summarize information on the project for reporting to stakeholdersD. Help assess whether variances from the plan require corrective actionE.

Que # 527Que The management-by-objectives technique addresses all the following except

A. Establishing unambiguous and realistic objectivesB. Periodically evaluating whether project objectives have been achievedC. Promoting participation, team building, and commitment to the projectD. Establishing a specific career path for a project team memberE.

Que # 528Que A work authorization system is a

A. Work breakdown structure showing individual work elementsB.

C.

D.

E.

Que # 529Que The purpose of a project planning methodology is to

A. Provide a structured approach to guide the project team in project plan developmentB. Ensure that all required forms are completedC.

D. Serve as a repository of lessons learned that can be applied to the current projectE.

Que # 530Que Lessons learned from projects are significant because they

A. Must be collected to meet requirements of organizational policies and proceduresB.

C. Show why certain projects were selected by the organization over othersD.

E.

Que # 531Que According to the expectancy theory of motivation

A. Poor performance is the natural outcome of poor training B. Managers should not expect too much of workersC. Motivation to act is linked to an outcome that is expected to have valueD. Managers should expect that employees who are paid more will work harderE.

Performance measurement techniques are useful in overall change control because they

Formal procedures for sanctioning work so that it is done at the right time and in the proper sequence

Method to ensure that each person on the project team knows the work elements that are his or her responsibility

System to help measure performance in terms of work completed versus work planned

Ensure that organizational policies and procedures are followed during the development and execution of the project plan

Show the causes of variances and the reasons certain corrective actions were selected

Show why certain people were selected as project manager and team members over others

Que # 532Que Work results are

A. Outcomes of activities performed to accomplish the project B. Success criteria for the project to meetC. Official verification of project acceptance by the customerD. Official verification of contract completionE.

Que # 533Que

A. Project management softwareB. A continuous improvement targetC. A facilitated kickoff meetingD. Cost accounting codesE.

Que # 534Que

A. Is considered a project riskB. Becomes a lesson learned as a result of the corrective action selectedC. Jeopardizes project objectivesD. Requires corrective actionE.

Que # 535Que

A. Laissez-faireB. DemocraticC. AutocraticD. DirectiveE.

Que # 536Que A project management process and a product-oriented management process

A. Overlap and interact throughout the projectB. Are defined by the project life cycleC. Are concerned with describing and organizing project workD. Are similar for each applicaiton areaE.

Que # 537Que Which of the following is not part of the project plan?

A. The project charterB. The WBSC. Performance measurement baselines for schedule and costD. The project team members' compensation planE.

Which of the following is an example of a "soft" tool that could be part of a project management methodology?

Measuring project performance regularly is necessary to identify variances from the project plan. A variance is considered to be significant if it

Which of the following is an appropriate management style to use with the project manager wants to enxcourage the staff to pool its knowledge to make the best decision possible?

Que # 538Que Controlling occurs

A. On a continual basis throughout the projectB.

C. At the end of each planning processD.

E.

Que # 539Que What are Maslow's three highest levels of human needs?

A. Physiological, safety, and socialB. Recognition, responsibility, and rewardC. Self-actualization, esteem, and socialD. Happiness, health, and prosperityE.

PMgroup INTQue # 540Que Organizational interfaces are primarily

A. Contractual interfaces between more than one organizationB. Management decisions relating to the resolution of conflictC. Personal interfaces addressing professional development programsD. Management interfaces dealing with actions, decisions, or approvalsE.


A. Project management involves setting organizational objectivesB. Projects generally are handled through a matrix management environmentC. Project managers' responsibilities are defined in terms of corporate objectivesD. All projects should be strongly oriented toward goals and objectivesE.

PMgroup PlanningQue # 543Que The principal objective of project stakeholder management is to

A. Identify all potential users of the project to ensure complete requirements analysisB.

C. Be proactive in curtailing stakeholder activities that might adversely affect the projectD.

E. Build goodwill in the case of schedule and cost overruns

PMgroup PlanningQue # 544Que As applied to projects, TEMPORARY means that

A. Projects are short in duration

At the end of each phase of the project life cycle to assess its success in meeting project objectives

On a continual basis throughout the executing process and as needed in the other processes

A project is an ideal environment in which to use the technique of management by objectives because

Top management policy and goals should flow down through the management hierarchy

Thwart criticism of the project by developing a list of responses to known stakeholder concerns

Discredit negative stakeholders so that their arguments and concerns will not have much credence

B. Every project has a definite beginning and endC. The undertaking will end at an undetermined time in the futureD. Projects can be canceled at any timeE. All of the above

PMgroup ControllingQue # 545Que A change control system should include all the following except

A. Procedures to handle changes that may be approved without prior reviewB. Procedures for automatic approval of defined categories of changeC. Paperwork, tracking systems, and approval levels necessary for authorizing changesD. A description of the powers and responsibilities of the change control boardE. Procedures for conducting a midproject control system review

PMgroup PlanningQue # 546Que The management-by-objectives technique

A. Establishes unambiguous and realistic objectivesB. Periodically evaluates whether project objectives have been achievedC. Promotes participation and team building on the projectD. Fosters commitment to the projectE. All of the above

PMgroup ControllingQue # 547Que The project plan is important in change control because it

A. Provides the baseline against which changes are managedB. Provides information on project performanceC. Alerts the project team to issues that may cause problems in the futureD.

E. Is not expected to change throughout the project

PMgroup ControllingQue # 548Que A change request may be

A. Oral or writtenB. Direct or indirectC. Externally or internally initiatedD. Legally mandated or optionalE. All of the above


A. Reviewing all requested changes to the project and identifying all impacts.B. Evaluating benefits, costs, and alternatives to requested changesC. Accepting or rejecting requested changesD. Documenting all actions and decisionsE. Serving as a communication link for all actions between the project and the customer.

Helps to apply technical and administrative direction and surveillance to the change control process

A configuration control board can be a significant part of a large project. Which activity is NOT a function of the configuration control board?

PMgroup ControllingQue # 550Que Two fundamental objectives of project control are to

A. Achieve results by altering activities and managing organizational assetsB.

C.

D.

E. Avoid quality or reliability problems through incorrect task sequencing


A. MatrixB. Tight matrixC. FunctionalD. ProjectizedE. None of the above

PMgroup ControllingQue # 553Que The three major causes of change on a project are

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

PMgroup ControllingQue # 554Que All the following statements are true about interface, EXCEPT

A. Considered to be the most difficult aspect of implementing the project planB.

C.

D.

E.

PMgroup InitiatingQue # 555

Eliminate unexpected technical problems and technical difficulties that require more resources

Ensure that resources are available when needed and that the scope of work does not increase

Ensure that the required input of material, personnel, and equipment is available when needed and that budgeting is adequate

A project manager's company operates in a high-technology area requiring the integration and sharing of several functional specialties. The project manager is considering the appropriate organizational structure for a new project. The likely choice would be

Replacement of the project manager or key project team members, changes in priorities by senior management, and contractual difficulties

Changes in the relative importance of time, resources, or cost; new knowledge about the deliverable; and technological uncertainty

Errors in the initial assessment of how to achieve the goal of the project, new informatoin about the project deliverable, and a new mandate

Introduction of new technology, financial difficulties of the parent organization, and lack of resources to commit to the project

Unavailability of resources promised by the functional managers, cost overruns, and changes in customer requirements

The process of coordinating the various elements of the project so that they meet their joint goals of performance, schedule, and budget

The responsibility of the project manager as part of the everyday task of managing the project

Facilitated by use of the responsibility assignment matrix to display the ways people on the project interact and their duties and responsibilities

Primarily concerned with the technical issues associated with linking system components in a configuration

Que The input to project initiation consists ofA. The product or service description B. The company's strategic planC. The project selection criteriaD. Historical dataE. All of the above

Answers108 A109 D112 A116 C118 B119 E124 A128 C132 B146 C147 A149 A150 E154 B157 C159 B163 E164 C169 E179 C181 B186 C190 E207 A211 E300 A301 B302 C303 C304 A305 B306 C307 D308 B309 C310 B311 C325 D331 A333 C501 A

502 A503 C504 B505 D506 D507 B508 A509 B510 C511 B512 C513 D514 B515 D516 A517 A518 C519 B520 B521 C522 D523 B524 D525 C526 D527 D528 B529 A530 B531 C532 A533 C534 C535 B536 A537 D538 A539 C540 D542 D543 C544 B545 E546 E547 A548 E549 E550 A551 A553 C554 E555 E